Which Indian cattle breed is known for its high milk yield? (a) Sahiwal (b) Gir (c) Ongole (d) Kankrej
A
Sahiwal
B
Gir
C
Ongole
D
Kankrej
Question 2Single Answer
The Bikaneri breed is primarily reared for:
A
Milk production
B
Meat production
C
Draft work
D
Wool production
Question 3Single Answer
Which Indian sheep breed is known for its fine wool?
A
Malvi
B
Marwari
C
Chokla
D
Merino
Question 4Single Answer
The Black Tangail goat breed is famous for:
A
Long fur
B
High milk yield
C
Black meat
D
Large size
Question 5Single Answer
The Jaffna breed is a:
A
Cattle breed
B
Goat breed
C
Horse breed
D
Poultry breed
Question 6Single Answer
The Aseel is an Indian breed of:
A
Duck
B
Chicken
C
Pigeon
D
Cockfighting fowl
Question 7Single Answer
The Harihara is a breed of:
A
Donkey
B
Buffalo
C
Camel
D
Elephant
Question 8Single Answer
The Murrah buffalo is known for its:
A
Low milk yield
B
Poor temper
C
Low butterfat content
D
High milk yield with good butterfat content
Question 9Single Answer
The Mehsana buffalo is predominantly found in:
A
Madhya Pradesh
B
Gujarat
C
Rajasthan
D
Uttar Pradesh
Question 10Single Answer
The National Bureau of Animal Genetics Resources (NBAGR) is located in:
A
Delhi
B
Karnal
C
Lucknow
D
Bengaluru
Question 11Single Answer
The National Center for Animal Disease Control (NCADC) is located in:
A
Hyderabad
B
Bhopal
C
Chennai
D
Kolkata
Question 12Single Answer
The Livestock Census in India is conducted every:
A
2 years
B
3 years
C
5 years
D
10 years
Question 13Single Answer
Which breed of chicken is known for its black meat?
A
Kadaknath
B
Rhode Island Red
C
White Leghorn
D
Plymouth Rock
Question 14Single Answer
The Osmanabadi duck is known for its:
A
Large size
B
Egg laying capacity
C
Ornamental value
D
Fighting ability
Question 15Single Answer
The Sirohi goat breed is found in the hilly regions of:
A
Rajasthan
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Jammu and Kashmir
Question 16Single Answer
The Bangal goat breed is known for its:
A
Long horns
B
Short ears
C
Long tail
D
Curly horns
Question 17Single Answer
The Malvi horse breed is known for its:
A
Racing ability
B
Draft work
C
Polo playing
D
Endurance
Question 18Single Answer
The preservation of indigenous breeds is important for:
A
Genetic diversity
B
Adaptation to local conditions
C
Cultural heritage
D
All of the above
Question 19Single Answer
What is the native breed of cattle known for its hump and adaptability to hot climates?
A
Jersey
B
Holstein
C
Brahman
D
Angus
Question 20Single Answer
Which indigenous breed of buffalo is known for its high milk production and is commonly found in the Indian subcontinent?
A
Murrah
B
Nili-Ravi
C
Surti
D
Jaffarabadi
Question 21Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary contribution of livestock to the Indian economy ?
A
Export of electronic goods
B
Providing employment opportunities
C
Promotion of tourism
D
Importing agricultural equipment
Question 22Single Answer
What percentage of India's total agricultural output is contributed by the livestock sector ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
25%
D
40%
Question 23Single Answer
Which livestock product contributes the most to the Indian economy ?
A
Wool
B
Meat
C
Milk
D
Leather
Question 24Single Answer
Which state in India is known for having the highest milk production ?
A
Punjab
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Gujarat
D
Rajasthan
Question 25Single Answer
What role does livestock play in the agricultural sector of India ?
A
Soil erosion
B
Pollution control
C
Draught power
D
Industrialization
Question 26Single Answer
The Leghorn breed is associated with which type of livestock ?
A
Cattle
B
Goat
C
Poultry
D
Pig
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following is a key reason for the importance of livestock in rural India ?
A
Source of raw material for industries
B
Major source of foreign exchange
C
Source of livelihood and nutrition
D
Source of water
Question 28Single Answer
Which animal is primarily raised in India for wool production ?
