Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 2Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 3Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 4Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 5Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 6Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 7Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 8Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 9Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 10Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 11Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 12Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 13Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 14Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 15Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Logical Reasoning
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 28Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 29Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 31Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 33Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 36Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 40Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 41Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 42Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 43Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 46Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 48Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 50Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
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Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 68Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 69Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 70Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 71Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 72Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 73Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 74Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 75Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
General Knowledge
Question 76Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 77Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 78Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 79Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 81Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 82Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 83Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 84Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 86Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 90Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 91Single Answer
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Rajasthan
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Gujarat
Question 92Single Answer
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A
ISRO
B
HAL
C
Bharat Dynamics Limited
D
DRDO
Question 93Single Answer
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Ministry of Electronics and IT
Question 94Single Answer
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
A
Promote cash transactions
B
Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
C
Reduce ATM usage
D
Increase bank branch networks
Question 95Single Answer
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?
A
Rajasthan
B
Gujarat
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Maharashtra
Question 96Single Answer
Who was appointed as the first Indian-origin Director of the FBI in February 2025?
A
Ajit Pai
B
Neal Katyal
C
Kash Patel
D
Preet Bharara
Question 97Single Answer
What was the theme of the Pusa Krishi Vigyan Mela 2025 held in New Delhi?
A
Organic Agriculture
B
Advanced Agriculture – Developed India
C
Digital Farming
D
Sustainable Irrigation
Question 98Single Answer
Which space agency launched the ‘Artemis III’ mission to the Moon in 2025?
A
ESA
B
CNSA
C
ISRO
D
NASA
Question 99Single Answer
Which Indian city hosted the 9th National Summit on Public Healthcare in February 2025?
A
Odisha
B
Maharashtra
C
Telangana
D
Karnataka
Question 100Single Answer
Who was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI in February 2025?
A
Mani Shankar
B
Jitendra Kumar
C
Tuhin Kanta Pandey
D
Balbeer Singh
Electrical
Question 101Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 102Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 103Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 104Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 105Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 106Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 107Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 108Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 109Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 110Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 111Single Answer
Fuses have got advantages of
A
cheapest type of protection
B
inverse time - current characteristic
C
no maintenance
D
current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
E
all of the above
Question 112Single Answer
The power transmitted will be maximum when
A
line reactance is high
B
corona losses are minimum
C
sending end voltage is more
D
receiving end voltage is more
Question 113Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
None of these
Question 114Single Answer
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
A
only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
B
only the core loss is ignored
C
both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
D
only the no - load copper loss is ignored
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
A
Peak voltmeter
B
Series resistance mircro - ammeter
C
Resistance potential divider
D
All of these
Question 116Single Answer
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
A
reduces surge impedance Z0
B
increases phase shift β
C
increase in α
D
all of the above
Question 117Single Answer
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
A
weight of the conductor
B
current through the conductor
C
atmospheric temperature
D
ice deposited on the conductor
Question 118Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
A
critical absolute temperature
B
square of critical absolute temperature
C
square of T0
D
none of these
Question 119Single Answer
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
A
corona
B
switching voltages
C
lightning voltage
D
all of these
Question 120Single Answer
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
A
capacitors
B
inductors
C
resistors
D
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end
Question 121Single Answer
AC network analyser is employed for solving the problems of
A
load flow
B
load flow and stability
C
load flow and short - circuit
D
load flow, stability and short - circuit
Question 122Single Answer
The change in excitation in an alternator connected to an infinite line provides a corresponding change in
A
terminal voltage
B
speed of rotor
C
power generated
D
power factor
Question 123Single Answer
Different types of insulators used for transmission lines are
A
pin type only
B
suspension type only
C
strain type only
D
pin type, suspension type and shackle type
Question 124Single Answer
The conductor connecting consumer's terminals to the distributor is called the
A
feeder
B
distributor
C
service main
D
none of the above
Question 125Single Answer
Which of the following method or techniques can be used for the measurement of high d.c. voltages ?
