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Latest Super TET Paper 2 Social Studies Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English ​Language, Mathematics, Science, Environment and Social Study, Teaching Methodology, Child Psychologist, General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Information Technology, Life Skill
Question Bank Super TET Paper II Social Studies Exam - English
English ​Language
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 16 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 17 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 18 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 19 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 20 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 31 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 32 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 33 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 34 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 35 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
Q 36 :
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 37 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 38 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 39 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 40 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
Mathematics
Q 41 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 42 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 43 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 44 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 45 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 46 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 47 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 48 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 49 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 50 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
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Mathematics
Q 51 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 52 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 53 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 54 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 55 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 56 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 57 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 58 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 59 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 60 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Science
Q 61 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 62 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 63 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 64 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 65 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 66 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 67 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 68 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 69 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 70 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Environment and Social Study
Q 71 :
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A.palm leaves
B.paper
C.wood
D.stones
Q 72 :
What does BC and AD stands for?
A.Anno Domini and Before Common
B.Before Christ and Anno Domini
C.Anno Domini and Before Christ
D.None of the above
Q 73 :
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
​(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
​(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A.Only A
B.B and C
C.Only B
D.All of these
Q 74 :
Which one of the following statements is false?
A.History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B.In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C.James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D.The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Q 75 :
Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?
A.They are the date of birth of a king or emperor
B.A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date
C.It is the date of coronation of a king
D.All of the above
Q 76 :
What is family ?
A.Family is the primary group of the society
B.Family is the secondary group of the society
C.It is the periphery of the social structure
D.None of the above
Q 77 :
Family according to Biesenz and Biesenz
A.family is a group defined by sex relationship
B.it is the periphery of the social structure
C.a women with a child and a man to look after them
D.The family is a social institution
Q 78 :
Which is not the characteristic of family ?
A.Universality
B.Sense of responsbility
C.Social control
D.All of the above
Q 79 :
One of the characteristic of family is
A.nuclear position in the society
B.system of nomenclature
C.Both (1) and (2)
D.None of the above
Q 80 :
What are the functions of the family ?
A.Emotional bonding
B.Protection
C.Economic support
D.All of the above
Teaching Methodology
Q 81 :
Which is the main objective of research?
A.To review the literature
B.To summarize what is already known
C.To get an academic degree
D.To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Q 82 :
Sampling error decreases with the
A.decrease in sample size
B.increase in sample size
C.process of randomization
D.process of analysis
Q 83 :
The principles of fundamental research are used in
A.action research
B.applied research
C.philosophical research
D.historical research
Q 84 :
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
A.Passive audience
B.Active audience
C.Positive audience
D.Negative audience
Q 85 :
Classroom communication can be described as
A.Exploration
B.Institutionalisation
C.Unsignified narration
D.Discourse
Q 86 :
Ideological codes shape our collective
A.Productions
B.Perceptions
C.Consumptions
D.Creations
Q 87 :
In communication, myths have power, but are
A.Uncultural.
B.Insignificant.
C.imprecise.
D.Unpreferred.
Q 88 :
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
A.Samachar
B.API
C.Hindustan Samachar
D.Samachar Bharati
Q 89 :
Organisational communication can also be equated with
A.intra-personal communication
B.inter-personal communication
C.group communication
D.mass communication
Q 90 :
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
A.Contradictory
B.Contrary
C.Sub-contrary
D.Sub-alternation
Child Psychologist
Q 91 :
Which of the following is not the aspects of child development?
A.Physical development
B.Social development
C.Cognitive development
D.Maturity
Q 92 :
Development can be described as growth in
A.cognitive state
B.physical state
C.social state
D.All of the above
Q 93 :
Which of the following is not correct about meaning of development?
A.It is a series of changes as a result of maturity
B.It is a series of changes as a result of experience
C.It is a mere progressive series of changes
D.None of the above
Q 94 :
Development sequence starts with ...... and ends with ......
A.ovum-sperm, zygote
B.ovum - sperm, blastocyst
C.blastocyst, zygote
D.ovum - sperm, fertilisation
Q 95 :
The feeling of shame and pride develops in ........ stage.
A.infancy
B.childhood
C.adolescence
D.adulthood
Q 96 :
The major difference about the concept of development between JE Anderson and E Hurlock is that Anderson considers it as ......... and Hurlock considers it as ...
A.growth and behavioural changes, processes for maturing an organism
B.growth and behavioural changes, growth and changes relating to maturity
C.growth and changes relating to maturity processes for maturing an organism
D.None of the above
Q 97 :
Which of the given statement is partially correct about the characteristics of development?
