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State Bank of Sikkim Assistant Manager Exam - English.

Duration: 180 ยท Questions: 200 ยท Max Marks: 200 ยท Language: 3

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English Language

1
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
2
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
3
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
4
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
5
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
6
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
7
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
8
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
9
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
10
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
11
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Off the two
  2. B.sisters, she
  3. C.is better
  4. D.No error
12
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A interesting book
  2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
  3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
  4. D.No error
13
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I shall never
  2. B.forget a good
  3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
  4. D.No error
14
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
  2. B.solved many riddles
  3. C.that people brought to him for solution
  4. D.No error
15
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.News you broke to his wife
  2. B.made her nervous
  3. C.and she broke down
  4. D.No error
16
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I have a work
  2. B.to do and
  3. C.so I will reach late
  4. D.No error
17
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I saw portion
  2. B.of the manuscript
  3. C.on birds
  4. D.No error
18
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Talent without experience is waste
  2. B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
  3. C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
  4. D.No error
19
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
  2. B.the true path of humanity
  3. C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
  4. D.No error
20
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
  2. B.He devoted two thirds of his life
  3. C.for Indian freedom movement
  4. D.No error
21
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The students who want to speak in English
  2. B.must read Hindu newspaper
  3. C.in their initial stage
  4. D.No error
22
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
  2. B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
  3. C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
  4. D.No error
23
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is
  2. B.a quarter to ten
  3. C.by my watch
  4. D.No error
24
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Mr. Thakur lived
  2. B.in the three-hundred year
  3. C.old house
  4. D.in Patna
25
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
  2. B.gave me a piece of useful advice
  3. C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
  4. D.No error

Quantitative Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
21
16.928 + 24.7582  5.015 =?
  1. A.20   
  2. B.24
  3. C.22
  4. D.26
22
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/4
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
  4. D.5/8
23
Which is greater ?
  1. A.11/13
  2. B.12/15
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
24
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
25
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.
    10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
26
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.10
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.None

     
27
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
  1. A.12345
  2. B.1331
  3. C.1234
  4. D.1213
28
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.3
  3. C.7
  4. D.9

     
29
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.16
  4. D.32
30
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.5
  4. D.6
     
31
Which of the following is composite ?
  1. A.
    17
  2. B.19
  3. C.21
  4. D.23
32
What is √0.0009 ?
  1. A.0.003
  2. B.0.03
  3. C.0.3
  4. D.0.09
     
33
What is √1156 ?
  1. A.32
  2. B.34
  3. C.36
  4. D.38
34
What is √2025 ?
  1. A.35
  2. B.40
  3. C.45
  4. D.50
35
What is (51^2) ?

  1. A.2601
  2. B.2501
  3. C.2551
  4. D.2651
     
36
7 8 18 57 ?
  1. A.244 
  2. B.174
  3. C.186   
  4. D.none of these
37
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
  1. A.25 years 
  2. B.27 years
  3. C.26 years
  4. D.24 years
38
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
  1. A.2 
  2. B.-1
  3. C.1 
  4. D.-2
39
How many factors does 100 have ?
  1. A.6
  2. B.7
  3. C.8
  4. D.9
40
If x = a – b, y = b – c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz will be
  1. A.a + b + c    
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.4 (a + b + c) 
  4. D.3 abc
41
Which number is divisible by 13 ?
  1. A.819
  2. B.845
  3. C.871
  4. D.899
42
A number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5. What remainder when divided by 10 ?
  1. A.3 or 8
  2. B.3
  3. C.8
  4. D.Cannot determine
43
What is the unit digit of (9^{101}) ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.3
  3. C.7
  4. D.9
44
How many prime numbers are between 10 and 20 ?
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.5
  4. D.6
     
45
Which of the following pair is co-prime ?
  1. A.8 and 12
  2. B.9 and 15
  3. C.14 and 25
  4. D.21 and 35
46
(43)2 + 841 = (?)2 + 1465
  1. A.41   
  2. B.35
  3. C.38 
  4. D.33
47
269 – 122 – 33 = X * 2
  1. A.51
  2. B.41
  3. C.21
  4. D.49
48
What is the remainder when 2100 is divided by 3 ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.2
  4. D.3
     
