Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
Who built Kallanai acrossthe river Kaveri?
A
Raja Raja Chola
B
Karikala Chola
C
Rajendra Chola
D
Senguttuvan
Question 7Single Answer
Mahabalipulram wasestablished by the
A
Pandyas
B
Pallavas
C
Cholas
D
Chzilukyas
Question 8Single Answer
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
A
Neyveli
B
Velage
C
Manali
D
Avadi
Question 9Single Answer
Than javur district, the place Where a rice research station is In
A
Kumbakonam
B
Aduthurai
C
Thanjavur
D
Papanasam
Question 10Single Answer
The Gateway of Tamilnaduis
A
Chennai
B
Tuticorin
C
Kainiyakumari
D
Trichy
Question 11Single Answer
The death rate inTamilnadu during 2002 was
A
44/1000
B
46/1000
C
47/1000
D
51/1000
Question 12Single Answer
According to the censusestimafte of 2001 the rate of literacy in Tamilnadu is
A
72.5%
B
71.5%
C
73.5%
D
70.5%
Question 13Single Answer
Tamilnadu gets maximumrain fall during
A
North-East monsoonseason
B
South-West monsoonseason
C
Summer season
D
Winter season
Question 14Single Answer
Subramaniya I Bharathiedited the Tamil Newspaper?
A
New India
B
Young India
C
Tamil Nadu
D
India
Question 15Single Answer
The smallest district in areain Tamil nadu is
A
Chennai
B
Kanyakumari
C
Tiruchirapally
D
Madurai
Question 16Single Answer
What is the name of the first Indian space mission to observe the Sun ?
A
Aditya-L1
B
Surya-L1
C
Rakshak-L1
D
Samyukth-L1
Question 17Single Answer
Which state announced to give monthly allowance to unemployed youth from next financial year ?
A
Gujarat
B
Assam
C
Chhattisgarh
D
Rajasthan
Question 18Single Answer
Which city is the host of ‘National Child Science Congress’ in 2023 ?
A
Ahmedabad
B
Mysuru
C
Pune
D
Kolkata
Question 19Single Answer
Which state is undertaking the Caste-Based Survey (CBS) in India ?
A
Jharkhand
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Arunachal Pradesh
Question 20Single Answer
US-based Hindenburg Research published a report accusing which business group for stock manipulation ?
A
Reliance Industries
B
Adani Group
C
ITC Limited
D
Aditya Birla Group
Question 21Single Answer
Which of the following has been named Country Partner for BioAsia 2023 ?
A
Russia
B
United Kingdom
C
Egypt
D
USA
Question 22Single Answer
Lisa Loring passed away on 30 January 2023. She was a famous______.
A
Actress
B
Lawyer
C
Doctor
D
Cricketer
Question 23Single Answer
President Droupadi Murmu will address the 31st Foundation Day of the National Commission for Women (NCW) in New Delhi. When is the Foundation Day of NCW celebrated ?
A
31 January
B
1 February
C
2 February
D
3 February
Question 24Single Answer
Who has been appointed as the first Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Gujarat Maritime Cluster in January 2023 ?
A
Naresh Lalwani
B
Bharat Bhasker
C
Madhvendra Singh
D
Siddharth Sement Ahmeharma
Question 25Single Answer
Which country won the FIH Men’s Hockey World Cup 2023 title ?
A
Belgium
B
Germany
C
Netherlands
D
Poland
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 26Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 28Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 29Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 30Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 31Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 32Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 33Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 34Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 35Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 36Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 37Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 38Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 39Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 40Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 41Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 43Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 44Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 45Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 46Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 48Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 49Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 50Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
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Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 53Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 54Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 57Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 58Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 59Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 60Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 61Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 64Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 65Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 68Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 71Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 72Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 73Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 74Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 75Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
English
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Mechanical Engineering
Question 101Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 102Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 104Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 105Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 107Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 108Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 109Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 110Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 111Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 112Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 113Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 114Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 115Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 116Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 117Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 118Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 120Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle
Question 123Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Question 124Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q
Question 125Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 126Single Answer
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance
Question 127Single Answer
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Question 129Single Answer
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces
Question 130Single Answer
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Question 131Single Answer
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re
Question 132Single Answer
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency
Question 133Single Answer
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above
Question 134Single Answer
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available
Question 135Single Answer
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Question 136Single Answer
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m
Question 137Single Answer
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Question 138Single Answer
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Question 139Single Answer
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above
Question 140Single Answer
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A
0.10 N/m2
B
0.5 N/m2
C
1.0 N/m2
D
0.15 N/m2
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the above statements is correct?
A
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C
For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D
For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
Question 142Single Answer
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K
Question 143Single Answer
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
A
Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B
Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C
Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D
Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
A
Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B
The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C
Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D
All of the above
Question 145Single Answer
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 146Single Answer
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is
A
100m/s
B
200m/s
C
300m/s
D
350m/s
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 148Single Answer
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
A
33.33%
B
40%
C
66.66%
D
90%
Question 149Single Answer
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
A
1
2
B
1
C
2
D
4
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.
5.015 =?