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Question for Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 75 · Questions: 90 · Max Marks: 90

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Latest Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Knowledge of Banking & Co-operation, Knowledge of Computer and Information & Technology, Knowledge of Agriculture Based, Rural Eco System, Knowledge about Marathi Language, General Knowledge & Awareness of Current Affairs, Mental & Logical ability, IQ Test

Question Bank Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk Exam - English

Knowledge of Banking & Co-operation

Q 1 :
Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the term "banking" primarily refers to accepting deposits from the public for lending or investment, where such deposits are what?
  1. A.Repayable only after five years
  2. B.Invested only in government securities
  3. C.Accepted only from business firms
  4. D.Repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawable by specified methods
Q 2 :
Which of the following best distinguishes a demand deposit from a time deposit?
  1. A.Demand deposits are repayable on demand
  2. B.Demand deposits cannot earn interest
  3. C.Time deposits can always be withdrawn without conditions
  4. D.Demand deposits are available only to companies
Q 3 :
Which institution primarily supervises State Co-operative Banks and District Central Co-operative Banks in relation to their banking operations along with the applicable regulatory framework?
  1. A.SEBI
  2. B.PFRDA
  3. C.IRDAI
  4. D.RBI
Q 4 :
In the short-term rural co-operative credit structure, which institution generally operates at the district level?
  1. A.District Central Co-operative Bank
  2. B.Primary Agricultural Credit Society
  3. C.State Co-operative Agriculture and Rural Development Bank
  4. D.Regional Rural Bank
Q 5 :
Which is the correct hierarchical order of the short-term co-operative credit structure from grassroots to state level?
  1. A.DCCB → PACS → StCB
  2. B.PACS → DCCB → StCB
  3. C.StCB → PACS → DCCB
  4. D.PACS → StCB → DCCB
Q 6 :
A Primary Agricultural Credit Society normally operates mainly at which level?
  1. A.National level
  2. B.Village or local level
  3. C.District level
  4. D.State level
Q 7 :
Which institution generally acts as an apex institution in the short-term co-operative credit structure of a state?
  1. A.PACS
  2. B.State Co-operative Bank
  3. C.DCCB
  4. D.Regional Rural Bank
Q 8 :
NABARD was established on the recommendations associated particularly with which committee?
  1. A.Narasimham Committee
  2. B.Kelkar Committee
  3. C.CRAFICARD
  4. D.Tarapore Committee
Q 9 :
CRAFICARD was primarily concerned with reviewing arrangements for what?
  1. A.Agricultural and rural development institutional credit
  2. B.Industrial finance
  3. C.Foreign exchange management
  4. D.Stock market regulation
Q 10 :
NABARD began functioning in which year?
  1. A.1975
  2. B.1980
  3. C.1982
  4. D.1991
Q 11 :
Which of the following is an important refinancing institution for agriculture and rural development?
  1. A.SEBI
  2. B.EXIM Bank only
  3. C.NABARD
  4. D.IRDAI
Q 12 :
Which feature most clearly differentiates a co-operative bank from a conventional commercial bank?
  1. A.Co-operative banks cannot accept deposits
  2. B.Co-operative banks cannot lend money
  3. C.Co-operative banks are based significantly on co-operative ownership and democratic principles
  4. D.Co-operative banks cannot provide digital services
Q 13 :
The co-operative principle of democratic member control is commonly expressed through which idea?
  1. A.One share, ten votes
  2. B.Voting according to deposit amount
  3. C.One member, one vote
  4. D.Voting according to loan size
Q 14 :
Which principle requires co-operatives to provide education and training to their members, elected representatives and employees?
  1. A.Education, training and information
  2. B.Democratic member control
  3. C.Concern for community
  4. D.Voluntary membership
Q 15 :
The principle "co-operation among co-operatives" mainly encourages what?
  1. A.Competition between co-operative societies
  2. B.Merger of all banks with RBI
  3. C.Collaboration between co-operatives at different levels
  4. D.Elimination of local co-operatives
Q 16 :
Which statement regarding CRR is correct?
  1. A.CRR is maintained with SEBI
  2. B.CRR is maintained only in gold
  3. C.CRR applies only to insurance companies
  4. D.Banks maintain CRR in the form of cash balance with RBI
Q 17 :
If RBI increases CRR while other factors remain unchanged, what is the most immediate likely effect on banks?
  1. A.Their capital increases immediately
  2. B.Their lendable resources automatically double
  3. C.Their lendable resources may decrease
  4. D.Their NPAs automatically disappear
Q 18 :
A reduction in the policy repo rate, other things remaining equal, is generally intended to make liquidity obtained from RBI what?
  1. A.More expensive
  2. B.Taxable at a higher rate
  3. C.Completely unavailable
  4. D.Less expensive
Q 19 :
Which of the following is regarded as a quantitative instrument of monetary policy?
  1. A.Direct persuasion
  2. B.Moral suasion
  3. C.CRR
  4. D.Public communication only
Q 20 :
Which of the following can be considered a qualitative or selective credit-control measure?
  1. A.Margin requirements
  2. B.Open Market Operations
  3. C.CRR
  4. D.Currency issuance
Q 21 :
What is the principal purpose of KYC requirements in banking?
  1. A.Increasing interest rates
  2. B.Guaranteeing profits to depositors
  3. C.Identifying customers and helping prevent misuse of banking channels
  4. D.Eliminating all banking risks
Q 22 :
Which term refers to the process of disguising proceeds generated from illegal activities so that they appear legitimate?
  1. A.Credit appraisal
  2. B.Money laundering
  3. C.Securitisation
  4. D.Factoring
Q 23 :
In banking, AML stands for what?
  1. A.Anti-Money Laundering
  2. B.Asset Management Limit
  3. C.Automated Money Lending
  4. D.Annual Monetary Liability
Q 24 :
Which organisation is India's Financial Intelligence Unit?
  1. A.DICGC
  2. B.FIU-IND
  3. C.NPCI
  4. D.SIDBI
Q 25 :
Which situation is most likely to generate a Suspicious Transaction Report?
  1. A.Transactions inconsistent with a customer's known profile and lacking apparent legitimate purpose
  2. B.A normal recurring salary credit
  3. C.Routine payment of an electricity bill
  4. D.Regular interest credit in a savings account
Q 26 :
A loan account generally becomes a Non-Performing Asset when interest or instalment of principal remains overdue beyond the prescribed regulatory period, commonly associated with how many days for a term loan?
  1. A.30 days
  2. B.60 days
  3. C.90 days
  4. D.180 days
Q 27 :
Which asset classification normally follows a standard asset after it becomes an NPA for the initial specified period?
  1. A.Doubtful asset
  2. B.Fixed asset
  3. C.Loss asset
  4. D.Substandard asset
Q 28 :
A "loss asset" broadly refers to an asset where what has happened?
  1. A.Repayment is guaranteed by RBI
  2. B.Interest has been paid in advance
  3. C.Loss has been identified and the asset is considered largely uncollectible
  4. D.Security value has increased substantially
Q 29 :
The main purpose of provisioning against NPAs is to do what?
  1. A.Increase branch numbers
  2. B.Increase customer deposits
  3. C.Create a financial cushion against expected loan losses
  4. D.Eliminate the requirement for capital
Q 30 :
What does CASA represent in banking?
  1. A.Current Account and Savings Account
  2. B.Cash Account and Secured Asset
  3. C.Credit Account and Savings Advance
  4. D.Current Asset and Secured Advance

