Question for TSPSC Forest Department 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest TSPSC Forest Department Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General Mathematics

Question Bank Telangana Forest Department FSO, FBO Exam - English

General Knowledge

Question 1Single Answer

Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?

A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar

Question 2Single Answer

What is active desktop ?

A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these

Question 3Single Answer

What is meant by an active window?

A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first

Question 4Single Answer

What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?

A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system

Question 5Single Answer

An application is

A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these

Question 6Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 7Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 8Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 9Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 11Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 12Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 13Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 14Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 15Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 16Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 17Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 18Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 19Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 20Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 21Single Answer

Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather

A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages

Question 22Single Answer

Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India

A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee

Question 23Single Answer

In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles

A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000

Question 24Single Answer

Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct

A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4

Question 25Single Answer

When was first human development report of India issued

A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002

Question 26Single Answer

How many censuses have been carried out since independence

Question 27Single Answer

For which year the latest census is being conducted in India

A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011

Question 28Single Answer

Which of the following are the features of 12^th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period

A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3

Question 29Single Answer

The period of 12^th Five Year Plan

A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17

Question 30Single Answer

A closed economy is an economy in which

A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place

Question 31Single Answer

Telangana Grameena Bank is

A
a Co-operative Bank
B
a Government Scheduled Bank
C
a Housing Bank
D
an Investment Bank

Question 32Single Answer

The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to

A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement

Question 33Single Answer

'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of

A
Adolescent girls
B
Physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections

Question 34Single Answer

What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?

A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka

Question 35Single Answer

"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of

A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District

Question 36Single Answer

Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is

A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank

Question 37Single Answer

Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?

A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnisa

Question 38Single Answer

Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?

A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao

Question 39Single Answer

Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?

A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee

Question 40Single Answer

Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?

A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy

Question 41Single Answer

Who was the incharge of 'Port-Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?

A
Ain-ul-Mulk
B
Shah-Bandhar
C
Dabir
D
Kotwal

Question 42Single Answer

For the maintenance of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?

A
Aurangabad
B
Warangal
C
Mahaboobnagar
D
Berar

Question 43Single Answer

Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad ?

A
Salarjung-I
B
Salarjung-III
C
Salarjung-II
D
Osman Ali Khan

Question 44Single Answer

Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) in Telangana State ?

A
Nalgonda
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam

Question 45Single Answer

Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?

A
Kumaram Bheem
B
Khammam
C
Adilabad
D
Warangal

Question 46Single Answer

Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census

A
227 persons per sq. km.
B
306 persons per sq. km.
C
325 persons per sq. km.
D
350 persons per sq. km.

Question 47Single Answer

Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?

A
Nalgonda
B
Nizamabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Warangal

Question 48Single Answer

Second largest district in Telangana State, area-wise is

A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Nalgonda
C
Karimnagar
D
Khammam

Question 49Single Answer

Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Census is

A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Nalgonda
C
Adilabad
D
Medak

Question 50Single Answer

Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of

A
Khammam
B
Karimnagar
C
Nizamabad
D
Warangal

Important Questions Package

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2.	TSPSC Forest Department Forest Range Officer Exam (General English) - English Description : 1500 Question with Answer	₹131 ~~[₹500]~~
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7.	TSPSC Forest Department Forest Range Officer Exam (Horticulture) - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer.	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
8.	TSPSC Forest Department Forest Range Officer Exam (Horticulture) - English Description : 1500 Question with Answer.	₹131 ~~[₹500]~~
9.	Telangana Forest Department FSO, FBO Exam - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer.	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
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General Knowledge

Question 51Single Answer

'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?

A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Warangal
D
Adilabad

Question 52Single Answer

The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is

A
Ellanna
B
Mallanna
C
Rajanna
D
Beeranna

Question 53Single Answer

Name the village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .

A
Bellampalli
B
Bhupalpalli
C
Yellandu
D
Ramagundam

Question 54Single Answer

Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?

A
Sharad Pawar
B
Mir Osman Ali Khan
C
Azam Khan
D
N.T. Rama Rao

Question 55Single Answer

How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?

Question 56Single Answer

Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?

A
Nizamabad
B
Hanmakonda
C
Medak
D
Karimnagar

Question 57Single Answer

Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?

A
Warangal
B
Khammam
C
Nalgonda
D
Nizamabad

Question 58Single Answer

Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?