A
Buffalo
B
Cow
C
Goat
D
Sheep
Question 29Single Answer
Which laboratory animal is commonly used in biomedical research due to its short gestation period and genetic similarity to humans ?
A
Guinea pig
B
Mouse
C
Rabbit
D
Hamster
Question 30Single Answer
What percentage of the global buffalo population is found in India ?
A
30%
B
50%
C
70%
D
90%
Question 31Single Answer
What is the primary component of semen ?
A
Hormones
B
Spermatozoa
C
Enzymes
D
Carbohydrates
Question 32Single Answer
Which fluid is responsible for providing nourishment and a medium for sperm movement in semen ?
A
Seminal plasma
B
Cerebrospinal fluid
C
Gastric juice
D
Lymph
Question 33Single Answer
What is the normal pH range of semen in most animals ?
A
3.5 - 4.5
B
4.5 - 5.5
C
6.0 - 7.0
D
7.2 - 8.0
Question 34Single Answer
What is the primary role of fructose in semen ?
A
Hormonal regulation
B
Providing energy to sperm
C
Enhancing immune response
D
Protecting sperm from oxidation
Question 35Single Answer
Which protein found in semen helps in coagulating the semen after ejaculation ?
A
Albumin
B
Prostaglandins
C
Semenogelins
D
Enzymes
Question 36Single Answer
What is the typical concentration range of spermatozoa in normal semen ?
A
10-20 million/ml
B
20-50 million/ml
C
50-100 million/ml
D
100-200 million/ml
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following factors can adversely affect semen quality ?
A
High temperature during storage
B
Proper nutritional balance
C
Good hygiene practices
D
Optimal breeding conditions
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following is a chemical property of semen ?
A
Viscosity
B
Color
C
Volume
D
Temperature
Question 39Single Answer
What is the typical volume range of semen per ejaculate in cattle ?
A
1-2 ml
B
2-5 ml
C
5-10 ml
D
10-15 ml
Question 40Single Answer
Which factor can cause a decrease in sperm motility ?
A
Adequate hydration
B
Excessive heat exposure
C
Proper diet
D
Optimal storage conditions
Question 41Single Answer
Which plant by-product is commonly used in feed formulations for livestock ?
A
Apple peels
B
Wheat bran
C
Orange pulp
D
Pine needles
Question 42Single Answer
How can livestock contribute to weed management in crop fields ?
A
By promoting weed growth
B
By grazing on weeds, reducing their prevalence
C
By spreading weed seeds
D
By providing no help in weed control
Question 43Single Answer
What is the significance of crop residue management in integrated farming systems ?
A
It leads to increased waste disposal issues
B
It provides a valuable source of feed for livestock
C
It has no impact on farm productivity
D
It only benefits crop production
Question 44Single Answer
Which practice enhances the symbiotic relationship between plants and animals in farming systems ?
A
Intensive monocropping
B
Crop rotation and livestock integration
C
Exclusive plant breeding
D
Livestock confinement without plant interaction
Question 45Single Answer
What percentage of India's agricultural GDP is contributed by the livestock sector ?
A
10%
B
20%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 46Single Answer
How does the use of green manure crops benefit both plant and animal husbandry ?
A
By depleting soil nutrients
B
By providing fodder and enhancing soil fertility
C
By reducing crop and livestock yields
D
By increasing the need for synthetic fertilizers
Question 47Single Answer
Which livestock product is a major source of protein for the Indian population ?
A
Wool
B
Leather
C
Milk
D
Feathers
Question 48Single Answer
How does livestock contribute to soil fertility in agriculture ?
A
By consuming pests
B
Through manure production
C
By aerating the soil with their hooves
D
By reducing water usage
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following is a challenge in the integration of plant and animal husbandry ?
A
Enhanced nutrient cycling
B
Increased reliance on chemical inputs
C
Management of manure and crop residues
D
Decreased farm resilience
Question 50Single Answer
Which animal is primarily associated with draught power in Indian agriculture ?
A
Sheep
B
Goats
C
Cattle
D
Pigs
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Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
Question 51Single Answer
What are the two main categories of animal feed ?
A
Roughages and Concentrates
B
Grains and Seeds
C
Legumes and Fruits
D
Vegetables and Dairy
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is classified as a roughage ?