A
Generating voltmeter
B
Electrostatic voltmeter
C
Peak voltmeter
D
Half effect generators
Question 126Single Answer
The ripple voltage in dc output is small if
A
frequency of supply voltage is small
B
the filtering capacitor is small
C
load current is small
D
none of these
Question 127Single Answer
The voltage measurements using uniform spark gap are
A
affected by dust particles
B
affected by polarity of supply
C
affected by temperature
D
none of these
Question 128Single Answer
Neutral earthing is provided for
A
the safety of personnel from electric shock
B
the safety of equipment and personnel against lightning and voltage surges
C
reducing the voltage stress on lines and equipment with respect to earth under various operating and fault conditions
D
controlling the earth fault currents for protective relaying
E
both (c) and (d)
Question 129Single Answer
The function of Lightning arrester is
A
to limiting the short - circuit fault current
B
to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
C
to reduce arcing
D
none of these
Question 130Single Answer
In which of the following cases are delay fuses used ?
A
For the protection of light circuits
B
For the protection of power out - let circuits
C
For the protection of fluorescent lamps
D
For the protection of motors
Question 131Single Answer
In order to improve the voltage profile of the line, compensation is resorted by providing
A
capacitors at the receiving end
B
reactors at the receiving end
C
resistors at the receiving end
D
none of these
Question 132Single Answer
Skin effect in conductor is proportional to
A
(diameter of conductor) 1/2
B
diameter of conductor
C
(diameter of conductor)2
D
(diameter of conductor)4
Question 133Single Answer
The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
A
compensate for skin effect
B
take care of surges
C
provide additional mechanical strength
D
reduce inductance
Question 134Single Answer
A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if it is a
A
Short length fault
B
Medium length line fault
C
Long length line fault
D
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
Protective resistance to be connected between the sphere gap and the test equipment is required while measuring
A
power frequency and higher frequency a.c. voltage
B
power frequency and impulse voltage
C
all kinds of voltages
D
none of these
Question 136Single Answer
Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to
A
compensate the voltage drop
B
reduce line loss
C
limit short circuit current
D
improve load power factor
Question 137Single Answer
The passive element that is used as interconnecting element for the stable operation of interconnected system is
A
reactor
B
resistor
C
capacitor
D
resistor and capacitor
Question 138Single Answer
Corona loss in a transmission line is dependent on
A
diameter of the conductor
B
material of the conductor
C
height of the conductor
D
none of these
Question 139Single Answer
In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used
A
to act as circuit breaking medium only
B
for circuit breaking and providing insulation
C
for providing insulation only
D
for none of the above purposes
Question 140Single Answer
Skin effect is
A
proportional to frequency
B
proportional to square of frequency
C
inversely proportional to frequency
D
independent of frequency
Question 141Single Answer
Rated making capacity of breaker is equal to
A
X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
B
2.55 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
C
1 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
D
none of these
Question 142Single Answer
The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
A
reduction in transmission losses
B
reduction in time of transmission
C
increase in system reliability
D
none of the above
Question 143Single Answer
Bus - coupler is very essential in
A
single bus - bar arrangement
B
ring bus - bar arrangement
C
double bus, double breaker arrangement
D
main and transfer bus
Question 144Single Answer
With the rise in temperature, the insulation resistivity
A
remains unchanged
B
decreases linearly
C
increases linearly
D
reduces exponentially
Question 145Single Answer
The effect of bonding the cable is
A
to increase the effective resistance and inductance
B
to increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance
C
to reduce the effective resistance and inductance
D
to reduce the effective resistance but increase the inductance
Question 146Single Answer
Increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines causes
A
increase in stress and length
B
decrease in stress and length
C
decrease in stress but increase in length
D
none of the above
Question 147Single Answer
The insulation resistance of the cable decreases with the
A
increase in length of cable
B
decrease in length of cable
C
electric stresses
D
none of these
Question 148Single Answer
Corona has the disadvantage(s) of
A
power loss
B
interference with neighbouring communication circuits
C
introducing the harmonics, predominately third harmonics, into the transmission lines
D
all of the above
Question 149Single Answer
In a load duration curve for an intergrated power system the uppermost crest represents the energy contributed by
A
base power stations
B
major thermal stations
C
peaking hydro or gas turbine stations
D
non - conventional power stations
Question 150Single Answer
At bridge crossing and near the railway track ternary lead cables are used because they