Why is the Earth described as a ‘Geoid’? Choose the correct answer from the following.
A
Two-thirds of Earth’s surface are covered with water
B
Favourable conditions are available on Earth to support life.
C
Earth is slightly flattened at the poles
D
Earth is neither too hot nor too cold
Question 1002Single Answer
Which one of the following groups of planets has rings around it?
A
Saturn, Neptune, Mars
B
Saturn, Venus, Neptune
C
Saturn, Venus, Mars
D
Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus
Question 1003Single Answer
Which one of the following defines ‘Earth day’?
A
The distances between the longitudes
B
The period of one rotation ot the Earth around its axis
C
The days on which the days and nights are equal all over the Earth
D
The motion of the Earth around the Sun in its orbit
Question 1004Single Answer
India’s research stations names ‘Maitri’ and ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ are located in which one of the following continents?
A
Africa
B
Antarctica
C
Europe
D
Australia
Question 1005Single Answer
In which of the following landforms are mushroom rocks found?
A
Delta
B
Desert
C
Glacial Moraine
D
Sea cave
Question 1006Single Answer
Which of the following is the greatest imaginary line on the Earth?
A
Tropic of Cancer
B
Tropic of Capricorn
C
Equator
D
Arctic circle
Question 1007Single Answer
Which is incorrect about globe?
A
It is a true model of the Earth
B
A fixed needle through a globe in a titled manner is its axis
C
On real Earth there is no such fixed line
D
There are several fixed lines on the Earth
Question 1008Single Answer
Match the following
List-I List-II
(A) 180° longitude (i) Antarctic circle
(B) 0° longitude (ii) Prime meridian
(C) 23°N latitude (iii) International
data line
(D) 66°S latitude (iv) Tropic of Cancer
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
D
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Question 1009Single Answer
The Torrid or Tropical zone includes all areas located between
A
30° N and 30° S latitude
B
15° N and 15° S latitude
C
prime meridian and international data line
D
and S latitude
Question 1010Single Answer
The city of St. Louis in 90° to the West of London. So, sunrise at London will be
A
6 hours later than St. Louis
B
6 hours earlier than St. Louis
C
3 hours later than St. Louis
D
3 hours earlier than St. Louis
Question 1011Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Frigid zones exist only in Northern hemisphere.
(B) Temperate zones experience hot and humid climate throughout the year.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1012Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B about longitudes and choose the correct answer.
(A) Lines of longitude are fixed lines extending from pole to equator
(B) The distance between them increases steadily polewards.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1013Single Answer
In temperate zone of the Earth
A
temperature remains high throughout the year
B
temperature remains moderate throughout the year
C
heavy rainfall is received throughout the year
D
All of the above
Question 1014Single Answer
Which of the following shows the general structure of continents or countries?
A
Topographic maps
B
Thematic maps
C
Wall maps and Atlas maps
D
Both topographic maps and thematic maps
Question 1015Single Answer
What features would be identified on a topographical map?
A
Towns and cities
B
Railway stations
C
Rivers and mountains
D
Airports
Question 1016Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a part of thematic map?
A
Weather map
B
Vegetation map
C
Population map
D
Details of streets
Question 1017Single Answer
When it is 10:00 am in London in June, the Indian standard time will be
A
3:00 pm
B
3:30 pm
C
2:00 pm
D
2:30 pm
Question 1018Single Answer
A universal language of the map can be understood by way of
A
alphabets
B
thematic maps
C
conventional symbols
D
sketch
Question 1019Single Answer
The Standard Meridian of India is
A
82° E longitude
B
83° 30' E longitude
C
82° 30' E longitude
D
83° 50’E longitude
Question 1020Single Answer
If Ahmedabad is situated on 72° 30' E longitude, what would be the local time of Ahmedabad if it is 8:00 am on Indian standard time?
A
7:20 am
B
7:00 am
C
8:40 am
D
8:00 am
Question 1021Single Answer
A map uses a scale in which 1 cm on the map covers 20 m on the ground. If two places are 5 cm apart on the map, the actual distance between them is
A
150 m
B
200 m
C
100 m
D
20 m
Question 1022Single Answer
In the following diagram, which arrow shows the South-East direction?
A
B
B
F
C
H
D
D
Question 1023Single Answer
Which one of the following is the most suitable teaching aid to show proportionate size and shape of continents?
A
Physical map of the world
B
Poster of the Earth
C
Globe
D
Political map of the world
Question 1024Single Answer
The movement of the Earth around the Sun is known as
A
Rotation
B
Revolution
C
Orbital plane
D
Circle of Illumination
Question 1025Single Answer
The Earth moves on its axis
A
from West to East
B
from North to South
C
from East to West
D
from South to North
Question 1026Single Answer
As we move from Eastern hemisphere to Western hemisphere the size of longitudes
A
increases
B
decreases
C
remains same
D
first increases then decreases
Question 1027Single Answer
Locating a place on the map is associated with
A
knowledge
B
comprehension
C
application
D
skill
Question 1028Single Answer
Two cities N and M are located at 15º E and 15º W of Greenwich, respectively. What will be the difference in time between these two Cities?
A
1 hour 30 min
B
2 hour
C
30 min
D
1 hour
Question 1029Single Answer
The main latitude that passes almost halfway through India is
A
the Tropic of Capricorn
B
the Tropic of Cancer
C
the Arctic circle
D
the Equator
Question 1030Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a component of maps?
A
Size
B
Direction
C
Symbols
D
Distance
Question 1031Single Answer
The circle of illumination is the
A
circle that divides the globe into two parts
B
circle that divides the day from night on the globe
C
position of the Earth on equinox when day and night are equal
D
position of the Sun on a particular meridian at 12:00 o’clock in noon
Question 1032Single Answer
Conventionally direction marked ‘A’ represents
A
North
B
South
C
East
D
West
Question 1033Single Answer
Which of the following human activities impact environment?
A
Agriculture
B
Manufacturing industry
C
Hunting of animals
D
All of the above
Question 1034Single Answer
Abiotic environment will not include
A
plants
B
soil
C
air
D
water
Question 1035Single Answer
The group of organisms which convert light to food are called
A
heterotrophs
B
omnivores
C
autotrophs
D
decomposers
Question 1036Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Weathering is the wearing away of the landscape.
(B) Erosion is the breaking up of the rocks.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1037Single Answer
When a river forms a large bend by twisting and turning its path, it is termed as
A
waterfall
B
flood plains
C
meanders
D
delta
Question 1038Single Answer
Ox-bow lake is associated with
A
water landscape
B
wind landscape
C
ice landscape
D
None of the above
Question 1039Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Environment in its totality is a basic life support system. (B) Social, economic and political aspect of man-nature relation is termed as cultural environment.
A
A is true, Bis false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1040Single Answer
Why do we find mushroom rocks in deserts?
A
Winds erode the rocks from all sides
B
There is no water in the desert to prevent rock erosion
C
Winds erode the upper portion of the rock more than the lower portion
D
Winds erode the lower portion of the rock more than the upper portion
Question 1041Single Answer
Which one of the following is incorrect about tropical evergreen forests?
A
They lies between 15°N and 15°S in both the hemispheres
B
It experiences hot and humid climate throughout the year
C
Trees do not shed their leaves in this region
D
All of the above
Question 1042Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Biosphere is the zone of contact between land, air and water where all forms of life exists.
(B) Similar sphere exists with planet Mars.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1043Single Answer
Vultures in the Indian sub-continents started dying of kidney failure shortly after scavenging livestock treated with
A
ibuprofen
B
aldrin
C
dictofenac
D
aspirin
Question 1044Single Answer
The place, people, things and nature that surround any living organisms are called
A
environment
B
biotic resources
C
lithosphere
D
surrounding
Question 1045Single Answer
Most suitable statement about biosphere is
A
land, water, air, plants and animals
B
various domains of environment
C
man’s immediate surroundings
D
plant and animal kingdom
Question 1046Single Answer
Which one of the following grasslands is the homeland of Native Americans?
A
Steppe
B
Praines
C
Pampas
D
Velds
Question 1047Single Answer
Which one of the following features is a result of depositional work of a river?
A
Meanders
B
Flood plain
C
Ox-bow lake
D
Waterfall
Question 1048Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of tropical grasslands?
A
Savanna
B
Pampas
C
Steppe
D
Down
Question 1049Single Answer
Which of the following is called ‘lungs’ of the Earth?
A
Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil
B
Tropical deciduous forest of Central America
C
Temperate evergreen forest of China
D
Temperate deciduous forest of Chile
Question 1050Single Answer
In India, tropical rain forests are found in
A
Madhya Pradesh
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D
Rajasthan
Important Questions Package
UP Jr High school Pradhanaadhyapak and Sahayak Adhyapak (Samajik Addhyan) Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy UP Jr High school Pradhanaadhyapak and Sahayak Adhyapak (Samajik Addhyan) Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in UP Jr High school Pradhanaadhyapak and Sahayak Adhyapak (Samajik Addhyan) question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
UP Jr. High School Pradhanaadhyapak & Sahayak Adhyapak (Samajik Addhyan) Exam - English
Description : 1400 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
2.
UP Jr. High School Pradhanaadhyapak & Sahayak Adhyapak (Samajik Addhyan) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
Social Studies
Question 1051Single Answer
The balance of environment gets disturbed, if
A
indiscriminate killing of wildlife is banned
B
deforestation and soil erosion continue
C
the relative number of species is not disturbed
D
human activities continue to preserve natural habitats
Question 1052Single Answer
Which one of the following statements about the Amazon Basin is correct?
A
The Amazon river forms Delta covered with Mangrove forests
B
The Amazon river basin drains portions from Brazil, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina
C
The Amazon basin falls in the equatorial region
D
The Amazon river flows through the equatorial region in the western direction
Question 1053Single Answer
Campos’found in Brazil is a
A
tribe
B
tropical grasslands
C
traditional dance
D
tropical animal
Question 1054Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of desert?
A
Ladakh
B
Sundarban
C
Konkan
D
Western Ghats
Question 1055Single Answer
Match the following.