A
Karimnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Khammam
D
Medak

Question 59Single Answer

In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?

A
Karimnagar
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam

Question 60Single Answer

The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate

A
The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed struggle
B
The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement
C
The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt
D
The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement

Question 61Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 62Single Answer

What was the real name of Amir Khusro?

A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine

Question 63Single Answer

Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?

A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud

Question 64Single Answer

Education has given consciousness.

A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of

Question 65Single Answer

The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.

A
Thyagaraja
B
Tansen
C
Rahim Sen
D
Purandar Slave

Question 66Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 67Single Answer

What is the national game of the United States of America ?

A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball

Question 68Single Answer

What is considered the national game of India ?

A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi

Question 69Single Answer

The national game of Türkiye is….

A
horse racing
B
wrestling
C
Handball
D
basketball

Question 70Single Answer

The national game of Scotland is -

A
Ice hockey
B
Rugby football
C
football
D
baseball

Question 71Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 72Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 73Single Answer

The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:

A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 74Single Answer

The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:

A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947

Question 75Single Answer

The Constitution of India was adopted on:

A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948

Question 76Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 77Single Answer

Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi

Question 78Single Answer

Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?

A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti

Question 79Single Answer

Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?

A
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B
Sarojini Naidu
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Subramania Bharati

Question 80Single Answer

The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?

A
Maharashtra
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Karnataka

Question 81Single Answer

Which country’s Foreign Minister met counterparts from Egypt and Turkiye in March 2026 to discuss West Asia tensions?

A
Pakistan
B
Saudi Arabia
C
Jordan
D
Qatar

Question 82Single Answer

Which bridge/axis was restored and inaugurated by Raksha Rajya Mantri in North Sikkim in early March 2026?

A
Zojila Tunnel
B
Chungthang–Lachen Axis and Taram Chu Bridge
C
Dhola-Sadiya Bridge
D
Bogibeel Bridge

Question 83Single Answer

What was the projected GDP growth for India in FY26 as per the Economic Survey 2026?

A
6.5%
B
6.8%
C
8.0%
D
7.4%

Question 84Single Answer

What warning did Iran issue in March 2026 regarding attacks on its power plants?

A
Economic sanctions
B
Irreversible damage to regional infrastructure
C
Nuclear escalation
D
Oil price hike

Question 85Single Answer

Which global summit in New Delhi (23-24 March 2026) featured PM Modi’s keynote and focused on “India and the World”?

A
G20 Summit
B
BRICS Summit
C
What India Thinks Today Summit 2026
D
SCO Summit

Question 86Single Answer

What US policy regarding Russian oil purchases by India was extended until early April 2026?

A
Complete ban
B
Export restrictions
C
Tariff imposition
D
Permission to buy until 4 April

Question 87Single Answer

Which Indian state’s Chief Minister Nitish Kumar announced his resignation in March 2026 to contest Rajya Sabha elections?

A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Jharkhand
C
Bihar
D
Madhya Pradesh

Question 88Single Answer

What lunar event occurred in March 2026 visible in parts of eastern Asia, Oceania, Pacific, and the Americas?

A
Total lunar eclipse
B
Solar eclipse
C
Meteor shower peak
D
Supermoon

Question 89Single Answer

In March 2026, PM Modi chaired a high-level meeting to review supplies of which sectors amid West Asia developments?

A
Defence and IT
B
Education and health
C
Agriculture and MSMEs
D
Petroleum, crude, gas, power, and fertiliser

Question 90Single Answer

What was a key focus area in the Union Budget 2026-27 regarding manufacturing?

A
Textiles only
B
Heavy industries only
C
Semiconductors, biopharma, and renewables
D
Automobile sector exclusively

Question 91Single Answer

What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?

A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs

Question 92Single Answer

What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?

A
2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B
2028 Olympics
C
2030 Asian Games
D
2027 Cricket World Cup

Question 93Single Answer

Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?

A
Mundra Port
B
Paradip Port
C
New Mangalore Port
D
Kandla Port

Question 94Single Answer

What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?

A
Defence pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Strengthened economic partnership
D
Climate alliance

Question 95Single Answer

What defence-related development was noted in the context of India’s preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?

A
Reduction in capex
B
Withdrawal from international exercises
C
Complete self-reliance achieved
D
Surge in defence budget and modernisation push

Question 96Single Answer

What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?