49
Which of the following is composite ?
  1. A.17
  2. B.19
  3. C.21
  4. D.23
     
50
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
  1. A.10
  2. B.100
  3. C.1000
  4. D.10000
51
Sum of factors of 12 is ?
  1. A.16
  2. B.24
  3. C.28
  4. D.32
52
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
53
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
54
The last three-digits of the multiplication 12345 x 54321will be
  1. A.865    
  2. B.745
  3. C.845   
  4. D.945
55
What is the remainder when 173 is divided by 5 ?
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
     
56
If a number is divisible by both 8 and 9, then it must be divisible by ?
  1. A.17
  2. B.72
  3. C.81
  4. D.18
57
What is the area of a triangle with base 5 meters and height 10 meters ?
  1. A.20 square meters
  2. B.35 square meters
  3. C.25 square meters
  4. D.40 square meters
58
How many factors does 36 have ?
  1. A.6
  2. B.7
  3. C.8
  4. D.9
59
Convert 0.04 into fraction ?
  1. A.1/20
  2. B.1/25
  3. C.1/40
  4. D.1/50
60

What is the average of first five multiples of 12 ?

  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.40
  4. D.42
61
Convert 0.04 into fraction ?
  1. A.1/20
  2. B.1/25
  3. C.1/40
  4. D.1/50
62
Which is greater ?
  1. A.7/9
  2. B.4500
  3. C.4500
  4. D.4900
63
Convert 0.125 into fraction ?
  1. A.1/4
  2. B.1/5
  3. C.1/8
  4. D.3/8
64
Convert 0.666… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/3
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.3/5
  4. D.4/5
65
A: B: C is in the ratio of 3: 2: 5. How much money will C get out of Rs 1260 ?
  1. A.252
  2. B.125
  3. C.503
  4. D.None of these
66
If January 1, 1996, was Monday, what day of the week was January 1, 1997 ?
  1. A.Thursday
  2. B.Wednesday
  3. C.Friday
  4. D.Sunday
67
Convert 0.333… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/2
  2. B.1/3
  3. C.2/3
  4. D.3/4
68
How many factors does 36 have ?
  1. A.6
  2. B.
    7
  3. C.
    8
  4. D.
    9
69
23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
  1. A.6460     
  2. B.6420
  3. C.6320
  4. D.6360
70
With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible ?
  1. A.2
  2. B.3
  3. C.0  
  4. D.1
71
If a number is divisible by both 8 and 9, then it must be divisible by ?
  1. A.
    17
  2. B.72
  3. C.81
  4. D.18
72
 Which is smallest ?
  1. A.5/6
  2. B.7/8
  3. C.9/10
  4. D.11/12
73
What is (104 times 106) ?
  1. A.11024
  2. B.11020
  3. C.11016
  4. D.11040
74
What is (48 times 52) ?
  1. A.2496
  2. B.2500
  3. C.2484
  4. D.2516
75
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
  1. A.0
  2. B.1
  3. C.Same
  4. D.Prime
76
Which of the following is a prime number ?
  1. A.51
  2. B.57
  3. C.59
  4. D.63
77
If the expression (px3-8x2-qx + 1) is completely divisible by the expression ?(3x2 – 4x + 1), then what will be the value of p and q respectively?
  1. B.(6, 1)
  2. D.(1, 6)
78
The greatest number which will divide 116, 221, 356 leaving the same remainder in each case is
  1. A.15  
  2. B.5
  3. C.10 
  4. D.20
79
What number has to be added to 345670 in order to make it divisible by 6?
  1. A.2
  2. B.4
  3. C.5  
  4. D.6
80
The least number which when divided by 35 leaves a remainder 25, when divided by 45 leaves the remainder 35 and when divided by 55 leaves 45 is
  1. A.3465   
  2. B.3645
  3. C.3655       
  4. D.3455
81
The last digit of 2137753 is