Knowledge of Computer and Information & Technology

Q 31 :
Which number system uses base 2?
  1. A.Decimal
  2. B.Hexadecimal
  3. C.Octal
  4. D.Binary
Q 32 :
What is the binary equivalent of decimal 13?
  1. A.1011
  2. B.1110
  3. C.1101
  4. D.1001
Q 33 :
What is the decimal value of binary 10110?
  1. A.22
  2. B.21
  3. C.20
  4. D.24
Q 34 :
Which hexadecimal digit represents decimal 15?
  1. A.F
  2. B.E
  3. C.A
  4. D.D
Q 35 :
What is the octal equivalent of binary 111001?
  1. A.61
  2. B.71
  3. C.72
  4. D.73
Q 36 :
Which gate produces output 1 only when all inputs are 1?
  1. A.OR
  2. B.AND
  3. C.XOR
  4. D.NAND
Q 37 :
Which gate produces output 0 only when all inputs are 0?
  1. A.XOR
  2. B.AND
  3. C.NOR
  4. D.OR
Q 38 :
Which gate is called an inverter?
  1. A.NOT
  2. B.OR
  3. C.AND
  4. D.XOR
Q 39 :
Which gate gives output 1 when the inputs are different?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.XOR
  3. C.XNOR
  4. D.NOR
Q 40 :
Which gate gives output 1 when the inputs are equal?
  1. A.XNOR
  2. B.NAND
  3. C.XOR
  4. D.OR
Q 41 :
Which of the following is a universal gate?
  1. A.XOR
  2. B.NAND
  3. C.XNOR
  4. D.Buffer
Q 42 :
Which is another universal gate?
  1. A.XOR
  2. B.NOR
  3. C.AND
  4. D.NOT
Q 43 :
According to De Morgan's theorem, complement of A+B is what?
  1. A.A'B'
  2. B.A' + B'
  3. C.AB
  4. D.AB'
Q 44 :
According to De Morgan's theorem, complement of AB is what?
  1. A.A'B'
  2. B.A+B
  3. C.A'+B'
  4. D.AB'
Q 45 :
A half adder adds how many single-bit inputs?
  1. A.1
  2. B.3
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
Q 46 :
A full adder has how many input bits?
  1. A.2
  2. B.3
  3. C.4
  4. D.5
Q 47 :
A full adder produces which outputs?
  1. A.Product and carry
  2. B.Sum and carry
  3. C.Quotient and remainder
  4. D.Difference and borrow only
Q 48 :
Which circuit selects one input from many inputs?
  1. A.Decoder
  2. B.Encoder
  3. C.Counter
  4. D.Multiplexer
Q 49 :
A demultiplexer performs which function?
  1. A.Many inputs to one output
  2. B.One input to many outputs
  3. C.Binary addition
  4. D.Data storage
Q 50 :
A decoder converts n input lines into up to how many output lines?
  1. A.n
  2. B.2ⁿ
  3. C.n²
  4. D.n/2

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