Question for SCL Technical Assistant 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest SCL Technical Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General English, Quantitative Aptitude, General Intelligence & Logical Ability, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, Electronics

Question Bank SCL Technical Assistant (Electronics) Exam - English

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General English

Question 1Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 2Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 3Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 4Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 5Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 6Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 7Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 8Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 9Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 10Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 11Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 12Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 13Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 14Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 15Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 26Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 28Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 29Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 30Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 31Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 32Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 33Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 34Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 35Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 36Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 37Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 38Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 39Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 40Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 41Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 42Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 43Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 44Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 45Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 46Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 47Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 48Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 49Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 50Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

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General Intelligence & Logical Ability

Question 51Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 52Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 53Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 54Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 55Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 56Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 57Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 58Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 59Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 60Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 61Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 62Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 63Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 64Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 65Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 66Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 67Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 68Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 69Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 70Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

Find the missing number in the following series ?

3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?

A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?

A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Question 76Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 77Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 78Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 79Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 80Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 81Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 82Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 83Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 84Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 85Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 86Single Answer

Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan

Question 87Single Answer

Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?

A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL

Question 88Single Answer

In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?

A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990

Question 89Single Answer

What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?

A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara

Question 90Single Answer

What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?

A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam

Question 91Single Answer

Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?

A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons

Question 92Single Answer

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?

A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026

Question 93Single Answer

The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?

A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal

Question 94Single Answer

The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:

A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore

Question 95Single Answer

Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?

A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission

Question 96Single Answer

The Indian Navy plans to induct how many warships in 2026 according to Defence Minister Rajnath Singh?

A
10
B
12
C
18
D
15

Question 97Single Answer

The Central Government banned which highly toxic herbicide citing risks to human and animal life?

A
Glyphosate
B
2,4-D
C
Atrazine
D
Paraquat Dichloride

Question 98Single Answer

US forces completed their withdrawal from Iraq after approximately how many years of presence?

A
10 years
B
20+ years (since 2003)
C
15 years
D
30 years

Question 99Single Answer

Which airline flight experienced a cockpit stabbing incident involving the co-pilot attempting to crash the plane while en route to Israel?

A
Emirates
B
Flydubai
C
Qatar Airways
D
Etihad

Question 100Single Answer

India’s women’s compound archery team won gold at the Asian Games 2026 by defeating which country?

A
South Korea
B
Japan
C
China
D
Chinese Taipei

Electronics

Question 101Single Answer

Which one of the following helps experimental confirmation of the Crystalline state of matter?

A
Shock compression
B
Photo emission
C
Conductivity measurements
D
X-ray diffraction

Question 102Single Answer

The electrical conductivity of pure semiconductor is:

A
Proportional to temperature
B
Increases exponentially with temperature
C
Decreases exponentially with temperature
D
Not altered with temperature

Question 103Single Answer

Consider the following statements pertaining to the resistance of a conductor:
1. Resistance can be simply defined as the ratio of voltage across the conductor to the current through the conductor. This is, in fact, Georg Ohm’s law.
2. Resistance is a function of voltage and current.
3. Resistance is a function of conductor geometry and its conductivity
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 104Single Answer

The ratio of ionic radii of Cations i.e.and that of Anions i.e.for stable and unstable ceramic crystal structure, is:

A
Less than unity
B
Greater than unity
C
Unity
D
Either lesser or greater than unity

Question 105Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A
For insulators the band-gap is narrow as compared to semiconductors
B
For insulators the band-gap is relatively wide whereas for semiconductors it is narrow
C
The band-gap is narrow in width for both the insulators and conductors
D
The band-gap is equally wide for both conductors and semiconductors

Question 106Single Answer

In an extrinsic semiconductor the conductivity significantly depends upon:

A
Majority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping
B
Minority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
C
Majority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
D
Minority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping

Question 107Single Answer

In some substances when an electric field is applied the substance become polarized. The electrons and nucleii assume new geometrical positions and the mechanical dimensions are altered. This phenomenon is called:

A
Electrostriction
B
Hall-Effect
C
Polarization
D
Magnetization

Question 108Single Answer

In ferromagnetic materials, the net magnetic moment created due to magnetization by an applied field as:

A
Normal to the applied field
B
Adds to the applied field
C
In line with magneto motive force
D
Subtracts from the applied field

Question 109Single Answer

At what temperatures domains lose their ferromagnetic properties?