  1. A.9
  2. B.7
  3. C.3
  4. D.1
82
In order that the number 1 y 3 y 6 be divisible by 11, the digit y should be
  1. A.1   
  2. B.2
  3. C.5     
  4. D.6
83
What is the difference in the place value of 5 in the numeral 754853 ?
  1. A.49500
  2. B.49950
  3. C.45000
  4. D.49940
84
The number 311311311311311311311 is
  1. A.Divisible by 3 but not by 11
  2. B.Divisible by 11 but not by 3
  3. C.Divisible by both 3 and 11
  4. D.Neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
85
If the product 4864 x 9 P 2 is divisible by 12, the value of P is
  1. A.2   
  2. B.5
  3. C.6   
  4. D.None of these
86
(xn – an) is completely divisible by (x + a), when
  1. A.n is any natural number
  2. B.n is an even natural number
  3. C.n is an odd natural number
  4. D.n is prime
87
Which of the following statements are true:
(i) The rational number lies to the left of zero on the number line.
(ii) The rational numberlies to the right of zero on the number line.
(iii) The rational numbers  -and are on the opposite side of zero on the number line.
(iv) The rational numbers and are on the opposite side of zero on the number line.
  1. A.Only (i)
  2. B.(i) & (ii)
  3. C.Only (iii)
  4. D.(i), (ii) & (iv)
88
Find the digit at the unit’s place of
(377)59 x (793)87 x (578)129 x (99)99
  1. A.1    
  2. B.2
  3. C.7 
  4. D.9
89
If N is the sum of first 13,986 prime numbers, then N is always divisible by
  1. A.6
  2. B.4
  3. C.8 
  4. D.None of these
90
If two numbers when divided by a certain divisor give remainder 35 and 30 respectively and when their sum is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 20, then the divisor is
  1. A.40
  2. B.45
  3. C.50 
  4. D.55
91
Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder 7, when divided by 15, leaves a remainder 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder 11
  1. A.115 
  2. B.235
  3. C.247
  4. D.475
92
A number is interesting if on adding the sum of the digits of the number and the product of the digits of the number, the result is equal to the number. What fraction of numbers between 10 and 100 (both 10 and 100 included) is/are interesting ?
  1. A.0.1
  2. B.0.11
  3. C.0.16
  4. D.0.22
93
 If x + y + z = 1 and x, y, z are positive real numbers, then the least value of is
  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.16 
  4. D.None of these
94
The last digit in (25_)32 and (25_)33 both is 6. The missing digit is:
  1. A.4    
  2. B.8
  3. C.6
  4. D.5
95
At a college football game, of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If  of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if of all the seats in the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck ?
    96
    How many numbers are there between 200 and 800 which are divisible by both 5 and 7 ?
    1. A.35
    2. B.16
    3. C.17
    4. D.can’t be determined
    97
    A number which when divided by 32 leaves a remainder of 29. If this number is divided by 8 the remainder will be.
    1. A.Zero
    2. B.1
    3. C.5    
    4. D.3
    98
    A six digit number which is consisting of only one digits either 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9, e.g., 111111, 222222. etc. This number is always divisible by:
    1. A.7 
    2. B.11
    3. C.13 
    4. D.All of these
    99
    The sum and number of even factors of 2450.
    1. A.9,3534
    2. B.18,3500
    3. C.12,3524 
    4. D.4,2453