A
Wheat bran
B
Corn silage
C
Soybean meal
D
Fish meal
Question 53Single Answer
What is the primary characteristic of concentrates in animal feed ?
A
High fiber content
B
High energy and protein content
C
Low digestibility
D
Low nutritional value
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following feeds is typically classified as a protein concentrate ?
A
Alfalfa hay
B
Oats
C
Soybean meal
D
Barley
Question 55Single Answer
What type of feed is generally used to provide essential minerals and vitamins to livestock ?
A
Energy feeds
B
Protein feeds
C
Mineral and vitamin supplements
D
Fiber sources
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following is a common example of an energy feed ?
A
Cottonseed meal
B
Beet pulp
C
Corn grain
D
Lucerne hay
Question 57Single Answer
What is the primary role of roughages in animal nutrition ?
A
To provide high energy
B
To supply essential amino acids
C
To provide fiber for proper digestion
D
To increase the protein content in feed
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following is a common type of legume used as feed ?
A
Timothy hay
B
Clover
C
Ryegrass
D
Orchard grass
Question 59Single Answer
What is a characteristic feature of fibrous feeds ?
A
High fat content
B
High carbohydrate content
C
High fiber content
D
Low water content
Question 60Single Answer
Which feed category includes by-products from milling and processing industries ?
A
Energy feeds
B
By-product feeds
C
Protein supplements
D
Roughages
Question 61Single Answer
Which type of feed is often used to improve milk yield and quality in dairy cattle ?
A
Protein concentrates
B
Roughages
C
Energy feeds
D
Mineral supplements
Question 62Single Answer
What is the function of silage in animal feed management ?
A
To provide a high source of vitamins
B
To serve as a long-term preserved feed with high moisture content
C
To increase feed intake during dry periods
D
To replace all other types of feed
Question 63Single Answer
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in animal metabolism ?
A
To provide energy
B
To build muscle tissue
C
To produce hormones
D
To enhance immune function
Question 64Single Answer
Which process describes the breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose ?
A
Glycogenesis
B
Glycolysis
C
Gluconeogenesis
D
Lipogenesis
Question 65Single Answer
What is the primary role of proteins in animal metabolism ?
A
To store energy
B
To build and repair tissues
C
To regulate water balance
D
To enhance flavor
Question 66Single Answer
Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of proteins in the stomach ?
A
Amylase
B
Lipase
C
Pepsin
D
Lactase
Question 67Single Answer
What is the end product of fat metabolism ?
A
Amino acids
B
Fatty acids and glycerol
C
Glucose
D
Ketone bodies
Question 68Single Answer
Which metabolic pathway converts excess glucose into fatty acids for storage ?
A
Glycolysis
B
Gluconeogenesis
C
Lipogenesis
D
Beta-oxidation
Question 69Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of collagen and is commonly known as ascorbic acid ?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B12
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin D
Question 70Single Answer
What is the primary function of vitamin A in animal metabolism ?
A
To support vision and immune function
B
To aid in calcium absorption
C
To regulate blood clotting
D
To enhance protein synthesis
Question 71Single Answer
What is the recommended practice for pre-milking udder preparation ?
A
Washing the udder with clean, warm water and disinfecting it
B
Dry wiping the udder
C
Using only a dry cloth to clean the udder
D
Avoiding udder preparation
Question 72Single Answer
Why is proper storage of milk important in clean milk production ?
A
To enhance flavor
B
To prevent microbial growth and spoilage
C
To reduce packaging costs
D
To improve milk color
Question 73Single Answer
What is a key component of clean milk production related to the milking environment ?
A
Ensuring the milking area is clean and dry
B
Increasing the number of cows in the barn
C
Limiting air circulation in the milking area
D
Using non-disposable materials
Question 74Single Answer
How should milk storage containers be maintained for clean milk production ?
A
They should be cleaned and sanitized regularly
B
They should be left unwashed
C
They should be used only once
D
They should be stored in direct sunlight
Question 75Single Answer
What is the role of personal hygiene in clean milk production ?
A
To ensure milk is aesthetically pleasing
B
To prevent contamination of milk by the milkers
C
To increase milk yield
D
To reduce feed costs
Question 76Single Answer
Which practice helps in minimizing the risk of mastitis in dairy cows ?