Types of Species of
Vegetation Plants
(A) Tropical rain forest (i) Sundari
(B) Tropical deciduous forest (ii) Babool
(C) Thomy bushes (iii) Mahogany
(D) Mangrove forest (iv) Sal
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 1056Single Answer
Which one of the following gases is most abundant in atmosphere?
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Nitrogen
C
Oxygen
D
Argon
Question 1057Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) The air we breathe exists in stratosphere.
(B) Troposphere is most suitable for weather phenomena.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1058Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B about stratosphere and choose the correct answer.
(A) This extends from 10 km to 40 km.
(B) In this, layer of ozone is found.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1059Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B about structure of atmosphere and choose the correct answer.
(A) Troposphere is the lowest layer of atmosphere.
(B) Structure of atmosphere is divided into different layers according to its composition and distribution of elements.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1060Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) The most suitable layer of atmosphere for flying jet planes is stratosphere.
(B) Meteorites burn up in thermosphere.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1061Single Answer
Consider the following diagram and identify A, B, C and D by following appropriate option
A: Carbon dioxide (0.03V) B AI others (0.04%) C: Oxygen (21%’; D. (Argon (0.93%) E: Nitrogen (78%)
D
None of the above
Question 1062Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Cumulonimbus clouds produce tornadoes.
(B) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1063Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Easterlies are seasonal winds.
(B) Seasonal winds blow throughout the year in a particular direction.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1064Single Answer
Match the following
List-I List-II
(Local Winds) (Area/Placc)
(A) Sirocco (i) Switzerland
(B) Fohn (ii) Canada
(C) Chinook (iii) North America
(D) Black Roller (iv) Sahara Descrv
A
A B C D
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
D
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Question 1065Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Monsoon is seasonal reversal of wind.
(B) Tropic of Cancer influences mechanism of monsoon.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1066Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Greenhouse effect keeps the Earth’s atmosphere warm.
(B) Argon is a greenhouse gas.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1067Single Answer
Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is most ideal for flying aeroplaners?
A
Mesosphere
B
Thermosphere
C
Troposphere
D
Stratosphere
Question 1068Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Tropical cyclones originate on oceans only.
(B) Temperate cyclones originate on land and sea alike.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1069Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) In Summer low pressure is created over Central Asia.
(B) In Summer air flow from land to sea in India sub-continent.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1070Single Answer
The radio waves transmitted from the Earth are reflected back to the Earth by
A
stratosphere
B
thermosphere
C
exosphere
D
mesosphere
Question 1071Single Answer
During the retreating monsoon period, the moisture laden winds blow from
A
valley to plains
B
land to sea
C
sea to land
D
plateau to plains
Question 1072Single Answer
Which type of rainfall is represented in the diagram given below?
A
Convectional rainfall
B
Frontal rainfall
C
Cyclonic rainfall
D
Orographic rainfall
Question 1073Single Answer
Barometer is used to
A
measure
B
measure temperature
C
measure atmosphere pressure
D
measure sea level
Question 1074Single Answer
Which one of the following projects on ‘global warming' is based on secondary sources?
A
A graphical representation of unanalysed weather data collected from meteorological office
B
A discussion based on the weather changes mentioned in a book
C
A collage of pictures on global warming
D
Interviews with elders living in an area on changes in weather
Question 1075Single Answer
On which of the following choices is the data best represented by a bar diagram?
A
Rainfall
B
Humidity
C
Air pressure
D
Temperature
Question 1076Single Answer
The diagram represents
A
orographic rainfall
B
convectional rainfall
C
cyclonic rainfall
D
pre-monsoon rainfall
Question 1077Single Answer
Which one of the following is the most important factor that influences the distribution of temperature on the Earth?
A
Terrestrial radiation
B
Distance from sea
C
Insolation
D
Solar radiation
Question 1078Single Answer
Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is most ideal for flying aeroplanes?
A
Mesosphere
B
Thermosphere
C
Troposphere
D
Stratosphere
Question 1079Single Answer
Match the following
Layers of the
Atmosphere Features
(A) Troposphere (i) Ionosphere is part of this layer.
(B) Stratosphere (ii) Meteorites burn up in this layer on entering from the space.
(C) Mesosphere (iii) It contains a layer of ozone gas.
(D) Thermosphere (iv) Almost all the weather phenomena occur in this layer.
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
D
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Question 1080Single Answer
Chinook’, a local wind, blows in which of the following regions?
A
The Prairies
B
The Savannas
C
The Pampas
D
The Velds
Question 1081Single Answer
Which of the most vital renewable natural resource?
A
Tree
B
Water
C
Cloud
D
Tide
Question 1082Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Water covers about 79% of Earth’s surface.
(B) Water is a non-renewable resource.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1083Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about water cycle?
A
The quantity of water varies time to time
B
Water cycle is a continuous movement of water from one form to another
C
Subsurface flow of water does not participate in water cycle
D
All of the above
Question 1084Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Coriolis force does not influence ocean currents.
(B) Cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to lower latitudes.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1085Single Answer
Neap tides are formed when
A
sea water is at its greatest
B
sea water is at its lowest
C
effects of waxing and waning Moon are detracted
D
Moon, Sun and Earth are aligned
Question 1086Single Answer
How much percentage of fresh water is available on Earth?
A
3%
B
37%
C
3.7%
D
2.7%
Question 1087Single Answer
Which one of the following is a warm current?
A
Humbolt current
B
Canaries current
C
North Atlantic drift
D
West Wind drift
Question 1088Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Pacific ocean is the deepest ocean.
(B) In area, Atlantic ocean is the largest ocean.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1089Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Areas of confluence of cold and warm ocean currents are most suitable for navigation.
(B) Areas of confluence of cold and warm ocean currents are most suitable for fishing.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1090Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) Tide is horizontal movement water on sea surface.
(B) When sea water reaches its greatest, it is spring tide.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1091Single Answer
Which one of the following statements about water conservation is incorrect?
A
Underground water level could be improved with forest or vegetation covers
B
Controlling surface runoff is one ol the ways to conserve water
C
Sprinklers effectively control evaporation
D
Water is a non-renewable resource
Question 1092Single Answer
Which of the following is not an example of high tides?
A
Electricity could be generated from them
B
They help the coerl economy by drawing tourists
C
Navigation is easy
D
They help in fishing
Question 1093Single Answer
A narrow strip of land, which connects two land masses is known as
A
island
B
strait
C
isthmus
D
gulf
Question 1094Single Answer
Which one of the following helps the ships to navigate?
A
Area where the warm ocean currents and cold currants meet
B
Area of ocean currents
C
Area of high tides
D
Area of low tides
Question 1095Single Answer
Lakshadweep islands are located in the
A
Indian Ocean
B
Arabian Sea
C
Bay of Bengal
D
South China Sea
Question 1096Single Answer
Read some points about the Atlantic ocean.
(A) It is ‘S’ shaped.
(B) Its coastline is smooth and straight.
(C) It is the busiest ocean from commercial viewpoint.
A
A and C
B
A and B
C
B and C
D
A, B and C
Question 1097Single Answer
The Kolkata port is situated on/in the
A
Ganga Sagar
B
Bay of Bengal
C
River Hooghly
D
River Bhagirathi
Question 1098Single Answer
Bering strait is a narrow stretch of shallow water that connects
A
Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
B
Atlantic Ocean and Indian Ocean
C
Arctic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
D
Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean
Question 1099Single Answer
East coast of North America and the sea around Japan have rich fishing grounds because
A
a warm current along the coast
B
meeting of warm and cold currents
C
a cold current flowing along the coast
D
indented coastal area
Question 1100Single Answer
Which is the largest river basin in the world?
A
Ganga river basin
B
Nile river basin
C
Mississippi river basin
D
Amazon river basin
Question 1101Single Answer
Consider the following two statements A and B about currents and choose the correct answer.
(A) The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles.
(B) The cold ocean currents carry water from lower latitudes to higher latitudes.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
Both A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 1102Single Answer
On which one of the following rivers is Krishna Raja Sagar Dam constructed?
A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Cauvery
D
Mahanadi
Question 1103Single Answer
There are many harbours and ports in Atlantic Ocean because
A
there is large volume of sea trade between the USA and Europe
B
fishery industy is flourishing in the Atlantic Ocean
C
the coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is highly indented
D
the coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is very
Question 1104Single Answer
Which of the following contents could be best depicted in a pie diagram?
A
Distribution of water bodies
B
Distribution of air pressure
C
Distribution of ocean currents
D
Distribution of temperature
Question 1105Single Answer
Which one of the following about National Highway is incorrect?
A
National Highways connect major ports of India
B
National Highways connect state capital in India
C
National Highways connect all Central Universities in India
D
National Highway is maintained by National Highway authority of India
Question 1106Single Answer
In which of the following oceans is Manna Kea (Hawaii), an undersea mountain higher than Mount Everest found?
A
The Atlantic Ocean
B
The Indian Ocean
C
The Pacific Ocean
D
The Arctic Ocean
Question 1107Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) Railway is the cheapest mode of transport.
(B) Railway route between Moscow and Vladivostok is the longest rail route in the world.
A
A true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1108Single Answer
The main occupation of people in a settlement is agriculture. Which type of settlement is this?
A
Urban settlement
B
Nucleated settlement
C
Rural settlement
D
Clustered settlement
Question 1109Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option
(A) National Highways are directly managed by Ministry of Road and Transport.
(B) India has third largest network in the world.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1110Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) NH-47A from Vembnad lake to Wellinton island is shortest National Highway in India.
(B) NH-7 from Varanasi to Kanyakumari is longest National Highway in India.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1111Single Answer
Match the following.
List-I List-II
(Airport) (Location)
(A) Indira Gandhi (i) Mumbai
International Airport
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose (ii) Hyderabad
International Airport
(C) Rajiv Gandhi (iii) Kolkata
International Airport
(D) Chhatrapati Shivaji (iv) New Delhi International Airport
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
C
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Question 1112Single Answer
Media is no longer considered independent because of its close links with
A
NGOs
B
civil society
C
government agencies
D
business houses
Question 1113Single Answer
In a democracy, the media plays a veiy important role in
A
providing news and discussing events taking place in the country and the world
B
advertising goods so that people can buy goods of their choice
C
telecasting cricket events so that people can watch sitting at home
D
providing many types of entertainment materials
Question 1114Single Answer
Which one of the following statements about media is incorrect?