A
Above ferromagnetic Curie temperature
B
Below paramagnetic Curie temperature
C
Above 4
D
At room temperature

Question 110Single Answer

Which of the following materials does not have paramagnetic properties?
1. Rare earth elements (with incomplete shell)
2. Transition elements
3. Magnesium oxide
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 2

Question 111Single Answer

In a superconducting magnet, wires of superconducting material are embedded in the thick copper matrix, because while the material is in the superconducting state:

A
The leakage current passes through copper part.
B
Copper part helps in conducting heat away from the superconductor
C
Copper part helps in overcoming the mechanical stress
D
Copper acts as an insulating cover for superconductor

Question 112Single Answer

The crystal structure of some Ceramic materials may be thought of being composed of electrically charged Cations and Anions, instead of Atoms, and as such:

A
The Cations are negatively charged, because they have given up their valence electrons to Anions which are positively charged.
B
The Cations are positively charged, because they have given up their valence electrons to Anions which are negatively charged.
C
The Cations are positively charged, because they have added one electron to their valence electron borrowing from Anions which are negatively charged.
D
The Cations are negatively charged, as they are non-metallic whereas Anions are positively charged being metallic.

Question 113Single Answer

Manganin alloy used for making resistors for laboratory instruments contains:

A
Copper, Aluminium and Manganese
B
Copper, Nickel and Manganese
C
Aluminium, Nickel and Manganese
D
Chromium, Nickel and manganese

Question 114Single Answer

A rolled-paper capacitor of value 0.02 is to be constructed using two strips of aluminiumof width 6 cm, and wax impregnated paper of thickness 0.06 mm whose relative permittivity is 3. The length of foil strips should be:

A
0.3765 m
B
0.4765 m
C
0.5765 m
D
0.7765 m

Question 115Single Answer

In a semiconductor diode, cut-in voltage is the voltage:

A
up to which the current is zero
B
up to which the current is very small
C
at which the current is 10% of the maximum rated current
D
at which depletion layer is formed

Question 116Single Answer

The transistor is operating in:

A
Saturation
B
Cut-off
C
Normal active
D
Reverse active

Question 117Single Answer

The leakage current in an NPN transistor is due to the flow of:

A
Holes from base to emitter
B
Electrons from collector to base
C
Holes from collector to base
D
Minority carriers from emitter to collector

Question 118Single Answer

In Early effect:

A
Increase in magnitude of collector voltage increase space charge width at the input junction of a BJT
B
Increase in magnitude of Emitter-Base voltage increases space charge width of output junction of a BJT
C
Increase in magnitude of Collector voltage increases space charge width of output junction of a BJT
D
Decrease in magnitude of Emitter-Base voltage increases space charge width of output junction of a BJT

Question 119Single Answer

Maximum energy of electrons liberated photo electrically is:

A
Proportional to light intensity and independent of frequency of the light.
B
Independent of light intensity and varies linearly with frequency of light
C
Proportional to both, light intensity and frequency of the light
D
Independent of light intensity and inversely proportional to frequency of the light

Question 120Single Answer

The response of a Gaussian random process applied to a stable linear system is:
1. A Gaussian random process
2. Not a Gaussian random process
3. Completely specified by its mean and auto covariance functions
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3

Question 121Single Answer

Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the transistor under switching operation?
1. Saturation region
2. Cut-off region
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 122Single Answer

In a sinusoidal oscillator, sustained oscillations will be produced only if the loop gain (at the oscillation frequency) is

A
Less than unity but not zero
B
Zero
C
Unity
D
Greater than unity

Question 123Single Answer

The Class-B push-pull amplifier is an efficient two –transistor circuit, in which the two transistors operate in the following way:

A
Both transistors operate in the active region throughout the negative ac cycle
B
Both transistors operate in the active region for more than half-cycle but less than a whole cycle
C
One transistor conducts during the positive half-cycle and the other during the negative half-cycle
D
Full supply voltage appears across each of the transistors

Question 124Single Answer

PAC stands for______.

A
Permanent angle converter
B
Phase angle converter
C
Phase angle components
D
Phase angle capacitor
E
None of these

Question 125Single Answer

For normal operation of a transistor

A
Forward bias the emitter diode and reverse bias the collector diode
B
Forward bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
C
Reverse bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
D
Reverse bias the emitter diode and forward bias the collector diode

Question 126Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding linear power supply:
1. It requires low frequency transformer.
2. It requires high frequency transformer.
3. The transistor works in active region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 only

Question 127Single Answer

A full wave rectifier connected to the output terminals of the mains transformer produces an RMS voltage of 18 V across the secondary. The no-load voltage across the secondary of the transformer is

A
1.62 V
B
16.2 V
C
61.2 V
D
6.12 V

Question 128Single Answer

MICR stands for______.