A
Regular udder cleaning and proper milking techniques
B
Reducing milking frequency
C
Increasing grain feed
D
Limiting water access
Question 77Single Answer
What should be done immediately if milking equipment becomes contaminated ?
A
Discard the equipment
B
Clean and sanitize the equipment
C
Continue using it
D
Rinse it with water only
Question 78Single Answer
What is the primary focus of nutritional management for pregnant cows ?
A
Increasing fiber content
B
Providing balanced energy and protein
C
Reducing water intake
D
Minimizing feed costs
Question 79Single Answer
How often should pregnant cows be checked for signs of calving ?
A
Daily
B
Weekly
C
Monthly
D
Biannually
Question 80Single Answer
Why is it important to maintain a clean and dry environment for dairy cows ?
A
To prevent diseases and contamination of milk
B
To increase milk yield
C
To reduce feed costs
D
To enhance cow color
Question 81Single Answer
What is a common management practice to prevent metabolic disorders in milking cows ?
A
Reducing feed intake
B
Providing adequate minerals and vitamins
C
Increasing grain consumption
D
Limiting water access
Question 82Single Answer
What is the best practice for cooling milk after milking ?
A
Rapidly cooling milk to 4°C (39°F) or below
B
Allowing milk to cool slowly at room temperature
C
Storing milk in direct sunlight
D
Keeping milk at ambient temperature
Question 83Single Answer
What is the recommended frequency for milking cows in a modern dairy operation ?
A
Once daily
B
Twice daily
C
Three times daily
D
Four times daily
Question 84Single Answer
How often should milking equipment be cleaned and sanitized ?
A
After each milking session
B
Once a week
C
Only when visibly dirty
D
At the end of each day
Question 85Single Answer
What should be the primary consideration when managing young stock ?
A
High fiber intake
B
Adequate protein and energy for growth
C
Reduced water consumption
D
Limited space
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following is crucial for managing the health of pregnant cows ?
A
Regular hoof trimming
B
Routine vaccinations
C
Consistent feeding schedule
D
Minimizing contact with other animals
Question 87Single Answer
What is the purpose of pre-milking udder disinfection ?
A
To improve milk flavor
B
To reduce microbial contamination
C
To increase milk yield
D
To enhance cow comfort
Question 88Single Answer
How can mastitis be prevented in milking cows ?
A
Providing high-fiber diets
B
Regular udder hygiene and proper milking techniques
C
Increasing grain feed
D
Limiting water intake
Question 89Single Answer
What is an important management practice for newborn calves ?
A
Early access to solid feed
B
Immediate colostrum feeding
C
Limiting contact with the dam
D
Reducing housing space
Question 90Single Answer
How should milk be handled to ensure it remains clean and safe ?
A
Using clean and sanitized containers and avoiding direct contact with hands
B
Using any available containers and allowing it to come into contact with hands
C
Storing milk in unclean environments
D
Mixing milk from different cows without sanitation
Question 91Single Answer
What is a critical aspect of maintaining a disease-free zone in animal populations ?
A
Regular health checks and vaccination programs
B
Frequent movement of animals between farms
C
Limited use of preventive measures
D
Reduced monitoring of animal health
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of foot - and-mouth disease in cattle ?
A
Virus
B
Bacteria
C
Parasite
D
Fungus
Question 93Single Answer
What is the primary route of transmission for avian influenza in poultry ?
A
Airborne droplets
B
Direct contact with infected animals
C
Contaminated feed
D
Waterborne transmission
Question 94Single Answer
Which technique is used to visualize internal structures of animals for disease diagnosis ?
A
Ultrasound imaging
B
Physical examination
C
Blood tests
D
Endoscopy
Question 95Single Answer
Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm bovine tuberculosis in cattle ?
A
Tuberculin skin test
B
PCR test
C
Blood smear
D
ELISA test
Question 96Single Answer
What role do Animal Health Centers play in outbreak management ?
A
They provide immediate response and control measures
B
They only focus on breeding animals
C
They mainly handle feed distribution
D
They focus on improving animal performance
Question 97Single Answer
What is a common postmortem lesion seen in pigs infected with porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) ?
A
Interstitial pneumonia
B
Liver necrosis
C
Gastrointestinal ulcers
D
Skin abscesses
Question 98Single Answer
Which laboratory technique helps in identifying specific pathogens in animal samples ?