A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore

Question 97Single Answer

What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?

A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP

Question 98Single Answer

What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?

A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions

Question 99Single Answer

What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?

A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge

Question 100Single Answer

On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?

A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March

General Mathematics

Question 101Single Answer

The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x² : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to

A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}

Question 102Single Answer

A
B
C
D
None of these

Question 103Single Answer

If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as

A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}

Question 104Single Answer

The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is

A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}

Question 105Single Answer

If A

B and A

B, then

A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A

Question 106Single Answer

The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is

A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17

Question 107Single Answer

The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is

A
2^m – 1
B
m
C
m²
D
2^m

Question 108Single Answer

If A = {x : x = n², n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is

A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these

Question 109Single Answer

If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is

A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these

Question 110Single Answer

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then

A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint

Question 111Single Answer

Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}

A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above

Question 112Single Answer

The set {x : x⁴ = 1 and x

R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to

A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton

Question 113Single Answer

The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x² – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x² – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is

A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}

Question 114Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},

C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and

D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are

A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D

Question 115Single Answer

If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then

A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these

Question 116Single Answer

Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are

A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7

Question 117Single Answer

Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .

A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b

Question 118Single Answer

The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .

A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25

Question 119Single Answer

60 Times of 8 Equals to

A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400

Question 120Single Answer

Consider the sets

A = {x : x is a real number and x² + 1 = 0}

B = {x : x is a real number and x² – 16 = 0}

C = {x : x is a real number and x² = x + 2}

Which of the following is are null set ?

A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C

Question 121Single Answer

If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to

A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y

Question 122Single Answer

Which of the following is / are correct?

I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}

III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}

IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}

A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct

Question 123Single Answer

Question 124Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 125Single Answer

What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?

A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11

Question 126Single Answer

If A and B are two given sets, then A

B)^C is equal to

Question 127Single Answer

121 Divided by 11 is

A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18

Question 128Single Answer

Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n

= 100, then n

is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to

A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900

Question 129Single Answer

A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}

Question 130Single Answer

Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then

Question 131Single Answer

If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x

N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x

N}, then A

B consists of all multiples of

A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4

Question 132Single Answer

A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these

Question 133Single Answer

A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above

Question 134Single Answer

A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these

Question 135Single Answer

If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A

B will be

A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above

Question 136Single Answer

In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are

A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45

Question 137Single Answer

20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is

A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20

Question 138Single Answer

In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to

A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20

Question 139Single Answer

A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is

A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270

Question 140Single Answer

If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is

A
42
B
43
C
45
D
None of these

Question 141Single Answer

A college awarded 38 medals in football, 15 in basketball and 20 in cricket. If these medals went to a total of 58 men and only three men got medals in all the three sports, then number of men who received meal in exactly two of the three sports is

A
18
B
15
C
9
D
24

Question 142Single Answer

In the class of 175 students, the following data shows the number of students opting one or more subjects. Mathematics 100; Physics 70; Chemistry 40; Mathematics and Physics 30; Mathematics and Chemistry 28; Physics and Chemistry 23; Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry 18. Then, number of students opted Mathematics alone is

A
35
B
48
C
60
D
20

Question 143Single Answer

In a town of 10000 families it was found that 40% family buy newspaper A, 20% family buy newspaper B and 10% family buy newspaper C, 5% families buy and B, 3% families buy B and C and 4% families buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers. Then, number of families which by A only is

A
3100
B
3300
C
2900
D
1400

Question 144Single Answer

In a city, 20% of the population travles by car, 50% travles by bus and 10% travles by both car and bus. Then, person travelling by car or bus, is

A
80%
B
40%
C
60%
D
70%

Question 145Single Answer

Universal set,
U = {x | x⁵ – 6x⁴ + 11x³– 6 x 2 = 0}
A = {x | x² – 5x + 6 = 0}
B = {x | x²– 3x + 2 = 0}
What is the value of (A

B)?

A
{1, 3}
B
{1, 2, 3}
C
{0, 1, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}

Question 146Single Answer

Question 147Single Answer

If P(A) denotes the power set of A and A is the void set, then what is the number of elements in P{P{P{P(A)}}}?