A
Magnetic Ink Chart Receipt
B
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
C
Magnetic Ink Chart Recognition
D
Magnetic Ink capacitor Reverse
E
None of these

Question 129Single Answer

In an Op-Amp, if the feedback voltage is reduced by connecting a voltage divider at the output, which of the following will happen?
1. Input impedance increases
2. Output impedance increases
3. Overall gain increases
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 130Single Answer

The transient response rise time (unity gain) of an Op-Amp is 0.05s.The small signal bandwidth is

A
7 kHz
B
20 kHz
C
7 MHz
D
20 MHz

Question 131Single Answer

A negative feedback of

is applied to an amplifier of open-loop gain 1000. What is the change in overall gain of the feedback amplifier, if the gain of the internal amplifier is reduced by 20%?

A
295.7
B
286.7
C
275.7
D
266.7

Question 132Single Answer

If the quality factor of a single-stage single tuned amplifier is doubled, the bandwidth will

A
Remain the same
B
Become half
C
Become double
D
Become four times

Question 133Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to oscillator circuits:
1. The tank circuit of a Hartley oscillator is make up of a tapped capacitor and a common inductor.
2. The tank circuit of a Colpitts oscillator is make up of a tapped capacitor and a common oscillator.
3. The Wien Bridge oscillator is essentially a two-stage amplifier with an RC bridge in the first stage, and, the second stage serving as inverter.
4. Crystal oscillators are fixed frequency oscillators with a high Q-factor.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 3 and 4 only

Question 134Single Answer

The most commonly used transistor configuration for use as a switching devices is

A
Common-base configuration
B
Common-collector configuration
C
Common-emitter shorted configuration
D
Common-emitter configuration

Question 135Single Answer

The simplified form of the Boolean expression AB + A (B + C) + B(B + C) is given by

A
AB + AC
B
B + AC
C
BC + AC
D
AB + C

Question 136Single Answer

What is the maximum frequency for a sine wave output voltage of 10 V peak with an Op-Amp whose slew rate is 1V/ ?

A
15.92 kHz
B
19.73 kHz
C
23.54 kHz
D
27.36 kHz

Question 137Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A
TTL logic cannot be used un digital circuits
B
Digital circuits are linear circuits
C
AND gate is a logic circuit whose output is equal to its highest input.
D
In a four-input AND circuits, all inputs must be high for the output to be high.

Question 138Single Answer

The slew rate is the rate of change of output voltage of an operational amplifier when a particular input is applied. What is that input?

A
Sine wave input
B
Ramp input
C
Pulse input
D
Step input

Question 139Single Answer

Except at high frequencies of switching, nearly all the power dissipated in the switch mode operation of a BJT occurs, when the transistor is in the

A
Active region
B
Blocking state
C
Hard saturation region
D
Soft saturation region

Question 140Single Answer

Consider the following statements with respect to combinational circuit:
1. The output at any time depends only on the present combination of inputs.
2. It does not employ storage elements.
3. It performs an operation that can be specified logically by a set of Boolean functions.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 141Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The output of a linear circuit, driven with a sine wave at a frequency f, is itself a sine wave
1. at the same frequency
2. with chance of changed amplitude
3. with chances of changed amplitude and phase
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1 and 3
D
2 only

Question 142Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The main contribution to photo conduction is by
1. the generation of electron and hole pair by a photon
2. a donor electron jumping into the conduction band because of a photon’s energy
3. a valence electron jumping into an acceptor state because of a photon’s energy Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 143Single Answer

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of the FET increase

A
mobility decreases
B
trans-conductance increases
C
drain current increases
D
trans-conductance decreases

Question 144Single Answer

For the same network, with 6 V DC connected at port A, 1 Ω connected at port B draws 7/3 A. if 8 V DC is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is

A
6 V
B
7 V
C
8 V
D
9 V

Question 145Single Answer

A signal may have frequency components which lie in the range of 0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the following types of couplings should be chosen in a multistage amplifier designed to amplify the signal?

A
Capacitor coupling
B
Direct coupling
C
Transformer coupling
D
Double-tuned transformer coupling

Question 146Single Answer

If an input impedance of op-amp is finite, then which one of the following statements related to virtual ground is correct ?

A
Virtual ground condition may exist.
B
Virtual ground condition cannot exist
C
In case of op-amp, virtual ground condition always exists.
D
Cannot make a valid declaration

Question 147Single Answer

Hysteresis is desirable in a Schmitt-trigger because

A
energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances
B
effects of temperature variations would be compensated
C
devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturating and de-saturation
D
it would prevent noise from causing false triggering

Question 148Single Answer

In a photoconductive cell the resistance, of the semiconductor material varies with intensity of incident light.