A
Culture and sensitivity testing
B
Radioimmunoassay
C
Microscopy
D
Thermal imaging
Question 99Single Answer
Which bacterium is responsible for causing anthrax in cattle ?
A
Bacillus anthracis
B
Escherichia coli
C
Streptococcus pyogenes
D
Mycobacterium bovis
Question 100Single Answer
What is the pathogenesis of blue tongue disease in sheep ?
A
Virus infection causing vasculitis and edema
B
Bacterial infection leading to pneumonia
C
Fungal infection causing dermatitis
D
Parasite infestation leading to anemia
Question 101Single Answer
Which symptom is commonly associated with equine influenza in horses ?
A
High fever and dry cough
B
Swollen joints
C
Diarrhea
D
Skin lesions
Question 102Single Answer
What is the recommended control measure for preventing Newcastle disease in poultry ?
A
Vaccination
B
Antibiotic treatment
C
Improved housing ventilation
D
Dietary supplements
Question 103Single Answer
What is a key element in the design of an effective Animal Health Center ?
A
Properly designed facilities for various diagnostic and treatment needs
B
Large-scale animal housing
C
High-capacity feed storage
D
Extensive breeding programs
Question 104Single Answer
What is the purpose of disease-free zones in livestock management ?
A
To prevent the spread of infectious diseases and protect animal health
B
To increase animal production
C
To reduce feed costs
D
To enhance breeding efficiency
Question 105Single Answer
Which sample type is used for diagnosing fungal infections in animals ?
A
Skin scrapings
B
Feces
C
Blood
D
Urine
Question 106Single Answer
How can the effectiveness of an Animal Health Center be evaluated ?
A
By assessing the outcomes of disease management and control efforts
B
By measuring feed efficiency
C
By counting the number of animals housed
D
By evaluating reproductive rates
Question 107Single Answer
Which disease in goats is characterized by the formation of caseous lymphadenitis abscesses ?
A
Caseous lymphadenitis
B
Johne's disease
C
Caprine arthritis encephalitis
D
Ovine progressive pneumonia
Question 108Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a spaying procedure in female animals ?
A
To prevent pregnancy
B
To enhance milk production
C
To increase appetite
D
To improve coat quality
Question 109Single Answer
What is a common postmortem finding in cattle with leptospirosis ?
A
Hemorrhagic nephritis
B
Liver cirrhosis
C
Pulmonary edema
D
Intestinal necrosis
Question 110Single Answer
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the testicles in male animals ?
A
Castration
B
Ovariectomy
C
Ovariohysterectomy
D
Rumenotomy
Question 111Single Answer
Mendel's law of segregation states that:
A
Alleles assort independently
B
Alleles separate during gamete formation
C
Alleles are linked together
D
Alleles show incomplete dominance
Question 112Single Answer
The law of independent assortment applies to:
A
Genes located on the same chromosome
B
Genes located on different chromosomes
C
Genes showing incomplete dominance
D
Genes showing co-dominance
Question 113Single Answer
In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous genotype results in:
A
The dominant phenotype
B
The recessive phenotype
C
An intermediate phenotype
D
Both dominant and recessive phenotypes
Question 114Single Answer
Co-dominance is exemplified by:
A
Pink flowers from red and white parents
B
Roan coat color in cattle
C
Tall plants from tall and dwarf parents
D
White eyes in Drosophila
Question 115Single Answer
Multiple alleles are present in:
A
Diploid organisms
B
Haploid organisms
C
Polyploid organisms
D
A population
Question 116Single Answer
Polygenic inheritance involves:
A
One gene controlling multiple traits
B
Multiple genes controlling one trait
C
Incomplete dominance
D
Co-dominance
Question 117Single Answer
The phenotypic ratio in a typical dihybrid cross (Mendelian) is:
A
3:1
B
1:2:1
C
9:3:3:1
D
1:1:1:1
Question 118Single Answer
The test cross is used to determine:
A
Genotype of an individual
B
Phenotype of an individual
C
Linkage between genes
D
Mutation rate
Question 119Single Answer
Epistasis is a form of gene interaction where:
A
One gene masks the effect of another gene
B
Alleles assort independently
C
Alleles show co-dominance
D
Alleles show incomplete dominance
Question 120Single Answer
Pleiotropy refers to:
A
One gene affecting multiple traits
B
Multiple genes affecting one trait
C
