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Latest Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Knowledge of Banking & Co-operation, Knowledge of Computer and Information & Technology, Knowledge of Agriculture Based, Rural Eco System, Knowledge about Marathi Language, General Knowledge & Awareness of Current Affairs, Mental & Logical ability, IQ Test
Question Bank Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk Exam - English
Knowledge of Banking & Co-operation
Q 1 :
Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the term "banking" primarily refers to accepting deposits from the public for lending or investment, where such deposits are what?
A.Repayable only after five years
B.Invested only in government securities
C.Accepted only from business firms
D.Repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawable by specified methods
Q 2 :
Which of the following best distinguishes a demand deposit from a time deposit?
A.Demand deposits are repayable on demand
B.Demand deposits cannot earn interest
C.Time deposits can always be withdrawn without conditions
D.Demand deposits are available only to companies
Q 3 :
Which institution primarily supervises State Co-operative Banks and District Central Co-operative Banks in relation to their banking operations along with the applicable regulatory framework?
A.SEBI
B.PFRDA
C.IRDAI
D.RBI
Q 4 :
In the short-term rural co-operative credit structure, which institution generally operates at the district level?
A.District Central Co-operative Bank
B.Primary Agricultural Credit Society
C.State Co-operative Agriculture and Rural Development Bank
D.Regional Rural Bank
Q 5 :
Which is the correct hierarchical order of the short-term co-operative credit structure from grassroots to state level?
A.DCCB → PACS → StCB
B.PACS → DCCB → StCB
C.StCB → PACS → DCCB
D.PACS → StCB → DCCB
Q 6 :
A Primary Agricultural Credit Society normally operates mainly at which level?
A.National level
B.Village or local level
C.District level
D.State level
Q 7 :
Which institution generally acts as an apex institution in the short-term co-operative credit structure of a state?
A.PACS
B.State Co-operative Bank
C.DCCB
D.Regional Rural Bank
Q 8 :
NABARD was established on the recommendations associated particularly with which committee?
A.Narasimham Committee
B.Kelkar Committee
C.CRAFICARD
D.Tarapore Committee
Q 9 :
CRAFICARD was primarily concerned with reviewing arrangements for what?
A.Agricultural and rural development institutional credit
B.Industrial finance
C.Foreign exchange management
D.Stock market regulation
Q 10 :
NABARD began functioning in which year?
A.1975
B.1980
C.1982
D.1991
Q 11 :
Which of the following is an important refinancing institution for agriculture and rural development?
A.SEBI
B.EXIM Bank only
C.NABARD
D.IRDAI
Q 12 :
Which feature most clearly differentiates a co-operative bank from a conventional commercial bank?
A.Co-operative banks cannot accept deposits
B.Co-operative banks cannot lend money
C.Co-operative banks are based significantly on co-operative ownership and democratic principles
D.Co-operative banks cannot provide digital services
Q 13 :
The co-operative principle of democratic member control is commonly expressed through which idea?
A.One share, ten votes
B.Voting according to deposit amount
C.One member, one vote
D.Voting according to loan size
Q 14 :
Which principle requires co-operatives to provide education and training to their members, elected representatives and employees?
A.Education, training and information
B.Democratic member control
C.Concern for community
D.Voluntary membership
Q 15 :
The principle "co-operation among co-operatives" mainly encourages what?
A.Competition between co-operative societies
B.Merger of all banks with RBI
C.Collaboration between co-operatives at different levels
D.Elimination of local co-operatives
Q 16 :
Which statement regarding CRR is correct?
A.CRR is maintained with SEBI
B.CRR is maintained only in gold
C.CRR applies only to insurance companies
D.Banks maintain CRR in the form of cash balance with RBI
Q 17 :
If RBI increases CRR while other factors remain unchanged, what is the most immediate likely effect on banks?
A.Their capital increases immediately
B.Their lendable resources automatically double
C.Their lendable resources may decrease
D.Their NPAs automatically disappear
Q 18 :
A reduction in the policy repo rate, other things remaining equal, is generally intended to make liquidity obtained from RBI what?
A.More expensive
B.Taxable at a higher rate
C.Completely unavailable
D.Less expensive
Q 19 :
Which of the following is regarded as a quantitative instrument of monetary policy?