A
An important function of mass is to communicate information to the people
B
There is regular interference on the part of the government in the functioning of media
C
Money is earned through advertisements
D
The technology that mass media uses keeps on changing
Question 1115Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) River is a biotic resource.
(B) Mushroom is an abiotic resource.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1116Single Answer
Which one of the following is a biotic resource?
A
Petroleum
B
Natural gas
C
Cow
D
Coal
Question 1117Single Answer
The cost to advertise on a news channel depends on
A
the big business houses
B
the corporate sector
C
the popularity of the channel
D
the demand of the viewers
Question 1118Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Soil is made up of inorganic matter.
(B) Topography does not play any role in soil formation.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1119Single Answer
Which one of the following is the highest roadways of India in the world?
A
Shillong- Silcher
B
Udhampur-Srinagar
C
Itanagar-Parighat
D
Manali-Leh
Question 1120Single Answer
Which one of the following techniques is not a mitigation mechanism of lead-slides?
A
Decreasing vegitation cover to access landslides
B
Ensuring surface drainage control works to restrict the movement of landslides
C
Hazard mapping to identify areas prove to land slides
D
Construction of retention walls to stop land slippage
Question 1121Single Answer
Which one of the following is incorrect about natural vegetation?
A
Natural vegetation is termed as flora
B
Savanna grassland is an example of natural vegetation
C
A paddy field is a natural vegetation
D
Mangrove in West Bengal are natural vegetation
Question 1122Single Answer
Which of the following is not a mineral?
A
Salt used for cooking
B
Gold and silver in jewellery
C
Mica used for insulation
D
Graphite in pencil
Question 1123Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Trees have large leaves in evergreen forest.
(B) In deciduous forests, dark ground is noticeable throughout the year.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1124Single Answer
In nuclear power plants, electricity is generated through the process of
A
nuclear collision
B
atomic vibrations
C
nuclear fusion
D
nuclear fission
Question 1125Single Answer
When rock fragments get compressed and hardened to form layers of rock they are known as
A
sedimentary rocks
B
primary rocks
C
igneous rocks
D
metamorphic rocks
Question 1126Single Answer
Which of the following is a conventional source of energy?
A
Solar energy
B
Tidal energy
C
Fossil fuel
D
Wind
Question 1127Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) National parks have been established for public amusement.
(B) There are total 103 National parks in India.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1128Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) The number of birth per 1000 people is termed as birth rate.
(B) Birth rate does not influence population of an area.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1129Single Answer
More than 80% of population of the world live in
A
North America and Asia
B
Asia and Europe
C
Asia and Africa
D
Asia and South America
Question 1130Single Answer
Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called
A
resource conservation
B
sustainable development
C
resource management
D
development management
Question 1131Single Answer
Shelter belt is a method of
A
water conservation
B
soil formation
C
plantation
D
soil conservation
Question 1132Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a nuclear power station of India?
A
Narora
B
Pokhran
C
Kalpakkam
D
Tarapur
Question 1133Single Answer
Products of which one of the following are known as ‘Black Gold’?
A
Petroleum
B
Copper
C
Coal
D
Gold
Question 1134Single Answer
Which property of soil is determined by the parent rock?
A
Accumulation of soil
B
Chemical properties, permeability and texture
C
Rate of weathering and humus
D
Thickness of soil
Question 1135Single Answer
Which one of the following methods is used to take out mineral lying near the surface of the Earth?
A
Quarrying
B
Drilling
C
Shaft mining
D
Open-cast mining
Question 1136Single Answer
Minerals that lie near the Earth’s surface are simply dug out by the process known as
A
open-case mining
B
sintering
C
quarrying
D
calcination
Question 1137Single Answer
Which continent is least populated in the world?
A
Europe
B
Australia
C
South America
D
Africa
Question 1138Single Answer
Which of the following is a popular eco-friendly automobile fuel?
A
CNG
B
PNG
C
IPG
D
KG-6
Question 1139Single Answer
Match the following.
List-I List-II
(Types of Rocks) (Examples)
(A) Intrusive igneous rocks (i) Limestone
(B) Extrusive igneous rocks (ii) Sandstone
(C) Sedimentary rocks (iii) Basalt
(D) Metamorphic rocks (iv) Granit
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
D
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Question 1140Single Answer
Which one of the following is not considered as a fossil fuel?
A
Petroleum
B
Coal
C
Natural gas
D
Firewood
Question 1141Single Answer
Population density refers to
A
the number of people living in a particular area
B
the number of people living during a specific time
C
the way in which people are spread across the Earth’s surface
D
the number of people living in a unit area of the Earth’s surface
Question 1142Single Answer
Deep bores are made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This kind of mining is known as
A
open-cast mining
B
quarrying
C
shaft mining
D
drilling
Question 1143Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Subsistence farming is a process of farming which involves family members.
(B) Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1144Single Answer
Uranium found in Ladakh is an example of
A
actual resources
B
deposit resources
C
potential resources
D
stock resources
Question 1145Single Answer
Hot springs are formed as a result of heat energy obtained from
A
solar energy
B
geothermal energy
C
tidal energy
D
wind energy
Question 1146Single Answer
Which of the following is/are inputs of agriculture?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Seeds
(C) Water
A
(1) Only A
B
Only B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 1147Single Answer
Match the following.
List-I List-II
(Local Name of Farming) (Area)
(A) Milpa (i) Malaysia
(B) Roca (ii) India
(C) Ladang (iii) Mexico
(D) Jhumming (iv) Brazil
A
A B C D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 1148Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Poultry products are not an agricultural output.
(B) Weeding is the process to grow desired crops, generally cropped in the gap of two plants.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1149Single Answer
Which of the following regions of India has three cropping seasons for rice?
A
Krishna-Godavari delta
B
Brahmaputra valley
C
Coastal Kerals
D
Littoral Tamil Nadu
Question 1150Single Answer
Match the columns below and select the correct alternative accordingly.
List-I List-II
(A) Detrosit (i) Cigar making
(B) Kimberly (ii) Silk production
(C) Havana (iii) Automobile
manufacturing
(D) Mysore (iv) Diamond mining
A
A B C D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Question 1151Single Answer
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Pisciculture is associated with rearing of silk worm.
(B) Viticulture is the cultivation of grapes and grape wines.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are true
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1152Single Answer
Which one of the following groups of crops is grown in India during the Rabi season?
A
Wheat, barley and gram
B
Rice, maize and wheat
C
Barley, maize and rice
D
Millets, gram and rice
Question 1153Single Answer
Out of the following Indian states, which is the largest producer of sugarcane?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Gujarat
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Punjab
Question 1154Single Answer
Which one of these can be considered the characteristic of ‘shifting cultivation’?
A
Single cropping
B
Use of excess fertilizer
C
Rotation of crops
D
Rotation of fields
Question 1155Single Answer
A type of fanning in which higher doses of modern inputs are used to obtain higher productivity is known as
A
shifting agriculture
B
subsistence farming
C
commercial farming
D
extensive agriculture
Question 1156Single Answer
When a number of industries locate close to each other and share the benefits of their closeness, it is referred to as
A
market economy
B
assembly line production
C
industrial system
D
industrial region
Question 1157Single Answer
A teacher wants to give a case study to students of class VII. Which of the following topic would be most appropriate?
A
Earthquake
B
Major crops of India
C
Minerals found in India
D
Structure of the Earth
Question 1158Single Answer
Match the following and pick the correct option
List-I List-II
(A) Agriculture (i) Cultivation of grapes
(B) Horticulture (ii) Growing crops and
farming
(C) Pisciculture (iii) Growing flowers,
fruits and vegetables
(D) Viticulture (iv) Breeding
A
A B C D
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
C
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Question 1159Single Answer
Which one of the following is known as ‘World’s Fruit Garden’?
A
Mediterranean region
B
Queensland in Australia
C
Orange region of South Africa
D
Kashmir valley of India
Question 1160Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of Sunrise Industry?
A
Paper industry
B
Jute industry
C
IT industry
D
Cooking oil industry
Question 1161Single Answer
In organic farming
A
chemical fertilizers used to increase yield
B
genetic modification is done to increase yield
C
natural manures and pesticides are used
D
only production of cotton has been allowed in India
Question 1162Single Answer
Plantations, a type of commerical farming require a large amount of
A
land and capital
B
only capital
C
land and labour
D
labour and capital.
Question 1163Single Answer
From among the following, select the correct feature of plantation farming practised in the world.
A
This cultivation is practised in the interior of the semi-arid lands of the mid-atitudes
B
In this type of farming, farmers work with the help of their family members for an intensive use of land
C
There is low yield per acre
D
This is a commercial type of farming practised on large estates
Question 1164Single Answer
Which industry is often called backbone of modern industries?
A
Petroleum
B
Energy
C
Transport
D
Steel
Question 1165Single Answer
Consider the following two statements A and B about food security and choose the correct answer.
(A) The ultimate aim of agriculture development is to increase food security.
(B) Food security refers to the existence of availabihty of food to all people in the time of natural calamities, when there occurs a shortage of food.
A
Both A and B are true
B
A is false and B is true
C
Both A and B are false
D
A is true and Bis false
Question 1166Single Answer
Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as
A
pisciculture
B
viticulture
C
horticulture
D
sericulture
Question 1167Single Answer
Shifting agriculture is known as Milpa in
A
Mexico
B
Brazil
C
India
D
Malaysia
Question 1168Single Answer
‘Basket weaving’ is an example of which one of the following types of industries?
A
Small scale
B
Joint sector
C
Large scale
D
Cooperating sector
Question 1169Single Answer
Which one of the following is a variety of ‘gold wrought’?
A
Cotton
B
Nylon
C
Jute
D
Silk
Question 1170Single Answer
When any people describe people in their neighbourhood with their skin colour, form of hair then which diversity is he talking about?
A
Religious diversity
B
Caste diversity
C
Linguistic diversity
D
Racial diversity
Question 1171Single Answer
To pre-conceived any unfavourable judgement towards the people or person on the basis of gender, belief and ethnicity. Which type of discrimination is he making?