Incomplete dominance
D
Co-dominance
Question 121Single Answer
Chromosomes are made up of:
A
Proteins only
B
DNA only
C
DNA and proteins
D
RNA and proteins
Question 122Single Answer
The centromere is responsible for:
A
DNA replication
B
Protein synthesis
C
Chromosome segregation
D
Gene transcription
Question 123Single Answer
Homologous chromosomes have:
A
Identical genes at identical loci
B
Different genes at identical loci
C
Identical genes at different loci
D
Different genes at different loci
Question 124Single Answer
The chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by:
A
Mendel
B
Darwin
C
Sutton and Boveri
D
Lamarck
Question 125Single Answer
Haploid cells contain:
A
One set of chromosomes
B
Two sets of chromosomes
C
Three sets of chromosomes
D
Multiple sets of chromosomes
Question 126Single Answer
Diploid cells contain:
A
One set of chromosomes
B
Two sets of chromosomes
C
Three sets of chromosomes
D
Multiple sets of chromosomes
Question 127Single Answer
Karyotype refers to:
A
The genotype of an individual
B
The phenotype of an individual
C
The number and appearance of chromosomes
D
The sequence of DNA
Question 128Single Answer
Chromatin is:
A
Condensed chromosomes
B
Decondensed chromosomes
C
RNA molecules
D
Protein molecules
Question 129Single Answer
Telomeres are located at:
A
The centromere
B
The ends of chromosomes
C
The middle of chromosomes
D
The nucleolus
Question 130Single Answer
Sister chromatids are held together by:
A
Telomeres
B
Centromeres
C
Genes
D
Alleles
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is the primary source of energy in an animal's diet?
A
Protein
B
Lipids
C
Carbohydrates
D
Minerals
Question 132Single Answer
What is the most abundant carbohydrate in plant cell walls?
A
Starch
B
Cellulose
C
Glycogen
D
Pectin
Question 133Single Answer
Among the following, which is a structural carbohydrate in plants?
A
Hemicellulose
B
Glycogen
C
Maltose
D
Fructose
Question 134Single Answer
Which fraction of the plant cell wall is completely indigestible?
A
Cellulose
B
Lignin
C
Hemicellulose
D
Pectin
Question 135Single Answer
What is the primary function of dietary lipids in animal nutrition?
A
Structural support
B
Energy storage
C
Enzyme activation
D
Protein synthesis
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is the most energy-dense nutrient?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Lipids
D
Vitamins
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following proteins is classified as a globular protein?
A
Collagen
B
Elastin
C
Albumin
D
Keratin
Question 138Single Answer
The main function of proteins in animal nutrition is
A
Energy storage
B
Muscle development and repair
C
Insulation
D
Hormone secretion
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is a non-protein nitrogenous compound used in ruminant nutrition?
A
Casein
B
Urea
C
Hemoglobin
D
Myosin
Question 140Single Answer
In animal nutrition, which amino acid is most limiting in maize-based diets?
A
Lysine
B
Methionine
C
Tryptophan
D
Arginine
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary source of ATP in animals?
A
Glucose
B
Fatty acids
C
Amino acids
D
All of the above
Question 142Single Answer
The energy used for basal metabolic rate (BMR) primarily supports
A
Voluntary activities
B
Growth and reproduction
C
Maintenance of vital body functions
D
Heat production
Question 143Single Answer
What is the term for energy remaining after fecal and urinary energy losses?
A
Net energy
B
Digestible energy
C
Metabolizable energy
D
Heat increment
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following factors affects energy retention in animals?
A
Age
B
Temperature
C
Diet composition
D
All of the above
Question 145Single Answer
The partitioning of dietary energy into maintenance, growth, and production is based on
A
Gross energy
B
Net energy system
C
Digestible energy
D
Heat increment
Question 146Single Answer
Heat increment of feeding refers to
A
The heat released during metabolism of nutrients
B
The heat produced by muscular activity
C
The energy lost through urine
D
The energy used for physical activity
Question 147Single Answer
Which energy system is most useful in formulating diets for lactating dairy cows?
A
Gross energy
B
Digestible energy
C
Net energy
D
Metabolizable energy
Question 148Single Answer
The basal metabolic rate (BMR) of an animal is primarily influenced by