A
Zero
B
1
C
4
D
16

Question 148Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, b = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and C = {x : x2 = 4 or x = 1}, then

A
B
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above

Question 149Single Answer

In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25 speak both English and Hindi and all the people speak atleast one of two languages. The number of people who speak 'English', 'English but not Hindi' are respectively

A
40, 15
B
15, 40
C
35, 15
D
25, 15

Question 150Single Answer

If P = {1, 2}, then P × P × P = {(1, 1, 1), (1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 2), (2, 2, 1), (2, 2, 2)}. The ordered triplet missing in P × P × P are

A
(1, 2), (2, 1)
B
(1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 1)
C
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 2)
D
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 1)

Question 151Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {5, 7, 9} then

A
A × B = B × A
B
n(A × B) =n(B × A)
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above

Question 152Single Answer

Let A and B are two sets having 3 elements in common. If n(A) = 5 and n(B) = 4, then n[(A × B)

(B × A)] is equal to

A
20
B
25
C
16
D
9

Question 153Single Answer

If n(A) = 3, n(B) = 4 then, n(A × A × B) is equal to

A
36
B
12
C
108
D
None of these

Question 154Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 8}, then (A

B) × (A

B) is equal to

A
{(8, 3), (8, 2), (8, 1), (8, 8)}
B
{(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 3), (8, 8)}
C
{(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 8)}
D
{(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (8, 3)}

Question 155Single Answer

The Cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which are found (–1, 0) and (0, 1). Then, the remaining elements of A × A are

A
(0, 0), (0, 1), (0, –1), (–1, 1), (–1, 0), (1, 0), (1, –1)
B
(–1, 1), (–1, 0), (0, 0), (0, –1), (0, 1), (1, 0), (1, –1)
C
(0, –1), (1, 0), (1, –1)
D
None of the above

Question 156Single Answer

Let A = {1, 2, 3}. The total number of distinct relations that can be defined over A, is

A
2⁹
B
6
C
8
D
None of these

Question 157Single Answer

Let A = {x, y, z} and B = {1, 2}. Then, the number of relations from A to B is

A
32
B
64
C
128
D
8

Question 158Single Answer

Let A = {x, y, z} and B = {a, b, c, d}. Then, which one of the following is not a relation from A to B?

A
{(x, a), (x, c)}
B
{(y, c), (y, b)}
C
{(z, a), (z, d)}
D
{(z, b), (y, b), (a, d)}

Question 159Single Answer

The relation R defined on the set of natural numbers as {(a, b): a differs from b by 3} is given by

A
{(4, 1), (5, 2), (6, 3),....}
B
{(1, 3), (2, 6), (3, 9),....}
C
{(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6),....}
D
None of the above

Question 160Single Answer

If R is a relation on a finite set A having (n – 1) elements, then the number of relations on A is

A
2^n-1
B
C
(n-1)²
D
(n-1)^n-1

Question 161Single Answer

A
{ 0, 1, 2, }
B
{ 0, -1 , -2 }
C
{ -2 , -1 ,0 , 1 , 2 , }
D
None of the above

Question 162Single Answer

Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12, 12), (6, 12), (3, 9),
(3, 12), (3, 6)} be a relation on the set A ={3, 6, 9, 12}
The relation is

A
an equivalence reation
B
reflexive symmetric
C
reflexive and trasitive
D
Only reflexive

Question 163Single Answer

A
reflexive and transitive
B
symmetric only
C
reflexive and symmetric
D
equivalence relation

Question 164Single Answer

A
reflexive and transitive
B
an equivalence relation
C
symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
D
neither reflexive nor symmetic but transitive

Question 165Single Answer

The relation ' has the same father as ' over the set of children is

A
Only reflexive
B
Only symmetric
C
Only transitive
D
an equivalence relation

Question 166Single Answer

If N be the set of natural numbers and define the relation R on N by R = {(1, 2)(2, 5), (3, 10)(4, 17)(5, 26)}. Then, the set builder form of R is

A
{(x, x²+ 1) | N and x < 6}
B
{(x, x² – 1) | N and x < 6}
C
{(x, 2x + 1) | N and x < 6}
D
None of the above

Question 167Single Answer

Let R be a relation in the set {1, 2, 3, 4} given by

R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 2), (4, 4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2)}.

Choose the correct option

A
R is reflexive
B
R is transitive
C
R is symmetric
D
R is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric

Question 168Single Answer

Which of the following functions is inverse of itself?