A
Stereotype
B
Mistreatment
C
Prejudice
D
Individualism
Question 1172Single Answer
We are travelling in which Indian state when we see lots of spices like pepper, cardamoms are available on hills?
A
Jammu and Kashmir
B
Ladakh
C
Kerala
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 1173Single Answer
Watching her granddaughter arguing with her father for going on a school trip, the grandmother says, “why can’t you be obedient like a good girl? Who will marry you if you behave like a boy?” This statement reflects which of the following?
A
Gender stereotypes about attributes of girls and boys
B
Gender constancy
C
Improper gender identification of the girl
D
Difficulties faced by families in child-rearing
Question 1174Single Answer
A teacher can address diversity in her classroom by
(A) accepting and valuing differences.
(B) using socio-cultural background of children as a resource.
(C) accommodating different learning styles.
(D) giving standard instruction and setting uniform benchmark for performance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A
A, B and D
B
A, B and C
C
B, C and D
D
All of these
Question 1175Single Answer
Which one of the following was not one of the achievement of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar?
A
He was the father of the Indian Constitution
B
He managed to send his son to Britain to study engineering
C
He was the ftrst person from his caste who completed his college education and went to Enoland to become a lawyer
D
He led many efforts of dalits to gain entry into temples
Question 1176Single Answer
You observe that students exhibits prejudices in a social science class. What would be your most appropriate response?
A
Ignore these comments
B
Organise a discussion on dimensions of social reality
C
Reprimand students
D
Bring the chapter to a close
Question 1177Single Answer
A song on the Jallianwala Bagh incident in 1919 was composed by IPTA (Indian People’s Theatre Association), which of the following lines from that song reflects India’s essential unity?
A
Having fallen to bullets, we slept in Jallianwala Bagh
B
The blood of Hindus and Muslims flows together today
C
Do light a lamp on this lonely grave
D
The hunter has torn away every single flower
Question 1178Single Answer
Anti discrimination can be defined as
A
treating all people fairly and equally regardless of their circumstances and situation
B
making judgement about a person based on their race, religion and gender
C
treating all people from one culture the same to ensure equality at work place
D
the use of person’s cultural background, religion, gender or sexually to determine what job they are suitable for
Question 1179Single Answer
What is a resource?
A
Extracts from nature
B
Man-made products
C
Extracts from environment—technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable
D
Any thing from which a product can be manufactured
Question 1180Single Answer
Institutional discrimination is reflected in which of the following examples ?
A
A restaurant owner who refuses to serve dalits
B
A legal code with holding suffrage (right to vote) from certain ethnic group
C
The treatment of Japanese Canadians at the time of World War II
D
Both (2) and (3)
Question 1181Single Answer
Which of the following are the correct differences between Kerala and Ladakh, due to which their people lead totally different lives?
A
Location, culture and climate
B
Geography, culture and location
C
Geography, location and climate
D
None of the above
Question 1182Single Answer
While discussing gender roles in the classroom, you would assert that
A
boys need to attend school as they are the future earning members of the family
B
gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully
C
household work should not be seen as productive
D
there are different professions for men and women
Question 1183Single Answer
Consider the following statement(s)
(A) Caste rule were set which did not allow the so-called ‘untouchable’.
(B) A common stereotype about Muslim is that they are not interested in educating girls. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Both A and B
D
Neither A nor B
Question 1184Single Answer
Showcasing adivasis as wearing colourful costumes, headgear and dancing often result in
A
attracting attention of the world to the plight of poor adivasis
B
discriminating against such groups
C
promoting adivasi culture
D
demonstrating the diversity of Indian culture
Question 1185Single Answer
When one particular image is fixed with an individual or group it was known as
A
mistreated
B
statue
C
discriminated
D
stereotype
Question 1186Single Answer
Which of the following complements diversity?
A
Visiting native village
B
Travelling in a train
C
Speaking in own mother tongue
D
Celebrating own festivals
Question 1187Single Answer
Which of the following shows gender stereotyping?
A
Girls are more talented than boys
B
Girls can do only household works
C
Girls can do all types of works which a boy can do
D
Girls should get equal opportunity as boys
Question 1188Single Answer
Dropout rates of Dalit and Adivasi girl are highest because
A
of non-availability of all girls schools
B
benefit of their education will be available to their in-law’s family
C
their parent do not value their education
D
of poverty and social discrimination
Question 1189Single Answer
What is the key reason of inequality in India?
A
Caste
B
Sex
C
Poverty
D
Religion
Question 1190Single Answer
Who among the following national leaders coined the phrase ‘Unity in diversity’ to describe the Indian as Nation-state?
A
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 1191Single Answer
In the rural India, the form of government which plans the construction of different public utility is
A
Local level government
B
Political parties
C
National level government
D
Custom department
Question 1192Single Answer
Which of the following is a decision belonging to the ‘Local’ level of government?
A
Introduction of a new express train between two state capitals
B
Construction of a water tank in the harijan basti of a town
C
Adding two lanes to the state highway between two cities in the state
D
Setting up more IIT’s in the states which do not have one
Question 1193Single Answer
Which body involved in making and enforcing policies?
A
Government
B
Executive
C
Judiciary
D
Reserve Bank of India
Question 1194Single Answer
Which one of the following is a part of government?
A
Bureaucrats
B
Legislators
C
Arbitrators in tribunals
D
All of the above
Question 1195Single Answer
Any issue related to the diplomacy or foreign relation is the responsibility of
A
State Government
B
National government
C
Local government
D
None of the above
Question 1196Single Answer
Rule by a religious section can be called as
A
theocracy
B
totalitarianism
C
plutocracy
D
autocracy
Question 1197Single Answer
Rule by a small group of people or by a dominant class or clique is called
A
democracy
B
dictatorship
C
oligarchy
D
monarchy
Question 1198Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) India a poor example of a representative democracy.
(B) Voting is one of the mechanisms guiding a democracy.
(C) People’s representatives in India are chosen through nominations j to the legislature. Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
A
A and C
B
B and C
C
A and C
D
All of these
Question 1199Single Answer
The type of government which has a king, but who is limited in law by a formal Constitution, is called
A
Authoritarian government
B
Constitutional monarchy
C
Absolute monarchy
D
Anarchy
Question 1200Single Answer
Which of the following early civilisation had a democratic government?
A
Egypt
B
Mesopotamia
C
Greek
D
China
Question 1201Single Answer
A type of system of government where people of that country elects its representative to rule on behalf of them are
A
democracy
B
monarchy
C
oligarchy
D
aristocracy
Question 1202Single Answer
Which of the following is not a function of government?
A
Manage foreign relations
B
Regulate and protect the sustainable use of natural resources
C
Regulate banking practices
D
Settle the property dispute between a man and his relatives
Question 1203Single Answer
What is the meaning of ‘transparency’ in a democracy?
A
Which can be seen through
B
Not opaque
C
Openness, communication and accountability
D
Clearly visible
Question 1204Single Answer
What are the three levels of government arranged in order to from the highest to the lowest?
A
Local, State, National
B
Federal, State, Area
C
National, State, Local
D
Central, Province, Local
Question 1205Single Answer
Which of the following will not be considered as ‘people’s participation in government’?
A
Signature campaign
B
Editorial in a newspaper
C
Cookery recipe in a women’s magazine
D
Participation in voting in assembly elections.
Question 1206Single Answer
Which of the following is/are a merit of democracy?
A
It ensures freedom of speech
B
It ensures freedom of assembly and action
C
It is an effective method to educate people about political, economic and social matters
D
All of the above
Question 1207Single Answer
Which of the three wings of government need to have a balance of power?
A
Officers, Judges and MLA’s
B
Management, Politicians and Lawyers
C
Legislators, Ministers and Corporators
D
Judiciary, Executive and Legislative
Question 1208Single Answer
The Indian state has
A
Presidental form of government
B
Democratic form of government
C
Communist form of government
D
Capitalist form of government
Question 1209Single Answer
Which Constitutional Amendment was passed from the Parliament of India to provide Panchayati Raj system a Constitution status?
A
71st Amendment, 1992
B
72nd Amendment, 1992
C
73rd Amendment, 1992
D
74th Amendment, 1992
Question 1210Single Answer
The first state of India which implemented the Panchayati Raj system in October 1959 was
A
Rajasthan
B
Gujarat
C
Maharashtra
D
Bihar
Question 1211Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of the 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?
(A) Constitution for Nagar Panchayat tor a smaller urban area.
(B) Mandatory periodic election every 5 years.
(C) Reservation of seats for SC/ST’s in proportion to their population. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A
B and C
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
None of these
Question 1212Single Answer
Which of the following features of Panchayati Raj, envisaged under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are correct?
(A) There is mandatoiy reservation of seats for weaker sections and women.
(B) The Panchayats shall have a fixed term of three years and, if dissolved before the expiry of this term, the elections must be held within three months.
(C) The elections to the Panchayats will be hold by the State Election Commission. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A
Only A
B
Both A and C
C
Both A and B
D
All of the above
Question 1213Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) There will be a Nagar Panchayat for a traditional area, that is to say, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area.
(B) There will be a Municipal Council for a smaller
urban area.
(C) There will be a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A
A and B
B
B and C
C
A and C
D
All of these
Question 1214Single Answer
A college students desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would be depend on the important condition, among other that
A
he obtains permission from the principal of his college
B
he is a member of political party
C
his name is in the voter’s list
D
he files a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution
Question 1215Single Answer
Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate?
A
Collection of land revenue
B
Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
C
Maintenance of law and order
D
Conduct of local body election
Question 1216Single Answer
In the Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not such a provision?
A
A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others
B
Regular remuneration of the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
C
Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
D
A statutory representation for women in the Panchayats upto a third of their strength
Question 1217Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect regarding local Government in India?
A
According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
B
One third of the seats in local bodies are to be reserved for woman
C
Local government finances are to be provided by a commission
D
Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission
Question 1218Single Answer
Match the following
List-I List-II
(A) Zila Parishads at (1) Andhra Pradesh
the sub-divisional level
(B) Mandal Praja Parishad (2) Asom
(C) Tribal Councils (3) Mizoram
(D) Absence of village (4) Meghalaya
Panchayats
A
A B C D
4 3 1 2
B
2 1 4 3
C
3 2 4 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 1219Single Answer
There are two colours of dustbins used some municipalities in India i.e. blue and green. What do these colours signifies?