    General Awareness

    1
    Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
    1. A.It is a financial establishment
    2. B.It acts like a financial intermediary
    3. C.It accepts deposits from the public 
    4. D.It provides safe locker facility
    5. E.All the above
    2
    Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
    1. A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
    2. B.They include general utility services and agency services.
    3. C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
    4. D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
    5. E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
    3
    Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
    1. A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
    2. B.Providing safe custody of valuable items 
    3. C.ATM services
    4. D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
    5. E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
    4
    The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
    1. A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
    2. B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
    3. C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
    4. D.Company Act 1956
    5. E.None of the above
    5
    Banks in India are regulated by :
    1. A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
    2. B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
    3. C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
    4. D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
    5. E.None of the above
    6
    Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
    1. A.Zero Hour
    2. B.Input devices
    3. C.Privilege motion
    4. D.Sedimentary
    5. E.Invest rate swap
    7
    A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
    1. A.Investment Banking 
    2. B.Core Banking
    3. C.Mobile Banking 
    4. D.National Banking 
    5. E.Specialized Banking 
    8
    Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?         
    1. A.Will 
    2. B.Registration
    3. C.Nomination
    4. D.Indemnity
    5. E.Guarantee
    9
    Which of the following is not banking term?
    1. A.Letter of credit
    2. B.MIBOR
    3. C.Factoring services
    4. D.Entry load
    5. E.None of the above
    10
    Systematic investment plans relates to:
    1. A.Mutual Funds
    2. B.Life Insurance Companies
    3. C.Commercial Banks
    4. D.Post office saving schemes
    5. E.None of the above
    11
    Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
    1. A.Mutual funds
    2. B.Term deposits
    3. C.Credit cards
    4. D.All of these
    5. E.None of the above
    12
    The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
    1. A.1780    
    2. B.1790
    3. C.1770    
    4. D.1802
    5. E.1814
    13
    Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
    1. A.Checking account
    2. B.Saving account
    3. C.Money market account
    4. D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
    5. E.Mutual Fund
    14
    Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
    1. A.Business loan
    2. B.Capital raisig
    3. C.Checking account
    4. D.Project finance
    5. E.Term loan
    15
    The banker’s bank in any country called as:
    1. A.Commercial bank
    2. B.Central bank 
    3. C.EXIM bank
    4. D.Scheduled Bank
    5. E.Development bank
    16
    Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
    1. A.State Bank of India
    2. B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
    3. C.Export-Import Bank of India
    4. D.Reserve Bank of India
    5. E.None of the above
    17
    What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
    1. A.Rs. 100            
    2. B.Rs. 400
    3. C.Rs. 500            
    4. D.Rs.1000
    5. E.Rs. 1500
    18
    Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
    1. A.Position of profit on a particular date 
    2. B.Position of profit for a given period
    3. C.Position of loss for a given period
    4. D.Both 2 and 3
    5. E.None of the above
    19
    Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
    1. A.Fixed Deposit
    2. B.Current Deposit
    3. C.Recurring Deposit
    4. D.All of the above 
    5. E.None of the above
    20
    The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
    1. A.The Commercial Bank of India
    2. B.Allahabad Bank
    3. C.Oudh Commercial Bank
    4. D.Punjab National bank ltd
    5. E.None of the above
    21
    Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
    1. A.Letter of credit
    2. B.National saving certificate 
    3. C.Infrastructure bonds
    4. D.Mutual funds
    5. E.None of the above
    22
    What is meant by development Oriented banking?
    1. A.Infrastructure financing 
    2. B.Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
    3. C.Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
    4. D.All of the above 
    5. E.None of the above
    23
    The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
    1. A.April 1935        
    2. B.June 1935
    3. C.August 1934    
    4. D.May 1936
    5. E.January 1949
    24
    14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
    1. A.July 1965        
    2. B.June 1960