A
directly
B
inversely
C
exponentially
D
logarithmically

Question 149Single Answer

In graded index multimode optical fiber the refractive index of the core is

A
uniform across its radial distance except for the cladding
B
maximum at the fiber axis and decreased stepwise towards the cladding
C
maximum at the fiber axis and decreases gradually towards the cladding.
D
maximum at the fiber axis and increases stepwise towards the cladding

Question 150Single Answer

Consider the following factors:
1. Number of turns of the coil
2. Length of the coil
3. Area of cross-section of the coil
4. Permeability of the core
On which of the above factors does inductance, depend?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4
D
2 and 4 only

Question 151Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. Fleming’s rule is used where induced e.m.f. is due to flux cutting.
2. Lenz’s law is used when the induced e.m.f. is due to change in flux linkages.
3. Lenz’s law is direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 152Single Answer

A conductor of length 1 m moves at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 2Wb/m² with a velocity of 50 m/s. What is the value of the induced e.m.f. when the conductor moves at an angle of 30° to the direction of the field ?

A
75 V
B
50 V
C
25 V
D
12.5 V

Question 153Single Answer

The slip of a 400 V, 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz machine running at 1440 r.p.m. is

A
6%
B
5%
C
4%
D
3%

Question 154Single Answer

A 500 HP, 440 V, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 950 r.p.m. when on full load with a synchronous speed of 1000 r.p.m. for this condition, the frequency of the rotor current will be

A
4.0 Hz
B
3.5 Hz
C
2.5 Hz
D
2.0 Hz

Question 155Single Answer

By adding resistance in the rotor circuit of a slip ring induction motor, the starting current

A
as well as torque reduce
B
as well as torque increase
C
reduces but the starting torque increases
D
increase but the starting torque decreases

Question 156Single Answer

Consider the following statements with regards to an induction motor:
1. Maximum torque is independent of rotor resistance.
2. Starting torque is maximum when rotor resistance equals rotor reactance.
3. Torque is very sensitive to any changes in supply voltage.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 157Single Answer

A transformer has 2% resistance and 5% reactance. What is its voltage regulation at full load with 0.8 p.f. lagging?

A
5.3%
B
4.6%
C
0.53%
D
0.43%

Question 158Single Answer

A voltage is generated across a piezoelectric material, 0.5 cm thick, subjected to an impact of 5 N/m². The voltage coefficient of the material is 23 kV-m/N. The magnitude of the voltage generated will be

A
2300 V
B
1650 V
C
1150 V
D
575 V

Question 159Single Answer

The ‘residual resistivity’ of a metal is

A
due to lattice vibrations at high temperature
B
due to photon scattering at high temperature
C
temperature-dependent
D
temperature-independent

Question 160Single Answer

Electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity and magnetic properties of ceramic material are

A
very high all the time
B
very low all the time
C
dependent on the material
D
ascertainable, instance to instance

Question 161Single Answer

At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by

A
Gettering
B
Doping
C
Squeezing
D
Sintering

Question 162Single Answer

By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic

A
1 and 4
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 3

Question 163Single Answer

An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum
Which of the above are correct ?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 164Single Answer

According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is

A
Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B
Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C
Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D
Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature

Question 165Single Answer

Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is

A
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers

Question 166Single Answer

The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 10¹⁰/cm³ and doping concentration of 10¹⁷/cm³, by using mass-action law is

A
6.67 × 10⁶/cc
B
4.44 × 10^-25/cc
C
1.5× 10^-24/cc
D
2.25 × 10³/cc

Question 167Single Answer

A tunnel-diode is best suited for

A
Very low frequencies
B
50 Hz
C
100 Hz
D
Microwave frequencies

Question 168Single Answer

Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for

A
Line-frequency rectification
B
Switching operations
C
High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
D
Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations

Question 169Single Answer

In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the

A
Depletion region becomes smaller
B
Drain current starts decreasing
C
Drain current remains practically constant
D
Drain current increases steeply

Question 170Single Answer

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases

A
The drain current increases
B
The mobility of charge carriers decreases
C
The mobility of charge carriers increases
D
The transconductance increases

Question 171Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1. Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widened
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 172Single Answer

A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier

A
Improves the line power factor
B
Enables inverse operation
C
Is responsible for additional reactive power
D
Is responsible for additional harmonics