A
Blue colour is for kitchen waste and green colour for all other waste
B
Blue colour is for re-cyclable waste and green for bio-degradable waste
C
Blue colour is for bio-degradable waste and green for re-cyclable waste
D
Blue colour is for liquid waste and green for solid waste
Question 1220Single Answer
Which of the following is not a department of a Municipal Corporation?
A
Road construction and maintenance
B
Water supply
C
Garbage collection
D
Defence
Question 1221Single Answer
The college of eligible voters in the Panchayati Raj system consists of the members of
A
Gram Panchayat
B
Gram Sabha
C
Zila Parishad
D
Panchayat Samiti
Question 1222Single Answer
Which of the following bodies is the open of the local self-government system?
A
Panchayat Samiti
B
Zila Parishad
C
Gram Panchayat
D
Gram Sabha
Question 1223Single Answer
The ‘Janapad Panchayat’ has
A
many Zila Parishads under it
B
many Gram Panchayat under it
C
many Municipal wards under it
D
many Gram Sabha’s under it
Question 1224Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a function of the Gram Panchayat?
A
Executing government scheme related to generation of employment in the village
B
Gram Panchayats elects its Panchayat Secretary
C
To construction and maintenance of the infrastructure of the village
D
Levying and collecting local taxes
Question 1225Single Answer
Consider the following two statements about the functions performed by ‘Patwari’ and choose the correct answer from the following.
(I) Patwari maintains and updates land record of a village or a group of villages.
(II) Patwari is responsible for providing information to the government about the crop grown in the area under her/his jurisdiction. Codes
A
I is false and II is true
B
Both I and II are false
C
I is true and II is false
D
Both I and II are true
Question 1226Single Answer
Which of the following statements about Gram Sabha is correct?
A
The development plans of all the Gram Panchayats are reviewed in the Gram Sabha
B
The Gram Sabha regulates the money distribution among all Gram Panchayats
C
It is the meeting place of the Sarpanchs of all the village in a district
D
The secretary of the Gram Sabha is responsible for calling the meeting of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keep a record of the proceedings
Question 1227Single Answer
Consider the following two statements A and B about the functions of Janapad Panchayat and choose the correct answer.
(A) The Janapad Panchayat makes developmental plans at district level.
(B) The Janapad Panchayat helps Zila Parishad to regulate money distribution among Gram Panchayats. Codes
A
A is false and B is true
B
Both A and B are true
C
Both A and B are false
D
A is true and B is false
Question 1228Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about Panchayati Raj system in India?
A
The Zila Parishad is the second tier of the Panchayati Raj system
B
The secretary of the Gram Sabha is elected by its members
C
The tenure of a Gram Panchayat is 4 years
D
Each state of the country has its own laws with regard to the Panchayats within the constitutional guidelines
Question 1229Single Answer
Who among the following supervises the work of the 'Patwaris’?
A
Tehsildar
B
Sarpanch of the Village Panchayat
C
District collector
D
SHO of the police station of the area
Question 1230Single Answer
Where do the street vendors normally prepare the food items which they sell?
A
On the street itself
B
At specialised kitchens set-up by industrialists
C
At their homes
D
None of the above
Question 1231Single Answer
In which livelihood agriculture, fishing and mining of minerals are included?
A
Primary livelihood
B
Secondary livelihood
C
Tertiary livelihood
D
Rural livelihood
Question 1232Single Answer
In rural India, what is the major reason for people to travel long distances in search of work?
A
Not being able to earn money throughout the year in the profession they are working in
B
They want to earn more than what they are earning presently
C
They love to travel and see distant lands
D
Their families want to visit their relatives who live far away
Question 1233Single Answer
A farmer in your village want to buy a tractor, seeds and fertilizer but he did not have sufficient money from where he might get the monetary help from the government?
A
Reserve Bank of India
B
NABARD (a development bank)
C
Ministry of Agriculture
D
None of the above
Question 1234Single Answer
People from rural areas are migrated towards urban area very frequently. If you are a person of authority what will you do to stop migration?
A
Pass a order against migration
B
Provide livelihood facilities in rural areas
C
Just write a letter to the higher authority
D
Start a vehicle for their transportation
Question 1235Single Answer
The cycle-rickshaw puller, has to think twice before taking a day off from work. Why?
A
He will not earn anything on that day
B
He loves the work he does
C
He meets many interesting persons in the duration his work
D
All of the above
Question 1236Single Answer
Which of the following livelihoods will normally not be available in a rural area?
A
Cobbler
B
Automobile salesman
C
Primary school teacher
D
Dairy farmer
Question 1237Single Answer
Why does a marginal farmer not sell his paddy in the market, so that he can earn more?
A
The price in the market is very low and he will have to sell at a loss
B
The people in the market do not allow the villagers to sell their paddy directly
C
He has no paddy to spare after meeting his family’s needs and setting the loan he took for buying seeds and fertilizers
D
None of the above
Question 1238Single Answer
A livelihood refers to
A
seasonal movement of people with their livestock in search of livelihood
B
a process of making money or material for living
C
seasonal movement of workers
D
migration of labour force during harvesting period
Question 1239Single Answer
A joint sitting of the two houses in called as
A
The members of parliament
B
Joint Session
C
The Speaker of Loksabha
D
The defense minister
Question 1240Single Answer
Which of the following livelihood will provide support to the primary livelihood?
A
Urban livelihood
B
Secondary livelihood
C
Tertiary livelihood
D
All of the above
Question 1241Single Answer
Select the correct alternative after deciding, which of the following statements are correct with regard to migration.
(A) It leads to creation of a common culture.
(B) It leads to the redistribution of population.
(C) It is in response to the unequal distribution of opportunities at any location. Codes
A
B and C
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
All of these
Question 1242Single Answer
Consider the following statements)
(A) Tangible assets like stock of food and valuable stores.
(B) Intangible assets like opportunity to vise a resource productivity Codes
A
Only A is true
B
Both A and B are true
C
Only B is true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1243Single Answer
As per NABARD classification, a farmer having an agricultural landholding of 1.5 hectares will be classified as
A
large farmer
B
medium farmer
C
small farmer
D
marginal farme
Question 1244Single Answer
Which of the following will include processing of the resources extracted through manufacturing of steel and other products?
A
Primary livelihood
B
Secondary livelihood
C
Tertiary livelihood
D
None of the above
Question 1245Single Answer
Which of the following occupations in a rural area can be considered as non-farm work?
A
Preparing land for sowing
B
Cycle repair mechanic
C
Harvesting of crop
D
Weeding the fields
Question 1246Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding definition of urban settlements given in Census of India, 1971
(A) All municipal corporations municipal boards, cantonments and notified area.
(B) All localities though not in themselves local bodies but forming part of a city or town agglomeration. Code
A
Only A is true
B
Only B is true
C
Both A and B are true
D
Both A and B are false
Question 1247Single Answer
Select the correct alternative after deciding which of the following benefits are given to permanent employees of companies.
(A) Savings for old age (PF and Pension).
(B) Overtime wages for working beyond normal working hours.
(C) Regular salary every month even if the company does not have enough work.
(D) Medical facilities for them and their families. Codes
A
A and D
B
A, C and D
C
A, B and D
D
All of these
Question 1248Single Answer
Which of the following is not a reason for rural-urban migration?
A
Poor facilties for healthcare
B
Non-availability of entertainment facilities
C
Pressure on land
D
Acute poverty
Question 1249Single Answer
Transhumance refers to
A
seasonal movement of people with their livestock in search of new pastures
B
seasonal movement of wild animals
C
urban to rural migration of labour force during harvesting period
D
seasonal movement of people for their livelihood
Question 1250Single Answer
What is considered the most important key to eradicate inequality and discrimination?
A
Implementing all laws very strictly
B
Educating people about the laws
C
Changing the mindset and attitudes of people
D
All of the above
Question 1251Single Answer
Which of the following types of obstacles do disabled person encounter all over the world?
A
Physical
B
Social
C
Technical
D
All of these
Question 1252Single Answer
In a democracy, which of the following is used to provide opportunity without discrimination?
A
Discrimination
B
Equality
C
Secular
D
None of these
Question 1253Single Answer
The term secular was included in the Constitution of India by passing which Constitutional Amendment Act?
A
41st Constitutional Amendment Act
B
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C
44th Constitutional Amendment Act
D
91 st Constitutional Amendment Act
Question 1254Single Answer
If a person is ensured to show his talent before every one and never discriminated on his skin colour about his dress etc. Which of the following is true in this case?
A
Democracy
B
Rule of law
C
Equality
D
Secularism
Question 1255Single Answer
In an election, a political party always tries to play a card so called 'Lower Caste’. What is lower caste being refers to?
A
Equality
B
Poverty
C
Dalit
D
Communities
Question 1256Single Answer
The concept of dignity is
A
rule of majority
B
ensure equal opportunity without discrimination
C
right to vote
D
innate right to be valued and respected
Question 1257Single Answer
What is the meaning of the phrase, ‘universal suffrage’?
A
Anybody can vote
B
It gives the right to vote to all adult citizens, irrespective of their caste, creed, religion, education, gender etc
C
All people suffer equality
D
All people in the universe will be suffering
Question 1258Single Answer
Consider the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
(A) The recognition of equality included in the Constitution are equality before law.
(B) No one should be discriminated on the basis of caste, religion and place of birth. Codes
A
Only A is true
B
Only B is true
C
A is true, but B is false
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1259Single Answer
The people of a town does not allowed Manohar to enter into the temple of his village. This statement show which type of inequality?
A
Discrimination
B
Poverty
C
Disability
D
None of the above
Question 1260Single Answer
How is the Mid-day Meal Programmes helping to promote greater equality?
A
Everywhere the meal is cooked by Dalit women only
B
By making children of all castes and religions eat the food together
C
By ensuring that the same items are eaten by both the rich and poor children
D
All of the above
Question 1261Single Answer
Which was the first state to implement the Mid-day Meal Programme?
