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Question Bank

Question for State Level Engineering Entrance - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 60 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 100

View State Level Engineering Entrance 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in State Level Engineering Entrance exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in State Level Engineering Entrance exams.

Latest State Level Engineering Entrance Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics

Question Bank State Level Engineering Entrance Exam - English

Physics

Q 1 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 2 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 3 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
Q 4 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 5 :
Three resistors 1 รขโ€žยฆ, 2 รขโ€žยฆ, 3รขโ€žยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโ€žยฆ resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
Q 6 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
  1. A.anywhere 
  2. B.emitter-collector
  3. C.collector-base
  4. D.base-emitter
Q 7 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
  1. A.2 and 4
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.4 only
Q 8 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
  1. A.S1,S2 and S4
  2. B.S2 and S4
  3. C.S4 only
  4. D.S3 only
Q 9 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
  1. A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
  2. B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
  3. C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
  4. D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 10 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
  1. A.same in all the medium
  2. B.lesser in rarer medium
  3. C.lesser in denser medium
  4. D.independent of the medium
Q 11 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
  1. A.(2รฐยล“โ€น + 1)λ  
  2. B.2nรฐยล“โ€น
  3. C.nλ
  4. D.n
Q 12 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
  1. A.multimeter 
  2. B.voltmeter
  3. C.voltameter
  4. D.potentiometer
Q 13 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
  1. A.Both K and L increase
  2. B.Both K and L remain unchanged
  3. C.K remains constant, L increases
  4. D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 14 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
  1. A.Gas constant (R)   
  2. B.Pressure (p)
  3. C.Volume (V) 
  4. D.Temperature (T)
Q 15 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
  1. A.300 m
  2. B.3 km
  3. C.15 m
  4. D.15 km
Q 16 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
  1. A.25 kWh  
  2. B.9 x 1010 kWh
  3. C.3 x 1010 kWh
  4. D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 17 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
  1. A.5 and 6
  2. B.5 and 7
  3. C.2 and 7
  4. D.2 and 6
Q 18 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
  1. A.innermost electron orbit
  2. B.a stable nucleus
  3. C.outermost electron orbit
  4. D.radioactive nucleus
Q 19 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
  1. A.0.8 A          
  2. B.2.5 A
  3. C.0.4 A        
  4. D.1.25 A
Q 20 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
  1. A.50 s-2
  2. B.25 s-2
  3. C.12.5 s-2
  4. D.6.25 s-2
Q 21 :
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
  1. A.35o
  2. B.50o
  3. C.55o
  4. D.60o
Q 22 :
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
  1. A.0.015 N
  2. B.0.15 N
  3. C.0.030 N
  4. D.zero
Q 23 :
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
  1. A.emulsions
  2. B.gels
  3. C.foams 
  4. D.liquid crystals
Q 24 :
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
  1. A.I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
  2. B.scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
  3. C.the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
  4. D.scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Q 25 :
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
  1. A.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
  2. B.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
  3. C.cannot keep the body in equilibrium
  4. D.can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle

Chemistry

Q 26 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 27 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
Q 28 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
Q 29 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
  1. A.28 mm   
  2. B.56 mm
  3. C.70 mm    
  4. D.140 mm
Q 30 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
  1. A.1 M solution of glucose
  2. B.0.05 M solution of glucose
  3. C.6% solution of glucose
  4. D.25% solution of glucose
Q 31 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
  1. A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
  2. B.to minimise the snow fall
  3. C.to minimise pollution
  4. D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 32 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
  1. A.AB2 
  2. B.A2B
  3. C.AB
  4. D.AB3
Q 33 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
  1. A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
  2. B.decreases electron density at meta position
  3. C.increases electron  density at meta position
  4. D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 34 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
  1. A.PCI5
  2. B.PCI3
  3. C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
  4. D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 35 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
  1. A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
  2. B.same as in C2H4
  3. C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
  4. D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 36 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
  1. A.methanal
  2. B.propanal
  3. C.propanone
  4. D.ethanal
Q 37 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
  1. A.CH3CH2OH
  2. B.CH3 – C – CH3
  3. C.(CH3)2CHOH 
  4. D.CH3CHO
Q 38 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
  1. A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
  2. B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
  3. C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
  4. D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 39 :
The one which has least iodine value is
  1. A.sunflower oil 
  2. B.ginger oil
  3. C.ghee
  4. D.groundnut oil
Q 40 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
  1. A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
  2. B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
  3. C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
  4. D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 41 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
  1. A.8000 
  2. B.6470
  3. C.7465
  4. D.5360
Q 42 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
  1. A.403 K
  2. B.303 K
  3. C.606 K
  4. D.273 K
Q 43 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
  1. A.m–bromophenol
  2. B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
  3. C.2-4 dibromophenol
  4. D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 44 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
  1. A.Nickel
  2. B.Zinc
  3. C.Sodium
  4. D.Aluminium
Q 45 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
  1. A.Benzyl alcohol
  2. B.Acetophenone
  3. C.Anisole
  4. D.Toluene
Q 46 :
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
  1. A.Guanine
  2. B.Adenine
  3. C.Uracil
  4. D.Thymine
Q 47 :
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
  1. A.7
  2. B.3
  3. C.8
  4. D.14
Q 48 :
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
  1. A.Dehydrogenation
  2. B.Dehydration
  3. C.Dehydrohalogenation
  4. D.Dehalogenation
Q 49 :
Which of the following is the correct statement?
  1. A.Order of a reaction has always an integral value
  2. B.Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
  3. C.Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
  4. D.Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Q 50 :
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
  1. A.Ohm
  2. B.Ampere
  3. C.Coulomb
  4. D.Volt

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