A.Each phase of development has its own variable
B.Development is a process that is continuous predictable and has individual differences
C.Each phase of development is with its own characteristic behaviour
D.Development is affected by cultural changes to a certain extent
Q 98 :
Consider the statement about development in human beings
I. Upto adolescence.
II. Upto adulthood.
III. Throughout life.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Only III
D.None of these
Q 99 :
Consider the given statement(s)
I. Mental development states that sensation is a gateway of knowledge.
II. Motor development accounts for the strength and speed.
III. Change in the individual behaviour due to maturation is learning.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A.Only I
B.Only Il
C.Only III
D.All of these
Q 100 :
Choose the incorrect matching with the help of given codes
I. Physical nervous system and development endocrine glands
II. Adolescence love for exploration.
III. Early childhood : sensitive language development period.
A.Codes
l is incorrect matching
B.Both I, II are incorrect matching
C.Both II, III are incorrect matching
D.None of the above
General Knowledge
Q 101 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 102 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 103 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 104 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 105 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 106 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 107 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 108 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 109 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 110 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 111 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 112 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 113 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 114 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 115 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 116 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 117 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 118 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 119 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 120 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 121 :
Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?
A.Brazil
B.Russia
C.China
D.India
Q 122 :
What is the theme of India’s BRICS Chairmanship 2026?
A.Inclusive Growth for All
B.Sustainable Global Economy
C.One Earth One Future
D.Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Q 123 :
Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?
A.Mumbai
B.Hyderabad
C.Bengaluru
D.New Delhi
Q 124 :
Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?
A.World AI Congress
B.AI Action Summit
C.India AI Impact Summit 2026
D.Global AI Forum
Q 125 :
Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?
A.Pragati Maidan, Delhi
B.Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
C.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
D.Hyderabad International Convention Centre
Q 126 :
Which ministry organized the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
A.Ministry of Science and Technology
B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C.Ministry of Commerce
D.Ministry of Education
Q 127 :
Which city is expected to host the G20 Summit 2026?
A.New York
B.Washington D.C.
C.Miami
D.Los Angeles
Q 128 :
Which country is scheduled to host the BRICS Summit 2026?
A.China
B.India
C.South Africa
D.Brazil
Q 129 :
Which country is expected to host COP31 Climate Summit 2026?
A.France
B.UAE
C.Germany
D.Turkey
Q 130 :
Which city hosted the Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
A.Chennai
B.Jaipur
C.Pune
D.Kochi
Logical Reasoning
Q 131 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 132 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 133 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 134 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 135 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Information Technology
Q 136 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 137 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 138 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 139 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 140 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Life Skill
Q 141 :
What does the term "professional conduct" refer to ?
A.Behaving casually in a professional setting
B.Following a code of ethics and behavior in a professional setting
C.Dressing formally in the workplace
D.Being punctual for meetings
Q 142 :
Which of the following is an example of unethical professional conduct ?
A.Respecting the confidentiality of client information
B.Honoring commitments and deadlines
C.Engaging in workplace harassment
D.Offering assistance to a colleague in need
Q 143 :
What is the primary purpose of a code of ethics in a profession ?
A.To limit professional growth
B.To create a rigid set of rules
C.To guide ethical behavior and decision - making
D.To promote competition among professionals
Q 144 :
Which of the following is an example of good time management ?
A.Procrastinating on important tasks
B.Prioritizing tasks based on urgency
C.Completing tasks without a plan
D.Ignoring deadlines
Q 145 :
What does SWOT analysis stand for in management ?
A.Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
B.Success, Wisdom, Organization, Tactics
C.Strategies, Workforce, Objectives, Tools
D.Structure, Wealth, Objectives, Teams
Q 146 :
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective communication ?
A.Active listening
B.Clarity and conciseness
C.Open - ended questions
D.Jargon and technical terms
Q 147 :
What is the main purpose of a performance appraisal in a professional setting ?
A.To provide a platform for socializing with colleagues
B.To determine employee promotions
C.To assess an employee's job performance and provide feedback
D.To establish office hierarchy
Q 148 :
Which of the following is a key aspect of time management ?
A.Overcommitting to tasks
B.Multitasking constantly
C.Setting priorities
D.Ignoring deadlines
Q 149 :
What is the purpose of a non - disclosure agreement (NDA) in a professional context ?
A.To promote open sharing of information
B.To protect confidential information from being disclosed to unauthorized parties
C.To encourage collaboration among competitors
D.To establish ownership of public domain information
Q 150 :
In a business context, what does "ROI" stand for ?