Question 173Single Answer

The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for

A
Reducing the cost
B
Biasing the gate circuit
C
Self-protecting the device against transients
D
None of the above

Question 174Single Answer

When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is

A
Sine wave
B
Saw tooth wave
C
Trapezoidal wave
D
Square wave

Question 175Single Answer

Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they

A
Do not require any capacitors or inductors
B
Have enormous impedance transformation capability
C
Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
D
Resemble emitter follower

Question 176Single Answer

In a MOS capacitance fabricate on a P-type semiconductor, strong inversion occurs, when potential is

A
Equal to Fermi level
B
Zero
C
Negative and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude
D
Positive and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude

Question 177Single Answer

A CMOS amplifier when compared to an N channel MOSFET has the advantage of

A
Higher cutoff frequency
B
Higher voltage gain
C
Higher current gain
D
Lower power dissipation

Question 178Single Answer

Consider the following statements regardingoptocouplers:
1. Optocouplers are LEDs driving photodiodes in a single package to provide electrical isolation between input and output
2. Optocouplers is LED driving a phototransistor in a single package that replaces pulse transformers working at input zero crossing
3. Optocouplers are used as temporary non fixed joints between optical fibre terminations
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 179Single Answer

Which of the following does not cause permanent damage to an SCR ?

A
High current
B
High rate of rise of current
C
High temperature rise
D
High rate of rise of voltage

Question 180Single Answer

The basic structure of an avalanche photodiode is

A
p⁺ – i – p – n⁺
B
p⁺ – I – n⁺
C
p⁺ – p^- – n⁺
D
i – p^- – n⁺

Question 181Single Answer

Which device is primarily used to connect multiple networks and route data packets between them?

A
Switch
B
Router
C
Hub
D
Modem

Question 182Single Answer

Which device is used to connect a local area network (LAN) to the internet?

A
Router
B
Switch
C
Modem
D
Bridge

Question 183Single Answer

Which of the following devices is used to forward data packets based on MAC addresses?

A
Router
B
Switch
C
Bridge
D
Hub

Question 184Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT a function of a router?

A
Assign IP addresses to devices
B
Forward data packets based on IP address
C
Forward data packets based on MAC address
D
Connect different networks

Question 185Single Answer

Which device is used to connect two different networks and operates at the data link layer?

A
Switch
B
Router
C
Bridge
D
Hub

Question 186Single Answer

The determinant of an identity matrix of order 3 is:

A
0
B
–1
C
3
D
1

Question 187Single Answer

A square matrix is singular when its determinant is:

A
0
B
–1
C
1
D
Infinite

Question 188Single Answer

The eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are its:

A
Row sums
B
Column sums
C
Diagonal elements
D
Determinants

Question 189Single Answer

If \(A\) is an orthogonal matrix, then:

A
\(A^2=0\)
B
\(A^T A=I\)
C
\(A^T=-A\)
D
det A = 0

Question 190Single Answer

The rank of a zero matrix is:

A
1
B
0
C
Equal to its order
D
Infinite

Question 191Single Answer

A matrix satisfying \(A^T=A\) is called:

A
Skew-symmetric
B
Orthogonal
C
Symmetric
D
Singular

Question 192Single Answer

For a skew-symmetric matrix, every diagonal element is:

A
1
B
–1
C
Zero
D
Infinite

Question 193Single Answer

The trace of a square matrix is the:

A
Sum of diagonal elements
B
Product of diagonal elements
C
Sum of all elements
D
Determinant

Question 194Single Answer

The determinant of the product \(AB\) is:

A
det A + det B
B
det A – det B
C
det A / det B
D
det A × det B

Question 195Single Answer

If two rows of a determinant are identical, its value is:

A
1
B
0
C
2
D
–1

Question 196Single Answer

The derivative of \(\sin x\) is:

A
–sin x
B
–cos x
C
cos x
D
tan x

Question 197Single Answer

The derivative of \(e^x\) is:

A
\(xe^{x-1}\)
B
\(1/e^x\)
C
\(e^x\)
D
\(\ln x\)

Question 198Single Answer

\(\int 1/x\,dx\) is:

A
\(x\)
B
\(1/x^2\)
C
\(\ln|x|+C\)
D
\(e^x\)

Question 199Single Answer

\(\int_0^1 x\,dx\) equals:

A
1
B
1/4
C
2
D
1/2

Question 200Single Answer

The derivative of \(\ln x\) is:

A
\(1/x\)
B
x
C
\(e^x\)
D
\(x^2\)

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