    3. C.July 1969        
    4. D.May 1970
    5. E.January 1949
    25
    On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
    1. A.Narasimham Committee
    2. B.Rangrajan Committee
    3. C.Rangrajan Committee
    4. D.Goiporia committee
    5. E.None of the above
    26
    Which Indian Business person recently became the third-richest person in the world, as per the Bloomberg Billionaire Index ?
    1. A.Mukesh Ambani
    2. B.Gautam Adani
    3. C.Cyrus Poonawala
    4. D.Radhakishan Damani
    27
    Which Institution/council released the ‘Competitiveness Roadmap for India@100’Report ?
    1. A.NITI Aayog
    2. B.Economic Advisory Council
    3. C.National Council of Applied Economic Research
    4. D.Centre for Policy Research
    28
    Which Indian state/UT has inaugurated the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Rural Olympic Games’ ?
    1. A.Assam
    2. B.Rajasthan
    3. C.Chhattisgarh
    4. D.Telangana
    29
    Which city hosted the ‘UN’ session to save Biodiversity’ ?
    1. A.New York
    2. B.Paris
    3. C.Rome
    4. D.Tokyo
    30
    Which state/UT got its second railway station after a gap of 100 years ?
    1. A.Arunachal Pradesh
    2. B.Nagaland
    3. C.Assam
    4. D.Mizoram
    31
    Indian Railways have set up ………… machines at Mumbai Stations to convert water vapour in the air into potable water ?
    1. A.Jaldoot
    2. B.Jal Jeevan
    3. C.Ocean Shakti
    4. D.Meghdoot
    32
    Who has been appointed as India’s next ambassador to Thailand in August 2022 ?
    1. A.Avanish Sharan
    2. B.Vivek Kumar Singh
    3. C.Anoop Kumar
    4. D.Nagesh Singh
    33
    Which Indian University has signed an MOU with the International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT) to conduct joint research in the field of electric vehicles ?
    1. A.NorthCap University
    2. B.University of Delhi
    3. C.Mumbai University
    4. D.Lucknow University
    34
    India’s noted agriculture economist and former member of the erstwhile Planning Commission, ……….. passed away in August 2022 .
    1. A.Mohanlal Lallubhai Dantwala
    2. B.Ashok Gulati
    3. C.Abhijit Sen
    4. D.Biplab Das Gupta
    35
    In which state, Reliance Industries has announced to set up India’s first and one of the World’s largest carbon fibre plants ?
    1. A.Maharashtra
    2. B.Gujarat
    3. C.Tamil Nadu
    4. D.Uttar Pradesh
    36
    Which country holds the G20 Presidency in 2022 ?
    1. A.India
    2. B.China
    3. C.Indonesia
    4. D.Sri Lanka
    37
    Which institution has released the report incidence, mortality, morbidity and socioeconomic burden of snakebite in the country ?
    1. A.AIIMS
    2. B.ICMR
    3. C.NITI Aayog
    4. D.IMA
    38
    Which regulatory body has notified a framework introducing a Social Stock Exchange (SSE) in India ?
    1. A.RBI
    2. B.SEBI
    3. C.Department of Financial Services
    4. D.Economic Advisory Council
    39
    India recently signed a MOU with which country on biodiversity conservation ?
    1. A.Japan
    2. B.Nepal
    3. C.Sri Lanka
    4. D.Australia
    40
    As per the recent NSO Data, what was India’s GDP growth rate in the first quarter (April-June) of this fiscal year 2022-23 ?
    1. A.12.3%
    2. B.13.5%
    3. C.14.7%
    4. D.15.2%
    41
    Acclaimed classical dancer and activist Mallika Sarabhai’s memoir titled ………… was launched on 30 August 2022 .
    1. A.In Free Fall: My Experiments with Living
    2. B.Olga Dies Dreaming
    3. C.Constructing A Nervous System
    4. D.Life Between the Tides
    42
    Athletics Federation of India (AFI) has Partnered with …… to support women athlete of the country in August 2022 .
    1. A.Citibank
    2. B.Barclays Bank
    3. C.HSBC India
    4. D.Royal Bank of Scotland
    43
    In which city, the first edition of the 'World Health Summit for Pride of Homoeopathy' was held in August 2022 ?
    1. A.Dubai
    2. B.Shanghai
    3. C.Dublin
    4. D.Tokyo
    44
    Which company has partnered with CRIF Solutions Private (CRIF) to offer a seamless on boarding experience for customers seeking loans ?
    1. A.Bajaj Finance
    2. B.IDBI Bank
    3. C.Axis Bank
    4. D.Mahindra Finance
    45
    Which cricketer has become the first batter in T20 Is to register 3,500 runs in August 2022 ?
    1. A.Rohit Sharma
    2. B.Babar Azam
    3. C.Virat Kohli
    4. D.Martin Guptil
    46
    Which Indian state/UT launched the “Country’s first virtual school” ?
    1. A.Karnatak
    2. B.New Delhi
    3. C.Telangana
    4. D.Kerala
    47
    Which institution conducted the Cyber Security Exercise ‘Synergy’ ?
    1. A.CERT-In
    2. B.Indian Air Force
    3. C.Defence Research and Development Organization
    4. D.Indian Space Research Organization
    48
    As per the latest NCRB report, the highest number of sedition cases were registered in which state ?
    1. A.Uttar Pradesh
    2. B.Madhya Pradesh
    3. C.Andhra Pradesh
    4. D.Gujarat
    49
    Mikhail Gorbachev, who passed away recently, was a former President of which country ?
    1. A.Ukraine
    2. B.Russia
    3. C.Belarus
    4. D.Bulgaria
    50
    Which state/UT Police is the first in the country, to make collection of forensic evidence mandatory ?
    1. A.Tamil Nadu
    2. B.Delhi
    3. C.Karnataka
    4. D.Odisha

    Reasoning & Computer Aptitude

    1
    Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
    1. A.Window
    2. B.Pop-up menu
    3. C.Message box
    4. D.Taskbar
    2
    What is active desktop ?
    1. A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
    2. B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
    3. C.both a and b above mentioned
    4. D.A software
    5. E.None of these
    3
    What is meant by an active window?
    1. A.A window that is minimized
    2. B.The window currently receiving user input
    3. C.Any window currently open
    4. D.The window opened first
    4
    What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
    1. A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
    2. B.A computer operating system
    3. C.A spreadsheet application
    4. D.A database management system
    5
    An application is
    1. A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
    2. B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
    3. C.Both a and b above mentioned
    4. D.a document
    5. E.None of these
    6
    Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
    1. A.Window program
    2. B.Spreadsheet program
    3. C.Graphics program
    4. D.Word program
    5. E.None of these
    7
    The term Briefcase is used for
    1. A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
    2. B.a window that us currently open
    3. C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
    4. D.All of the above
    5. E.None of these
    8
    In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
    1. A.Executing a command or initiating an action
    2. B.Permanently storing data
    3. C.Displaying the computer's IP address
    4. D.Formatting a disk automatically
    9
    A channel (in windows terminology) is
    1. A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
    2. B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
    3. C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
    4. D.All of the above
    5. E.None of these
    10
    What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
    1. A.The associated option is enabled or selected
    2. B.The application has closed
    3. C.The file has been deleted
    4. D.The computer is offline
    11
    According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
    1. A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
    2. B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
    3. C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
    4. D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
    5. E.None of these
    12
    ‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
    1. A.Area
    2. B.Volume
    3. C.Length
    4. D.Sound
    5. E.Energy
    13
    'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
    1. A.Fruit
    2. B.Stem
    3. C.Flower
    4. D.Root
    5. E.None of these
    14
    Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
    1. A.Water        :           Drink
    2. B.Light         :        Night
    3. C.Teach       :      Student
    4. D.Air             :        Breathe
    5. E.Food         :        Hunger
    15
    'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
    1. A.Fruit
    2. B.Stem
    3. C.Flower
    4. D.Root
    5. E.None of these
    16
    'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
    1. A.Omnivorous
    2. B.Carnivorous
    3. C.Herbivorous
    4. D.Multivorous
    5. E.None of these
    17
    Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
    1. A.Party : Dance
    2. B.Study : Book
    3. C.Lecture : Study
    4. D.Enjoy : Journey
    5. E.None of these
    18
    Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
    1. A.Pity : Kindness
    2. B.Cruel : Anger
    3. C.Wise : Education
    4. D.Pride : Humility
    5. E.None of these
    19
    Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
    1. A.Memory
    2. B.Highness
    3. C.Tongue
    4. D.Speak
    5. E.Voice
    20
    Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
    1. A.Integrity
    2. B.Honesty
    3. C.Guide
    4. D.Competition
    5. E.None of these
    21
    5 : 7 : : ? : 28
    1. A.20
    2. B.14
    3. C.56
    4. D.26
    5. E.None of these
    22
    Which one is different form the remaining three?
    1. A.GIJK
    2. B.DFGH
    3. C.CEFG
    4. D.ABCD
    5. E.None of these
    23
    Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
    1. A.71
    2. B.73
    3. C.77
    4. D.67
    5. E.None of these
    24
    Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
    1. A.UMRSME
    2. B.EIWNTR
    3. C.PIGRSN
    4. D.LCUOD
    5. E.None of these
    25
    What should come next in the following number series?
    0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
    1. A.4
    2. B.2
    3. C.6
    4. D.8
    5. E.5