A
B
C
D
None of the above

Question 169Single Answer

If f(x) = e^x and g(x) = logex, then which of the following is true?

A
f{g(x)} g{f(x)}
B
f{g(x)} = g{f(x)}
C
f{g(x)} + g{f(x)} = 0
D
f{g(x)} – g{f(x)} = 1

Question 170Single Answer

The value of parameter a, for which the function f : R → R given by f(x) = 1 + ax, a

0 is the inverse of itself, is

A
–2
B
–1
C
1
D
2

Question 171Single Answer

Let f: (2, 3) → (0, 1) be defined by f(x) = x – [x]. Then, f–1(x) equals to

A
x – 2
B
x + 1
C
x – 1
D
x + 2

Question 172Single Answer

The greatest integer function f: R → R, given by f(x) = [x] is

A
one-one
B
onto
C
both one-one and onto
D
neither one-one nor onto

Question 173Single Answer

The number of all one-one functions from set

A = {1, 2, 3} to itself is

Question 174Single Answer

Question 175Single Answer

Question 176Single Answer

The number of 3-digit numbers divisible by 6, is ………….. .

A
149
B
166
C
50
D
151

Question 177Single Answer

A
-1
B
-2
C
D
None of these

Question 178Single Answer

Let N be the set of natural numbers and the relation R be defined such that R = {(x, y): y = 2x, x,

N}. Then,

A
R is a function
B
R is not a function
C
domain range and codomain is N
D
None of the above

Question 179Single Answer

If G represents the name of the function in below graph, then G is a/an

A
identity function
B
constant function
C
modulus function
D
None of the above

Question 180Single Answer

Let X = {–1, 0, 1}, Y = {0, 2} and a function f: X → Y defined by y = 2x4, is

A
one-one onto
B
one-one into
C
many-one onto
D
many-one into

Question 181Single Answer

Let f : R→ R be a function defined by

A
one-one onto
B
one-one but not onto
C
onto but not one-one
D
None of the above

Question 182Single Answer

The mapping f: N→ N given by f(n) = 1 n², n € N where, N is the set of natural numbers is

A
one-one and onto
B
onto but not one-one
C
one-one but not onto
D
neither one-one nor onto

Question 183Single Answer

A
B
C
[ 0 , 1 ]
D
None of the above

Question 184Single Answer

A relation R in a set A is called _______, if (a₁, a₂) ∈ R implies (a₂, a₁) ∈ R, for all a₁, a₂ ∈ A .

A
symmetric
B
transitive
C
equivalence
D
non-symmetric

Question 185Single Answer

A
f is one-one onto
B
f is one-one into
C
f is many-one onto
D
f is many-one into

Question 186Single Answer

Domain of f(x) = sin–1[2 – 4x2] ([.] denotes the greatest integer function) is

A
[–1, 1]
B
(–2, 2)
C
D
None of the above

Question 187Single Answer

Question 188Single Answer

If f(x) = [x²] – [x]², where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and x € [0, 2] then the set of values of f(x) is

A
{–1, 0}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{0}
D
{0, 1, 2}

Question 189Single Answer

A
B
C
D
None of these

Question 190Single Answer

If f: A → B and g: B → C be two functions, then the composition of functions f and g is given by

A
gof(x) = g(f(x))
B
gof(x) = g(x)f(x)
C
fog(x) = g(f(x))
D
None of the above

Question 191Single Answer

If the function gof is defined an onto, then

A
neither f nor g is onto
B
f and g both are necessarily onto
C
f must be onto
D
None of the above

Question 192Single Answer

If f(x) = 2x + 7 and g (x) = x2 + 7, x

R, then which value of x will satisfy fog (x) = 25?

A
–1, 1
B
–2, 2
C
D
None of these

Question 193Single Answer

A
3
B
1
C
D
None of these

Question 194Single Answer

Question 195Single Answer

Question 196Single Answer

A
Zero
B
1
C
-1
D

Question 197Single Answer

a + ib > c + id can be explained only when

A
b = 0, c = 0
B
b = 0, d = 0
C
a = 0, c = 0
D
a = 0, d = 0

Question 198Single Answer

If 3x² + 4x + 2 = 0, then equation has

A
real roots
B
imaginary roots
C
one real and one imaginary root
D
distinct real roots

Question 199Single Answer

Question 200Single Answer

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