A.Direct persuasion
B.Moral suasion
C.CRR
D.Public communication only
Q 20 :
Which of the following can be considered a qualitative or selective credit-control measure?
A.Margin requirements
B.Open Market Operations
C.CRR
D.Currency issuance
Q 21 :
What is the principal purpose of KYC requirements in banking?
A.Increasing interest rates
B.Guaranteeing profits to depositors
C.Identifying customers and helping prevent misuse of banking channels
D.Eliminating all banking risks
Q 22 :
Which term refers to the process of disguising proceeds generated from illegal activities so that they appear legitimate?
A.Credit appraisal
B.Money laundering
C.Securitisation
D.Factoring
Q 23 :
In banking, AML stands for what?
A.Anti-Money Laundering
B.Asset Management Limit
C.Automated Money Lending
D.Annual Monetary Liability
Q 24 :
Which organisation is India's Financial Intelligence Unit?
A.DICGC
B.FIU-IND
C.NPCI
D.SIDBI
Q 25 :
Which situation is most likely to generate a Suspicious Transaction Report?
A.Transactions inconsistent with a customer's known profile and lacking apparent legitimate purpose
B.A normal recurring salary credit
C.Routine payment of an electricity bill
D.Regular interest credit in a savings account
Q 26 :
A loan account generally becomes a Non-Performing Asset when interest or instalment of principal remains overdue beyond the prescribed regulatory period, commonly associated with how many days for a term loan?
A.30 days
B.60 days
C.90 days
D.180 days
Q 27 :
Which asset classification normally follows a standard asset after it becomes an NPA for the initial specified period?
A.Doubtful asset
B.Fixed asset
C.Loss asset
D.Substandard asset
Q 28 :
A "loss asset" broadly refers to an asset where what has happened?
A.Repayment is guaranteed by RBI
B.Interest has been paid in advance
C.Loss has been identified and the asset is considered largely uncollectible
D.Security value has increased substantially
Q 29 :
The main purpose of provisioning against NPAs is to do what?
A.Increase branch numbers
B.Increase customer deposits
C.Create a financial cushion against expected loan losses
D.Eliminate the requirement for capital
Q 30 :
What does CASA represent in banking?
A.Current Account and Savings Account
B.Cash Account and Secured Asset
C.Credit Account and Savings Advance
D.Current Asset and Secured Advance
Knowledge of Computer and Information & Technology
Q 31 :
Which number system uses base 2?
A.Decimal
B.Hexadecimal
C.Octal
D.Binary
Q 32 :
What is the binary equivalent of decimal 13?
A.1011
B.1110
C.1101
D.1001
Q 33 :
What is the decimal value of binary 10110?
A.22
B.21
C.20
D.24
Q 34 :
Which hexadecimal digit represents decimal 15?
A.F
B.E
C.A
D.D
Q 35 :
What is the octal equivalent of binary 111001?
A.61
B.71
C.72
D.73
Q 36 :
Which gate produces output 1 only when all inputs are 1?
A.OR
B.AND
C.XOR
D.NAND
Q 37 :
Which gate produces output 0 only when all inputs are 0?
A.XOR
B.AND
C.NOR
D.OR
Q 38 :
Which gate is called an inverter?
A.NOT
B.OR
C.AND
D.XOR
Q 39 :
Which gate gives output 1 when the inputs are different?
A.AND
B.XOR
C.XNOR
D.NOR
Q 40 :
Which gate gives output 1 when the inputs are equal?
A.XNOR
B.NAND
C.XOR
D.OR
Q 41 :
Which of the following is a universal gate?
A.XOR
B.NAND
C.XNOR
D.Buffer
Q 42 :
Which is another universal gate?
A.XOR
B.NOR
C.AND
D.NOT
Q 43 :
According to De Morgan's theorem, complement of A+B is what?
A.A'B'
B.A' + B'
C.AB
D.AB'
Q 44 :
According to De Morgan's theorem, complement of AB is what?
A.A'B'
B.A+B
C.A'+B'
D.AB'
Q 45 :
A half adder adds how many single-bit inputs?
