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Question Bank

Question for SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 80 · Max Marks: 80

View SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics exams.

Latest SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Numerical Ability, General Awareness, General Intelligence, English, Physics

Question Bank SSB Silvassa TGT PGT Physics Exam - English

Numerical Ability

Q 1 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
  1. A.2 hours
  2. B.3 hours
  3. C.4 hours
  4. D.5 hours
Q 2 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
  1. A.69
  2. B.96
  3. C.78
  4. D.Cannot be determined
  5. E.None of these
Q 3 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
  1. A.12
  2. B.13
  3. C.14
  4. D.10
  5. E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
    Q 5 :
    The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
    1. A.42
    2. B.38
    3. C.32
    4. D.72
    5. E.None of these
    Q 6 :
    Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
    1. A.18
    2. B.16
    3. C.19
    4. D.17
    5. E.None of these
    Q 7 :
    The difference between th of th of a number and  of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
    1. A.45
    2. B.35
    3. C.40
    4. D.30
    5. E.None of these
    Q 8 :
    If  is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
    1. A.2024
    2. B.2104
    3. C.2004
    4. D.2014
    5. E.None of these
    Q 9 :
    ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
    1. A.38
    2. B.42
    3. C.44
    4. D.34
    5. E.None of these
    Q 10 :
    The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
    1. A.20
    2. B.22
    3. C.21
    4. D.23
    5. E.None of these

    General Awareness

    Q 11 :
    Yojna a weekly journal
    1. A.Ministry of Finance        
    2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
    3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
    4. D.Planning Commission
    Q 12 :
    Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
    1. A.Ministry of Finance 
    2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
    3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
    4. D.Planning Commission
    Q 13 :
    Devaluation of a currency means
    1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
    2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
    3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
    4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
    Q 14 :
    In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
                1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
                2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
                3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
    1. A.1 and 3
    2. B.2 and 3
    3. C.1 and 2
    4. D.1,2 and 3
    Q 15 :
    Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
    1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
    2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
    3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
    4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
    Q 16 :
    In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
    1. A.Kerala
    2. B.Telangana
    3. C.Gujarat
    4. D.Odisha
    Q 17 :
    Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
    1. A.Nepal
    2. B.Sri Lanka
    3. C.Bangladesh
    4. D.Myanmar
    Q 18 :
    What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
    1. A.People Peace Progress
    2. B.Peace for All
    3. C.Plant Peace Partnerships
    4. D.Tribute to Peacekeepers
    Q 19 :
    As per the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2020’ report released recently, which state/UT recorded the highest accident severity in 2020 ?
    1. A.Kerala
    2. B.Mizoram
    3. C.Assam
    4. D.Himachal Pradesh
    Q 20 :
    Which is the second state to recognize Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights inside a National Park ?
    1. A.Rajasthan
    2. B.Chhattisgarh
    3. C.Karnataka
    4. D.Madhya Pradesh

    General Intelligence

    Q 21 :
    How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
    1. A.Two
    2. B.Three
    3. C.Five
    4. D.Four
    5. E.None of these
    Q 22 :
    Team A has scored more goals than Team B
    Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
    Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
    If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
    1. A.True
    2. B.False
    3. C.Uncertain
    4. D.None
    Q 23 :
    If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
    1. A.A
    2. B.E
    3. C.T
    4. D.X
    5. E.Y
    Q 24 :
    How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
    1. A.None            
    2. B.One         
    3. C.Two       
    4. D.Three        
    5. E.More than three
    Q 25 :
    How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
    1. A.None
    2. B.One
    3. C.Two
    4. D.Three
    5. E.More than three
    Q 26 :
    How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
    1. A.None
    2. B.One
    3. C.Two
    4. D.Three
    5. E.More than three
    Q 27 :
    If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
    1. A.T
    2. B.L
    3. C.E
    4. D.Y
    5. E.X
    Q 28 :
    If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
    1. A.None
    2. B.One
    3. C.Two
    4. D.Three
    5. E.More than three
    Q 29 :
    How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
    1. A.None
    2. B.One
    3. C.Two
    4. D.Three
    5. E.More than three
    Q 30 :
    If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
    1. A.V
    2. B.T
    3. C.E
    4. D.A
    5. E.B

    English

    Q 31 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.He was in the temper
    2. B.and refused
    3. C.discuss the matter again
    4. D.No error
    Q 32 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.A flower makes no garland
    2. B.so we must do a thing together
    3. C.in a unit for a good result
    4. D.No error
    Q 33 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.My friend is a software engineer
    2. B.and his wife is doctor
    3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
    4. D.No error
    Q 34 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.I don’t have much time that
    2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
    3. C.tell everything in nutshell
    4. D.No error
    Q 35 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.The atmosphere is changing
    2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
    3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
    4. D.No error
    Q 36 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.No one is without fault
    2. B.because no one is God
    3. C.and only God is fault free
    4. D.No error
    Q 37 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.Your
    2. B.clock is
    3. C.one hour fast
    4. D.No error
    Q 38 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.The lose of jobs
    2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
    3. C.in the fight against infliation
    4. D.No error
    Q 39 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
    2. B.who convinces the world
    3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
    4. D.No error
    Q 40 :
    Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
    1. A.It is only after
    2. B.the match is over
    3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
    4. D.No error

    Physics

    Q 41 :
    Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
    1. A.length and mass
    2. B.mass and time
    3. C.length, mass and time
    4. D.None of these
    Q 42 :
    Electron volt is a unit of
    1. A.potential difference
    2. B.charge
    3. C.energy
    4. D.capacity
    Q 43 :
    Dimensions of impulse are
    1. A.[MLT –1]
    2. B.[MLT²]
    3. C.[MT–2]
    4. D.[ML–1T–3]
    Q 44 :
    Potential is measured in
    1. A.joule/coulomb
    2. B.watt/coulomb
    3. C.newton–second
    4. D.None of these
    Q 45 :
    One Nanometer is equal to
    1. A.10–9m
    2. B.10–6m
    3. C.10–10m
    4. D.10–3m
    Q 46 :
    Maxwell is the unit of
    1. A.magnetic susceptibility
    2. B.intensity of Magnetisation
    3. C.magnetic Flux
    4. D.magnetic Permeability
    Q 47 :
    Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
    1. A.Mass
    2. B.Velocity
    3. C.Length
    4. D.Time
    Q 48 :
    What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
    1. A.Wb A–1 m–1
    2. B.Wb–1 Am
    3. C.Wb A m–1
    4. D.Wb A–1 m
    Q 49 :
    The dimensions of pressure gradient are
    1. A.[ML–2 T–2]
    2. B.[ML–2 T–1]
    3. C.[ML–1 T–1]
    4. D.[ML–1 T–2]
    Q 50 :
    The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
    1. A.[M0L–1T]
    2. B.[MLT–1]
    3. C.[M0 L–1T0]
    4. D.[ML0 T2]

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