A
Delhi
B
Kerala
C
Tamil Nadu
D
West Bengal
Question 1262Single Answer
Which of the following is not a method to behave with a blind person?
A
Introduce yourself
B
Do not automatically give assistance, but wait for him to ask
C
Ask him details of how his blindness occurred
D
Let the blind person hold your arm to follow you, not the other way round
Question 1263Single Answer
In 1st December. 1955, Rosa parks refused a seat in the bus by white people and equal rights were provided to America to end racial discrimination. Which act is associated with this?
A
The Disability Act, 1955
B
The Civil Rights Act, 1964
C
All of the above
D
None of the above
Question 1264Single Answer
The Government of India passed a law to integrate children in mainstream by Disability Act in 1995. Which of the following is correct in this regard?
A
Persons with disabilities have equal rights
B
The government should provide free education
C
All public places including buildings schools etc should be accessible and provided with ramps
D
All of the above
Question 1265Single Answer
The Chril Rights Act. 1964 of USA prohibits discrimination on the basis of
A
caste creed or religon
B
class, colour and status
C
race, religon or national ongin
D
colour of religion
Question 1266Single Answer
What does the phrase ‘power over the ballot box’ imply?
A
By having the nght to vote, people can elect or replace the person who will represent them
B
They can stuff their favourite person’s ballots in the ballot box
C
They can indulge in booth capturing
D
None of the above
Question 1267Single Answer
All Indian should have a right to vote irrespective of their socio-economic status, this idea can be associated with
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Dr Rajendra Prasad
C
BR Ambedkar
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 1268Single Answer
Tawa Matsya Sangh, a federation of fisherworker’s cooperatives in an organisation fighting for the rights of displaced forest dwellers in the state of
A
Uttarakhand
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Chhattisgarh
D
Jharkhand
Question 1269Single Answer
The Civil Rights Movement was started in the USA, to
A
demand of Fundamental Rights for African-Americans
B
demand for equal rights and end of racial discrimination
C
demand for voting right for women
D
demand for social security for old
Question 1270Single Answer
To prevent cynisism among students about democratic institutions, which of the two given options would be most appropriate?
(I) Emphasise ideal functioning and principles.
(II) Indicate impossibility of changing institutions.
(III) Emphasise that social inequality is inevitable.
(IV) Indicate the role of informed public. Codes
A
III and IV
B
III and II
C
I and II
D
I and IV
Question 1271Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about democracy?
A
In a democracy, a ruler has absolute powers to rule the country
B
In a democracy people can raise questions about the decisions
C
In a democracy the country’s citizens are allowed to elect whomever they want
D
In a democracy citizens enjoy certain freedoms
Question 1272Single Answer
Consider the following two statements I and II on people’s participation in democracy and choose the correct answer.
(I) Organising social movements is a way to challenge the government and its functioning in a democracy.
(II) Democracy allows people to participate but all sections of people are not able to do so. Codes
A
I is false and II is true
B
Both I and II are false
C
I is true and II is false
D
Both I and II are true
Question 1273Single Answer
In order to develop an understanding of democratic institutions, choose the most appropriate curricular approach from the following.
A
Provide mainly national level examples.
B
Introduce students to harsh realities
C
Provide examples of realities alongwith ideal situation
D
Describe ideal situations
Question 1274Single Answer
Consider the following two statements about elections in a democracy and choose the correct option.
(A) In a representative democracy, people participate indirectly by electing their representatives who make decisions for the entire country
(B) The government can be changed by regular elections. Codes
A
A is true, but B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, but B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1275Single Answer
Which article of the Indian Constitution is being violated?
A
Article 15
B
Article 360
C
Article 25
D
Article 370
Question 1276Single Answer
Which of the following activities with students would be most appropriate for developing empathy towards Ranjan?
A
Ask students to carry Ranjan up and down the stairs
B
Brainstorm on how to lift up the wheelchair
C
Hold a role play where students experience being carried in a wheelchair
D
Invite a lawyer to give lecture on 'Persons with Disabilities Act’
Question 1277Single Answer
The executive power of Governor is derived from which article of the Constitution of India?
A
Article 159
B
Article 153
C
Article 157
D
Article 155
Question 1278Single Answer
The structure of the State Government constitutes
A
Cabinet Ministers, Minister of States and Deputy Minister
B
Governor, Chief Minister of Council of Ministers
C
MLAs, MLCs and Citizen
D
None of the above
Question 1279Single Answer
Governor of the State works on the ’ pleasure of which of the following authority of India?
A
Parliament of India
B
President of India
C
Prime Minister of India
D
State Government
Question 1280Single Answer
How is Governor appointed?
A
By the President of India on the advice of the Central Government
B
By the State Government
C
Elected by the people of State
D
None of the above
Question 1281Single Answer
The function of Governor are
A
He is executive head of the state
B
He ensures that the State Government works within rules and regulation of the Constitution
C
He works in the state as Sovereign Government
D
Both (1) and (2) are correct
Question 1282Single Answer
If the Governor of State wanted to vacate his office then which of the following is correct in this regard?
A
Resignation
B
Dismissal by the President of India
C
All of the above
D
None of the above
Question 1283Single Answer
A State Government is formed and the MLAs was made ministers, who among the following assign Portfolios to them?
A
Governor
B
President
C
Chief Minister
D
Prime Minster
Question 1284Single Answer
Which of the following persons decides the names of the Ministers in a State Government?
A
MLA’s of the ailing party
B
Governor
C
Chief Minister
D
None of the above
Question 1285Single Answer
Which of the following is not the responsibility of an MLA?
A
Electing his party’s leader in the legislature
B
Debating issues in the assembly
C
Visiting his constituency after a natural calamity
D
Authorising and supervising the work of the Sanitation Department
Question 1286Single Answer
Which power is given to the President of India at Central level but not to be Governor at State level?
A
Right to addrfess the house
B
Diplomatic and military power
C
Power to grant pardons
D
Dissolving the house
Question 1287Single Answer
Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Karnataka
C
Rajasthan
D
Maharashtra
Question 1288Single Answer
The Central Government’s exclusive powers to legislate are enumerated in the
A
Concurrent list
B
Federal list
C
Union list
D
State list
Question 1289Single Answer
The Union Territories are administered by the
A
Union Council of Ministers
B
President through administrators appointed by him
C
Parliament
D
Prime Minister
Question 1290Single Answer
The subjects on which the legislation can be enacted are specified in which schedule of the Constitution?
A
Seventh Schedule
B
Sixth Schedule
C
Eight Schedule
D
None of the above
Question 1291Single Answer
What is the most important thing should be provided to remain away from illness?
A
Water
B
Food
C
Air
D
Healthcare
Question 1292Single Answer
Legislation is divided into State and the Union Government. Which subject of the following is/are under State list?
A
Agriculture
B
Police
C
Entertainment
D
All of these
Question 1293Single Answer
The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by the
A
Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature
B
President on recommendation of the Governor
C
Parliament alone
D
State Legislative Assembly alone by a majority vote
Question 1294Single Answer
How many years is the term of a Legislative Council in a state?
A
Three years
B
It remains continuing
C
Five years
D
Six years
Question 1295Single Answer
How a Chief Minister is chosen?
A
By the President of the party which has got majority in the election
B
By the MLA’s of the party which has got majority in the election
C
By the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
D
By the President of India on the recommendation of the Governor
Question 1296Single Answer
In India, the Governor of State is appointed by the
A
Prime Minster
B
Chief Justice of Supreme Court
C
President of India
D
Parliament
Question 1297Single Answer
Public healthcare system refers to
A
health care facilities
B
professionals who works in hospitals
C
doctors, clinics and hospitals with considerable experience and knowledge
D
only human resources
Question 1298Single Answer
Disease like diarrhoea, dysentery, cholera can be prevented through
A
education of health and hygiene
B
better healthcare facilities
C
providing safe drinking water
D
providing cheap medicines
Question 1299Single Answer
Which of the following comes under the function of the State Government
A
Introduction of new train between New Delhi and Vasco-de-Gama
B
Introduction of a new desian of 1000 rupee notes
C
To maintain peaceful relationship with Pakistan and Bangladesh
D
Decision to discontinue the Board Examination of Class X
Question 1300Single Answer
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the media?
A
Commenting on the personal lives of politicians
B
Dissemination of news and views
C
Commenting on the current economic crisis
D
Suggesting methods to the government for better fiscal control
Question 1301Single Answer
While discussing the functions of the State Government, issue related to health, water transport etc may be discussed to
A
allow learners to understand these issues and express their critical laws
B
enlighten students to organise movements for better facilities for all
C
make students aware how their state is doing on these accounts
D
make students remember about the role of the government in these areas
Question 1302Single Answer
What do we mean by the term ‘media brief’?
A
Orders given by a client to the advertising agency
B
Expenses on a media campaign
C
A special kind of very limited media
D
Activities which a media planner will want to carry out as part of a media plan for their client
Question 1303Single Answer
Which of the following audio recording methods was invented the earliest?
A
Compact Disc (CD)
B
Cassette tape
C
The vinyl I.P. record
D
Memory stick
Question 1304Single Answer
Which of the following is not a mass media?
A
Landline telephone
B
Radio
C
Film
D
Video cassette
Question 1305Single Answer
The ‘Legislature’ organ of the state refer to
A
the judges of the Supreme Court
B
bureaucrats responsible for implementing laws
C
the elected representatives of the citizens
D
every citizen of the country
Question 1306Single Answer
Consider the following two statements about medical tourists in India.
(A) They are foreigners who come to India specifically for medical treatment at hospitals that provide world class facilities at a lower cost then what they would have to pay in their own countries.
(B) They are migrants from within India who more from one state to another where there are low cost hospitals that offer world class facilities at less than what they would here to pay in their own state.
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1307Single Answer
Which of these is not a mass communication?
A
The CBSE tenth class results are put on their websites for information of students and their families
B
A landlord asks his tenant over phone for paying the monthly rent
C
A police car moves around the locality with a loudspeaker over which they warn about evacuating the area because of an impending flood
D
A TV newsreader reads out the news
Question 1308Single Answer
What is the difference between ‘internet’ and ‘e-mail’?
A
E-mail use require connecting to the internet, whereas internet can be used for getting information without the need for e-mail
B
Using internet requires an e-mail address, whereas the reverse is not true
C
The latest version of ‘internet’ is called ‘e-mail’
D
They both are same
Question 1309Single Answer
What method of data transmission is used on the internet?
A
Downloading
B
Packet switching
C
Hub switching
D
Router switching
Question 1310Single Answer
What is the purpose of using a ‘set top box’ in a consumer’s home?
A
For watching Doordarshan programmes
B
For decoding broadcast programmes so that they can be viewed by the consumer
C
For watching only ‘adult’ content movies
D
For watching the censored parts of programmes having objectionable content
Question 1311Single Answer
What advantages does the medium of mobile phone have over the medium of television?
A
It is always ‘on’
B
It is always with the person who owns it
C
It is the only mass media with a built-in-payment system
D
All of the above
Question 1312Single Answer
Which of the following will not be considered as a digital media?
A
Internet
B
Mobile phone
C
DVD
D
Radio
Question 1313Single Answer
Social advertising targets which kind of audience?
A
All persons
B
Criminals only
C
Politicians only
D
Children only
Question 1314Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true?
A
Television is only a visual media
B
Radio is an audio media
C
A lecture in a school classroom is called dyadic communication
D
A hoarding is an audio-visual media
Question 1315Single Answer
Films can be created by which of the following methods?
A
Using special effects software
B
By animation techniques
C
Recording people and objects with cameras
D
By a combination of all three methods listed above
Question 1316Single Answer
Which one of the following messages can be communicated to a mass audience at the least cost?
A
News about a national calamity
B
An advertisement for a cricket tournament
C
A schedule of mass vassination
D
Information about the screening of a play in a local theatre
Question 1317Single Answer
An interview of a film star by Radio Jockey (RJ) which is being recorded in a studio is a form of
A
public speaking
B
mass communication
C
dyadic communication
D
websites
Question 1318Single Answer
Media is no longer considered independent because of its close link with
A
civil society
B
government agencies
C
business houses
D
NGOs
Question 1319Single Answer
Which of the following statements about media is incorrect?
A
An important function of mass media is to communicate information to the people
B
There is regular interference on the part of the government in the functioning of media
C
Money is earned through advertisement
D
The technology that mass media uses keeps a changing
Question 1320Single Answer
Consider the following two statements A and B on ‘Social advertisement’ and choose the correct answer.
(A) Social advertisements are those advertisements that have longer message for the society.
(B) Social advertisements are made only by the state. Codes
A
A and B are false
B
A is false and B is true
C
Both A and B are true
D
A is true and B is false
Question 1321Single Answer
Which development facilitated the debates and discussions about social customs and practices on a wider scale during 19th century?
A
Theatre
B
Movies
C
Radio
D
Magazines
Question 1322Single Answer
The term ‘press’ normally does not include
A
journals
B
magazines
C
newspapers
D
websites
Question 1323Single Answer
What is the main purpose of a journal?
A
Giving the latest news and views of the world
B
Highlighting achievements of their owners
C
Bringing our articles and information on industry or trade related issues
D
None of the above
Question 1324Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a social advertisement?
A
Lane driving is life driving
B
Save every drop of water
C
Atithi Devo Bhava
D
Life Insurance - Zindagi ke Saath Bhi, Zindagi ke Baad Bhi
Question 1325Single Answer
Which of the following statements is not an objective of social advertising?
A
To target social network and social groups
B
To advertise products on social networking sites for personal commercial value
C
To motivate members of the public to engage in voluntary social activity
D
To change attitudes and mindset, as people influence people
Question 1326Single Answer
Identify the issue which is hardly focused upon by the media despite its significance.
A
Gender sensitivity
B
Drinking water
C
Murders and killings
D
Demolition of building
Question 1327Single Answer
In a democracy the media plays a very important role in
A
providing news and discussing events taking place in the country and the world
B
advertising goods so that people can buy goods of their choice
C
telecasting cricket events so that people can watch sitting at home
D
providing many types of entertainment materials
Question 1328Single Answer
The cost of advertisement on a news channel depends on
A
the big business house
B
the corporate sector
C
the popularity of the channel
D
the demand of the viewers
Question 1329Single Answer
Gender refers to
A
a system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women
B
range of characteristics pertaining to, and differentiating between masculinity and faminity
C
these are different professions for men and women
D
None of the above
Question 1330Single Answer
Who are the major persons in our life who reinforce our gender roles?
A
Newspaper editors
B
Our parents
C
Our friends
D
All of the above
Question 1331Single Answer
Girls surpass boys in physical development in which period?
A
Infancy
B
Later childhood
C
Early childhood
D
Adolescence
Question 1332Single Answer
Which of the following led to the diverging gender role between India and the European country?
A
Industrialisation
B
Modernisation
C
Westernisation
D
Outdoor work
Question 1333Single Answer
The cost of advertisement on a news channel depends on
A
the big business house
B
the corporate sector
C
the popularity of the channel
D
the demand of the viewers
Question 1334Single Answer
Teachers can challenge the gender bias in schools through following
A
unbiased assessment strategies
B
unbiased pedagogical practices
C
unbiased curriculum choices
D
All of the above
Question 1335Single Answer
Which of the following works done by a female domestic servant in a rich villager’s household is not strenuous or physically demanding?
A
Fetching water from a well into the house
B
Looking after a small child who is sleeping
C
Washing the dirty clothes of the family without help from a washing machine
D
Carrying headloads of firewood for cooking
Question 1336Single Answer
What is the main reason why even today many girls either drop out of school at the primary stage or do not go to school at all?
A
Poverty
B
School not being near the home
C
Due to discrimination in the family
D
The teacher does not make the class interesting to attend
Question 1337Single Answer
Gender bias promulgates the myth that boys are naturally better than girls in which of the following subjects?
A
Art
B
Mathematics
C
Science
D
Both (2) and (3)
Question 1338Single Answer
Which of the following activities will make children grow up with the idea that they have different roles to play in life as women and men?
A
Boys are given toy cars to play with while girls are given dolls
B
Girls are told to talk softly and boys are told to grow up as strong men
C
Girls are told to play Ludo with the boys on a rainy Sunday
D
Both (1) and (2)
Question 1339Single Answer
Why has the Government of India made it mandatory for organisations that employ 30 or more than 30 female employees to provide creche facilities?
A
This helps many women to take up employment outside the home
B
It helps the women to earn higher salaries
C
The children enjoy the creches more than being at home
D
All of the above
Question 1340Single Answer
Why was Ramabai given the title, 'Pandita'?
A
Because she never went to school but studied at home only
B
Because she married a Brahmin boy
C
Because she was born in a Brahmin family
D
Because she could read and write Sanskrit
Question 1341Single Answer
Which of the following methods can women use to raise public awareness on women’s rights issues?
A
Through street plays and public meetings
B
By asking their husbands to tell all whom they meet about the rights of women
C
By filing a case in the Supreme Court
D
By kidnaping the Social Justice Minister and making him promise to set right the injustices
Question 1342Single Answer
A system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women is
A
fascism
B
monarchy
C
patriarchy
D
hierarchy
Question 1343Single Answer
Which of the following was the most notable achievement of Ms. Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain of Kolkata in support of the Women’s Movement more than one hundred years ago?
A
She opened a school exclusively for girls in Kolkata in 1910
B
She wrote a book about a woman piloting a plane and driving a car
C
She leamt to read and write Urdu
D
None of the above
Question 1344Single Answer
What is known as the ‘Women’s Movement’?
A
Women moving from one place to another looking for a job
B
The movement in which women individually and collectively have struggled to improve the condition of women
C
Women helping their husbands to move up in life
D
Women boxers participating in the Olympics
Question 1345Single Answer
Most people during the 19th century felt education will have a ‘corrupting’ influence on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of corrupting in the above sentence?
A
It would bring them more money
B
The power they gain through education would take them away from the traditional roles
C
They would become impure
D
Women were more corrupt then man
Question 1346Single Answer
To sensitise students about the gender issues and role of socialisation in gender discriminations, school should
A
ask teachers to use case studies and give concrete examples
B
make rules that boys are not allowed to practice discrimination against girls
C
encourage team teaching and Include male as well aa female teachers
D
organise seminars on gender sensitivity by Inviting eminent speakers
Question 1347Single Answer
All over the world, the work that women do within the home is not recognised as work. Why is this so?
A
Because they are not paid any salary for it
B
The amount of work done is negligible
C
It is assumed that the housework is something that comes naturally to women
D
The women use automatic appliances for all the work and so it does not require any effort
Question 1348Single Answer
What is the meaning of sexual harassment?
A
A woman boss reprimanding a male employee working under her
B
A woman not listening to her husband
C
A man beating his wife with a stick
D
Physical or verbal behaviour of a sexual nature against the wishes of a woman
Question 1349Single Answer
Choose the best method from among the following to encourage students to talk about gender roles in a social science class at the upper primary level.
A
Visit to an exhibition
B
Internet search by students
C
Guided discussion on experiences
D
Lecture by an expert
Question 1350Single Answer
Which one of the following provisions in the Indian Constitution has originated from the Constitution of the USA?
A
Concurrent List
B
Appointment of state governors by the centre
C
Preamble and Fundamental Duties
D
Judicial Review
Question 1351Single Answer
The Parliamentary system, rule of law, single citizenship in the Indian Constitution adopted from which Constitution of the world?
A
Britain
B
USSR
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 1352Single Answer
Campaigns have led to new laws for protection of women. In 2006, a law was framed to protect women from
A
child abuse
B
unequal wages
C
domestic violence
D
sexual harassment
Question 1353Single Answer
The elected members of the Constituent Assembly were
A
elected directly by the people
B
elected by the communities they belonged to
C
nominated by the Government
D
elected by the provincial assemblies
Question 1354Single Answer
Ramabai who championed the come of women’s education never went to school. Yet she was given the title ‘Pandita’ became
A
she learnt to read and write from her parents
B
widows and poor women in her mission were not only encouraged to become literate but also become independent with the help of vocational skills
C
she could read and write Sanskrit, a remarkable achievement, as women during her time were not allowed to acquire such knowledge
D
she set up a mission in khedegon near Pune for promoting women’s eduction
Question 1355Single Answer
The Constitution of India has adopted the concept of ‘Fundamental Duties’ from the Constitution of which country?
A
The former USSR
B
Venezuela
C
Canada
D
The USA
Question 1356Single Answer
Which of the following is nearest in meaning to the word ‘sovereign’ in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
A
A gold coin
B
An independent people
C
A monarch or other supreme ruler
D
A person with authority
Question 1357Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true? Select the correct alternative accordingly
(A) The Indian Constitution is a written Constitution.
(B) The Constituent Assembly’s first meeting was held on 9th December, 1947.
(C) The most essential feature of the Parliamentary form of Government is the sovereignty of Parliament. Codes
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
B and C
D
All of these
Question 1358Single Answer
Which organisation played an important role in the formation of Constituent assembly?
A
British Officials
B
Indian National Congress
C
The British Constitution
D
East India Company
Question 1359Single Answer
The Constitution of India was promulgated on 26th January, 1950 because
A
on that day in 1930, the Congress observed Independence Day
B
on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started
C
on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
D
on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded
Question 1360Single Answer
Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?
A
Independence of Judiciary
B
Parliamentary form of Government
C
Federal Government
D
Presidential Government
Question 1361Single Answer
Every organ of government perform their duties and put check on each other falls under which feature of the Constitution?
A
Parliamentary form of government
B
Separation of powers
C
Federalism
D
Fundamental Rights
Question 1362Single Answer
Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented
A
in a High Court only
B
either in a High Court or in the Supreme Court
C
in the Supreme Court only
D
None of the above
Question 1363Single Answer
All persons have the rights in which no one can be discriminated on the ground of his race, religion, caste and place of birth fall under which right of the Indian Constitution?
A
Right to Freedom
B
Right to Expression
C
Right to Equality
D
None of the above
Question 1364Single Answer
The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by
A
French ideals of liberty and fraternity
B
the Constitution of the USA
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
the British Constitution
Question 1365Single Answer
The Right to Constitutional Remedies falls under
(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Legal rights
(C) Constitutional rights Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
A
Only A
B
Both A and B
C
Both A and C
D
Only C
Question 1366Single Answer
Which of the following serves the fundamental nature of the society in which people aspire to live in?
A
Fundamental Rights
B
Constituent Assembly
C
Provincial Assembly
D
The Constitution
Question 1367Single Answer
The Constitution prohibits human trafficking, forced labour and c dren working under 14 years of age falls under which of the Fundamental Rights?
A
Right to Equality
B
Right to Freedom
C
Right to Freedom of Religion
D
Right against Exploitation
Question 1368Single Answer
Federalism can be defined as
A
the people of India have direct role in electing their representative
B
there are three organ of state i e. the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
C
the existance of more than one level of government
D
None of the above
Question 1369Single Answer
The Indian Constitution mandates that the Indian State is secular. Which of the following instances violates this?
A
A Sikh motorcycle driver in Delhi does not need to wear a helmet
B
A Government school promoting Hinduism in their morning prayers
C
A private Christian school teaching Hindu students about the Bible
D
None of the above
Question 1370Single Answer
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution entitles
A
Right to Life
B
Right to Constitutional Remedies
C
Right to Freedom of Religion
D
Right to Equality
Question 1371Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution is often referred to as ‘conscience’ of the Constitution?
A
The part dealing with the Directive Principles
B
The part dealing with the Fundamental Rights
C
The part dealing with the reservation I policy of SCs, STs and OBCs
D
The Preamble of the Constitution
Question 1372Single Answer
The Government will intervene if a religious group says that their religion allows them to practice female infanticide. On what constitutional basis can the government do so?
A
Because it violates the first Fundamental Right, i.e. Right to equality and prohibition of discrimination on grounds of sex
B
Because it violates the third Fundamental Right, i.e. Right against exploitation
C
Because infanticide is actually murder
D
Because it violates the second Fundamental Right, i.e. Right to freedom of life
Question 1373Single Answer
In a discussion on Constitution, it j is important that it is discussed in historical content so that students become aware that
A
democracy has its roots in India
B
republics flourished in ancient India I
C
anti-colonial struggle has its major j influence
D
Indian Constitution is the oldest in j the world
Question 1374Single Answer
‘Right to Education’ is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 which deals with ‘Right to life’ because
A
education helps in leading a dignified life
B
only an educated person has right to life
C
education is life
D
not all people had right to education
Question 1375Single Answer
According to the Indian Constitution, the right empowering citizens to move to High Court or Supreme Court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights has been violated by the state, is
A
Right to Life
B
Right to Constitutional Remedies
C
Right against Exploitation
D
Right to Equality
Question 1376Single Answer
Which article of the Constitution prescribes that the enforcement of any disability arising out of the ‘untouchability’ shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law?
A
Article 21
B
Article 28
C
Article 15
D
Article 17
Question 1377Single Answer
According to the Constitution, how many organs of the state are there?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Five
Question 1378Single Answer
If a politician in one state decides to not allow laboures from other states to work in his state, which Fundamental Rights will be violated?
A
Right to Equality
B
Right to Freedom
C
Right against Exploitation
D
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Question 1379Single Answer
The right to constitutional remedies
A
allows only the linguistic minorities to approach the court if they believe that their cultural and educational rights provided in the Constitution have been violated by the state
B
allows only religions minorities to approach the court if they believe that their cultural and educational rights provided in the Constitution have been violated by the state
C
allows all citizens to approach the court if they believe that any of the Directive Principles of State Policy have not been fulfilled by the state
D
allows citizen to approach the court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights have been violated by the state
Question 1380Single Answer
In parliamentary form of government
A
the legislative and the executive organs are closely associated
B
only legislature constitutes the parliamentary form of government
C
executive is the only organ associated with parliamentary form of government
D
None of the above
Question 1381Single Answer
Executive is responsible to
A
the Prime Minister
B
the President
C
the Parliament
D
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Question 1382Single Answer
According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statements is incorrect about secular state?
A
The state allows government institutions to display and promote values specific to a particular religion
B
The state is not strictly separate from religion, but it does maintain principled distance from religion
C
The state is not ruled by any specific religious group
D
The state does not enforce any particular religion nor take away religious freedom in individuals
Question 1383Single Answer
Vice-President of India presides over
A
Rajya Sabha
B
Lok Sabha
C
All of the above
D
None of the above
Question 1384Single Answer
Which of the following types of bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
A
A bill pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
B
Money Bills
C
A bill to bring a state under President’s Rule
D
Any bills pertaining to the powers of the Supreme Court or State Judiciary
Question 1385Single Answer
Consider the following statements on Fundamental Rights.
(A) All Fundamental Rights laid down in the Constitution of India are enforceable in court.
(B) The Right against Exploitation allows a citizen to move the higher court if he/she believes that the decision taken by a lower court is unjust. Codes
A
A is true, B is false
B
Both A and B are false
C
A is false, B is true
D
Both A and B are true
Question 1386Single Answer
The members nominated to the Rqjya Sabha by the President are from the persons
A
who are highly experienced
B
who were freedom fighters
C
who were earlier members of the Lok Sabha
D
None of the above
Question 1387Single Answer
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the Rajya Sabha?
(A) The House has a maximum of 250 members.
(B) One third of the members serve a term of 2 years.
(C) Some members are nominated.
(D) It has equal legislative powers as the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A
A and C
B
B and D
C
A, B and D
D
Only D
Question 1388Single Answer
A money bill can originate in
A
a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B
Lok Sabha only
C
Rajya Sabha only
D
None of the above
Question 1389Single Answer
By which procedure are documents issued by the government circulated to the MP’s?
A
Passing an ordinance
B
Adjournment motion
C
Laying of papers on the table
D
Giving an assurance
Question 1390Single Answer
The law related to All India Services, police and judicial service are special power of which of the following?
A
The Lok Sabha
B
The President
C
The Prime Minister
D
Rajya Sabha
Question 1391Single Answer
In the parliamentary form of Government, the members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to whom?
A
Lower House of Parliament
B
Head of the State
C
The Prime Minister
D
Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament
Question 1392Single Answer
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the Lok Sabha?
(A) The electorate which elects the members consists of all citizens above the age of 21 years.
(B) The Deputy Speaker presides in the absence of the Speaker.
(C) Some members are nominated.
(D) Members must be 21 years of age or above when they are elected. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A
Only C
B
B, C and D
C
A and D
D
Only D
Question 1393Single Answer
Which of the following responsibilities of Parliament ensures that the Executive performs its duties satisfactorily?
A
Representative responsibility
B
Power of the purse responsibility
C
Legislative responsibility
D
Oversight responsibility
Question 1394Single Answer
Which members of the Executive are also members of the Legislature?
A
The President
B
Ministers
C
Members of the Rajya Sabha who are Ministers
D
Members of the Lok Sabha who are Ministers
Question 1395Single Answer
Why are the people’s representatives to Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elected for a period of only 5 years and not for life?
A
So that other people can get a chance to represent the voters
B
They will become too old
C
They do not want to be representatives for a lifetime
D
In case the elected representatives misuse their powers, they can be voted out in the next election
Question 1396Single Answer
The President can dismiss a Minister
A
with the consent of the Lok Sabha Speaker
B
only in an emergency
C
on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
D
directly without consulting anyone
Question 1397Single Answer
Under which of the following conditions does the term of a government come to an end?
A
The Lok Sabha passes a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
B
At the end of 5 years
C
The President of India dismisses the Government due to incompetence
D
All of the above
Question 1398Single Answer
The President can promulgated an ordinance when
A
there is a conflict between the two houses regarding a particular bill
B
a bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not passed by the Rajya Sabha
C
the Lok Sabha has been dissolved
D
both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session
Question 1399Single Answer
The highest law making body in India is the
A
President
B
Judiciary
C
Parliament
D
Prime Minister and his council
Question 1400Single Answer
How many members to be nominated to the Lok Sabha?