A.1
B.3
C.2
D.4
Q 46 :
A full adder has how many input bits?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Q 47 :
A full adder produces which outputs?
A.Product and carry
B.Sum and carry
C.Quotient and remainder
D.Difference and borrow only
Q 48 :
Which circuit selects one input from many inputs?
A.Decoder
B.Encoder
C.Counter
D.Multiplexer
Q 49 :
A demultiplexer performs which function?
A.Many inputs to one output
B.One input to many outputs
C.Binary addition
D.Data storage
Q 50 :
A decoder converts n input lines into up to how many output lines?
A.n
B.2ⁿ
C.n²
D.n/2
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Sindhudurg DCCB Clerk Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which characteristic most accurately describes Indian agriculture?
A.Considerable dependence on climatic and monsoon conditions
B.Complete absence of monsoon dependence
C.Dominance exclusively by plantation farming
D.Absence of small farmers
Q 52 :
Agriculture contributes to the rural economy mainly through which combination?
A.Currency printing and monetary policy
B.Employment, food production and raw materials
C.Securities regulation and insurance
D.Foreign diplomacy and defence
Q 53 :
Crops sown mainly with the onset of the southwest monsoon are called what?
A.Rabi crops
B.Plantation crops
C.Zaid crops
D.Kharif crops
Q 54 :
Which crop is typically classified as a Kharif crop?
A.Wheat
B.Paddy
C.Gram
D.Mustard
Q 55 :
Which of the following is primarily a Rabi crop?
A.Rice
B.Cotton
C.Wheat
D.Jowar grown in Kharif season
Q 56 :
Rabi crops are generally sown during which period?
A.Winter season
B.Beginning of southwest monsoon
C.Peak summer only
D.Entirely during monsoon
Q 57 :
Zaid crops are generally grown during which period?
A.Once in five years
B.Only during winter
C.Only during peak monsoon
D.Between Rabi and Kharif seasons
Q 58 :
Which crop is commonly associated with the Zaid season?
A.Gram
B.Wheat
C.Mustard
D.Watermelon
Q 59 :
Which pair consists mainly of Rabi crops?
A.Jute and rice
B.Rice and cotton
C.Wheat and gram
D.Maize and cotton only
Q 60 :
Which pair consists mainly of Kharif crops?
A.Rice and cotton
B.Wheat and mustard
C.Gram and barley
D.Peas and wheat
Knowledge about Marathi Language
Q 61 :
'अच्छा' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. खराब
B. सुंदर
C. प्रेम
D. धन्यवाद
Q 62 :
'सुन्दर' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. बुद्धिमता
B. खराब
C. प्रसन्न
D. भयानक
Q 63 :
'स्नेह' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. द्वेष
B. आक्रोश
C. असहमत
D. समझौता
Q 64 :
'उदास' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. आनंदी
B. निराश
C. प्रसन्न
D. उत्साही
Q 65 :
पुढील शब्दाच्या कोणत्या भागाने "नामपद" शब्द सांगा?
A. प्रयोगपद
B. सर्वनाम
C. क्रियापद
D. विशेषण
Q 66 :
"आपल्या शिक्षकाने आमच्या विद्यालयातील पुस्तकांना सुंदर नाम" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "नाम" असा अर्थ आहे?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 67 :
"रामला आपलं पुस्तकाचं अंगूठ नकलायला आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "पुस्तकाचं" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 68 :
"तुम्ही आपल्या मित्राला काय प्रेम करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "मित्राला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 69 :
"सर्व विद्यार्थ्यांना आवश्यक गोड अभ्यास करावा" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "विद्यार्थ्यांना" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 70 :
"उपास्य देवतांच्या पूजेसाठी फूल घालता येतात" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "उपास्य" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
General Knowledge & Awareness of Current Affairs
Q 71 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 72 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 73 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 74 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 75 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 76 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 77 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 78 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 79 :
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 80 :
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A.Kazakhstan
B.Kyrgyzstan
C.Uzbekistan
D.Tajikistan
Mental & Logical ability, IQ Test
Q 81 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 82 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 83 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 84 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 85 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 86 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 87 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 88 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 89 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 90 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient