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Latest Telangana HC Civil Judge Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Criminal Laws, Civil Laws
Question Bank Telangana HC Civil Judge Exam (Screening Test) - English
Criminal Laws
Q 1 :
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 2 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
A.First Information Report
B.Final Investigation Record
C.Forensic Information Registry
D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 3 :
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
A.12 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
Q 4 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
A.Section 41
B.Section 437
C.Section 173
D.Section 306
Q 5 :
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
A.To arrest the accused
B.To initiate investigation
C.To record the evidence
D.To accuse the person of an offense
Q 6 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the examination of a witness by the party producing him?
A.Cross-examination
B.Re-examination
C.Direct examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 7 :
What is the maximum duration allowed for the investigation of an offense under Section 173 of CrPC?
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Q 8 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the formal commencement of a trial in a court?
A.Summons
B.Warrant
C.Charge
D.Complaint
Q 9 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the procedure for the examination of an accused by a medical practitioner?
A.Section 160
B.Section 164
C.Section 174
D.Section 175
Q 10 :
What is the term for the written statement of the substance of the evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding?
A.Affidavit
B.Deposition
C.Statement
D.Report
Q 11 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the police officer to arrest without a warrant?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 12 :
Under CrPC, what is the term for the formal recording of evidence in the presence of the magistrate?
A.Inquest
B.In-camera proceedings
C.Examination-in-chief
D.Inquiry
E.Inquiry
Q 13 :
What is the term for the order issued by a magistrate for the arrest of a person accused of a non-bailable offense?
A.Arrest Warrant
B.Search Warrant
C.Summons
D.Notice
Q 14 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to grant bail to a person arrested for a bailable offense?
A.Section 37
B.Section 41
C.Section 437
D.Section 51
Q 15 :
What is the term for the legal process by which a person is accused of a crime and brought to trial?
A.Inquiry
B.Prosecution
C.Examination
D.Interrogation
Q 16 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to take cognizance of an offense upon receiving a police report?
A.Section 154
B.Section 156
C.Section 190
D.Section 200
Q 17 :
What is the term for the legal process by which an accused person is brought before a magistrate for the first time after arrest?
A.Examination
B.Inquiry
C.Arraignment
D.Preliminary hearing
Q 18 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to issue a warrant for the search of a place to arrest a person?
A. Section 90
B.Section 93
C.Section 97
D.Section 100
Q 19 :
What is the term for the formal written accusation charging a person with a crime?
A.Complaint
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D.Charge Sheet
Q 20 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to issue a search warrant for the search of a place suspected to contain stolen property?
A.Section 90
B.Section 93
C.Section 97
D.Section 100
Q 21 :
What is the term for the formal charge or accusation of a serious crime?
A.Indictment
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D. Complaint
Q 22 :
What is the term for the formal examination of an accused person by a magistrate to ensure that he is aware of the charges against him?
A.Inquiry
B.Examination
C.Charge
D. Committal
Q 23 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to order the arrest of a person committing a cognizable offense in his presence?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 149
D.Section 154
Q 24 :
What is the term for the formal charge or accusation of a minor offense?
A.Indictment
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D. Complaint
Q 25 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to release an arrested person on bail?
A.Section 37
B.Section 41
C.Section 437
D.Section 51
Q 26 :
What is the term for the document issued by the court ordering the release of a person who has been arrested?
A. Bail Bond
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D.Remand
Q 27 :
In CrPC, which section empowers the magistrate to take cognizance of an offense on receiving a complaint?
A.Section 154
B.Section 156
C.Section 190
D.Section 200
Q 28 :
What does Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act deal with?
A.Admissions
B.Hearsay evidence
C. Relevancy of facts
D.Proof
Q 29 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a fact that, if proved, leads to the inference of the existence of another fact?
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Relevant fact
D.Circumstantial evidence
Q 30 :
What is the term for evidence that is given by a witness who has not seen the occurrence but heard about it from others?
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Real evidence
Q 31 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a statement made by a person while giving evidence in a court, if the statement contradicts his previous statement?
A.Admission
B.Estoppel
C.Hostile witness
D.Confession
Q 32 :
In the context of the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for evidence that directly proves or disproves a fact in issue?
A.Primary evidence
B. Secondary evidence
C.Real evidence
D.Documentary evidence
Q 33 :
What is the term for the examination of a witness by the party that calls him?
A.Cross-examination
B. Direct examination
C.Re-examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 34 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a document that is not the original but a copy of the original?
A.Primary evidence
B.Secondary evidence
C.Real evidence
D.Documentary evidence
Q 35 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a fact that, when combined with other facts, leads to a conclusion?
A.Primary fact
B.Secondary fact
C.Ultimate fact
D.Relevant fact
Q 36 :
What is the term for the statement, written or verbal, which leads to any inference about the facts in issue or relevant facts?
A.Evidence
B. Admission
C.Confession
D.Statement
Q 37 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for the statement, other than a confession, which confirms the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact?
A.Admission
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Expert evidence
Q 38 :
What is the term for the examination of a witness by the party opposing the one who called him?
A.Cross-examination
B.Direct examination
C.Re-examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 39 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a fact that is introduced to prove the existence of another fact?
A.Primary fact
B.Secondary fact
C.Ultimate fact
D.Relevant fact
Q 40 :
What is the term for the process by which a party to a suit elicits information from the opposite party?
A.Cross-examination
B.Interrogatories
C.Discovery
D.Examination-in-chief
Q 41 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a fact that directly proves the existence of another fact?
A.Primary fact
B.Secondary fact
C.Ultimate fact
D.Relevant fact
Q 42 :
What is the term for a statement made by an accused person that discloses his guilt and is admissible as evidence against him?
A.Admission
B.Confession
C.Hearsay evidence
D.Expert evidence
Q 43 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a document that is produced for the inspection of the court?
A.Secondary evidence
B.Real evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Admissible evidence
Q 44 :
What is the term for the examination of a witness again by the party who originally called him?
A.Cross-examination
B.Direct examination
C.Re-examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 45 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for evidence that is based on the personal knowledge and perception of the witness?
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Real evidence
Q 46 :
What is the term for the exclusion of oral evidence regarding terms of a contract when a document is available?
A.Parol evidence rule
B.Hearsay rule
C.Best evidence rule
D.Opinion rule
Q 47 :
Under the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for evidence that is given by an expert in a particular field?
A.Direct evidence
B.Hearsay evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Expert evidence
Q 48 :
Expert evidenceWhat is the term for evidence given by a witness who is unable to speak, read, or write?
A.Dumb witness
B.Expert witness
C.Child witness
D.Accomplice witness
Q 49 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, what is the term for a fact that completes the cause of action or defense?
A.Primary fact
B.Secondary fact
C.Ultimate fact
D.Completing fact
Q 50 :
What is the term for the power of a court to exclude evidence that is improper or irrelevant?
A.Exclusionary power
B.Relevancy power
C.Discretionary power
D.Admissibility power
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Telangana HC Civil Judge Exam (Screening Test) Question Bank Book - English
What is the primary purpose of the Law of Evidence in civil cases?
A.To regulate court procedures
B.To determine guilt or innocence
C.To ensure fair and just proceedings
D.To define civil offenses
Q 52 :
Hearsay evidence is generally:
A.Admissible
B.Inadmissible
C.Conditional
D.Irrelevant
Q 53 :
What does the term "burden of proof" refer to in civil cases?
A.Defendant's responsibility to prove innocence
B.Plaintiff's responsibility to prove the case
C.Both parties' equal responsibility
D.Judge's responsibility to gather evidence
Q 54 :
Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence in civil cases?
A.Testimonial evidence
B.Documentary evidence
C.Expert evidence
D.Criminal evidence
Q 55 :
What is the best definition of circumstantial evidence?
A.Direct evidence that proves a fact
B.Evidence based on personal knowledge
C.Indirect evidence that implies a fact
D.Hearsay evidence
Q 56 :
What is the "best evidence rule"?
A.The most convincing evidence should be presented
B.Only original documents are admissible
C.Hearsay evidence is always admissible
D.Expert opinions are preferred over eyewitness accounts
Q 57 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the discovery process?
A.To surprise the opposing party
B.To gather evidence before trial
C.To keep evidence confidential
D.To speed up the trial process
Q 58 :
What is the role of a character witness in civil cases?
A.To provide expert opinions
B.To testify about the defendant's reputation
C.To present scientific evidence
D.To establish motive
Q 59 :
What is the difference between direct and cross-examination?
A.Direct examination is conducted by the defense, while cross-examination is by the prosecution
B.Direct examination is the initial questioning, while cross-examination follows
C.Direct examination is for expert witnesses, while cross-examination is for lay witnesses
D.Direct examination is only for the plaintiff, while cross-examination is for the defendant
Q 60 :
What does the parol evidence rule address in civil cases?
A.The admissibility of oral statements
B.The use of expert witnesses
C.The credibility of witnesses
D.The exclusion of written contracts
Q 61 :
What is the significance of the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine in evidence law?
A.Admissible evidence obtained unlawfully is excluded
B.Circumstantial evidence is deemed inadmissible
C.Hearsay evidence is considered unreliable
D.Expert testimony is given more weight
Q 62 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of a motion in limine?
A.To dismiss the case
B.To exclude certain evidence before trial
C.To request a summary judgment
D.To impeach a witness
Q 63 :
What is the role of a court-appointed expert witness?
A.To advocate for one party
B.To assist the court by providing expertise
C.To testify as a character witness
D.To present hearsay evidence
Q 64 :
Which of the following is an example of real evidence in a civil case?
A.Witness testimony
B.Documented records
C.Physical objects
D.Expert opinions
Q 65 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for the act of a partner binding the firm to a contract?
A.Implied authority
B.Actual authority
C.Ostensible authority
D.Imputed authority
Q 66 :
What is the best description of the "best interests of the child" standard?
A.A standard of proof
B.A rule of evidence
C.A legal presumption
D.A guiding principle in child custody cases
Q 67 :
What is the term for the dissolution of a partnership due to the death of a partner?
A.Dissolution by mutual consent
B.Dissolution by agreement
C.Dissolution by operation of law
D.Dissolution by court order
Q 68 :
What is the "Dead Man's Statute" designed to address?
A.Hearsay evidence
B.Admissibility of expert testimony
C.Competency of witnesses
D.Testimony about transactions with deceased individuals
Q 69 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the liability of a partner for the wrongful act or omission of another partner?
A.Joint liability
B.Several liability
C.Joint and several liability
D.Limited liability
Q 70 :
What does the "chain of custody" refer to in evidence law?
A.The order of presenting witnesses
B.The chronological sequence of events
C.The proper handling and documentation of physical evidence
D.The authentication of electronic records
Q 71 :
In a partnership, what is the term for the partner who is actively involved in the day-to-day management of the business?
A.Active Partner
B. Working Partner
C.Managing Partner
D.Operational Partner
Q 72 :
Which type of evidence is generally considered the most reliable in civil cases?
A.Hearsay evidence
B.Expert testimony
C.Documentary evidence
D.Circumstantial evidence
Q 73 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, how is the share of a deceased partner in the partnership determined?
A.By the court's decision
B.According to the partnership deed
C.Equally among all partners
D.By the surviving partners
Q 74 :
What is the role of a fact-finder in a civil trial?
A.To present evidence
B.To interpret the law
C.To determine the facts of the case
D.To make legal arguments
Q 75 :
What is the term for a partner who lends money to the firm but does not participate in its management?
A.Nominal Partner
B.Silent Partner
C.Secret Partner
D.Dormant Partner
Q 76 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the "res gestae" exception?
A.To admit evidence of prior bad acts
B.To allow admission of spontaneous statements
C.To exclude irrelevant evidence
D.To limit the use of expert witnesses
Q 77 :
Under the Indian Partnership Act, how can a partnership be dissolved by the court?
A.Insanity of a partner
B.Misappropriation of funds
C.Persistent misconduct
D.All of the above
Q 78 :
What is the significance of the "collateral source rule" in civil cases?
A.It limits the use of character evidence
B.It allows a plaintiff to recover damages from sources other than the defendant
C.It governs the admissibility of expert testimony
D.It establishes the burden of proof for the plaintiff
Q 79 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for a partner who holds out to the public that someone is their partner, even if it's not true?
A.Ostensible Partner
B.Implied Partner
C.De facto Partner
D.Quasi Partner
Q 80 :
Which of the following is an example of demonstrative evidence?
A.Eyewitness testimony
B.Medical records
C.Maps, charts, or diagrams
D.Expert opinions
Q 81 :
What is the primary purpose of impeachment in the context of civil evidence?
A.To strengthen the case
B.To challenge the credibility of a witness
C.To introduce new evidence
D.To dismiss the opposing party's claims
Q 82 :
What is the term for the dissolution of a partnership by the mutual agreement of all partners?
A.Dissolution by operation of law
B.Dissolution by notice
C.Dissolution by court order
D.Dissolution by mutual consent
Q 83 :
What is the significance of the "best evidence rule" in the context of electronic records?
A.It requires the original electronic records to be presented
B.It excludes electronic records as evidence
C.It allows the use of copies of electronic records
D.It applies only to paper documents
Q 84 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for the act of a partner carrying on a business of the same nature as that of the firm without the consent of other partners?
A.Competition
B.Misappropriation
C.Misconduct
D.Fraud
Q 85 :
In civil cases, what does the doctrine of judicial notice allow the court to do?
A.Dismiss a case without a trial
B.Admit certain facts without formal proof
C.Exclude specific evidence
D.Extend the time for discovery
Q 86 :
In a partnership, what is the term for the partner who contributes capital but does not actively participate in the management of the business?
A.Active Partner
B.Working Partner
C.Dormant Partner
D.Managing Partner
Q 87 :
What is the purpose of the "after-acquired evidence" defense in employment discrimination cases?
A.To establish a prima facie case
B.To limit damages awarded to the plaintiff
C.To challenge the qualifications of the plaintiff
D.To admit evidence of the plaintiff's character
Q 88 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, when is a partner entitled to interest on the capital contributed by them to the firm?
A.Always
B.Only if provided in the partnership deed
C.Only if there are profits
D.Only if the firm is in financial distress
Q 89 :
What is the role of a court reporter in a civil trial?
A.To provide legal advice
B.To transcribe the proceedings
C.To present expert testimony
D.To interpret the law
Q 90 :
What is the term for a partner who is not involved in the day-to-day management of the business but participates in decision-making?
A.Working Partner
B.Silent Partner
C.Nominal Partner
D.Active Partner
Q 91 :
In civil cases, what is the function of the "business records exception" to the hearsay rule?
A.To exclude irrelevant evidence
B.To admit records created in the ordinary course of business
C.To limit the use of expert testimony
D.To allow character evidence
Q 92 :
Under the Indian Partnership Act, how can a partner be expelled from the partnership?
A.By a majority vote of the partners
B. By court order
C.By mutual consent
D.By notice
Q 93 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the liability of a partner for acts done after the dissolution of the firm?
A.Joint liability
B.Several liability
C.Joint and several liability
D.No liability
Q 94 :
What is the significance of the "admission against interest" exception to the hearsay rule?
A.It allows certain statements to be admitted even if hearsay
B.It excludes statements made by parties in the case
C.It applies only to criminal cases
D.It governs the use of expert testimony
Q 95 :
What is the term for the dissolution of a partnership due to the insanity of a partner?
A.Dissolution by mutual consent
B.Dissolution by operation of law
C.Dissolution by notice
D.Dissolution by court order
Q 96 :
The Indian Sale of Goods Act applies to the sale of goods where the buyer and seller are located in India. What is the year of enactment of this Act?
A.1930
B.1947
C.1956
D.1962
Q 97 :
According to the Indian Partnership Act, what is the term for the partner who only lends their name to the firm but does not contribute capital?
A.Working Partner
B.Nominal Partner
C.Silent Partner
D.Ostensible Partner
Q 98 :
According to the Sale of Goods Act, what is a "contract of sale"?
A.Any agreement
B.An agreement to sell goods
C.An agreement for the sale of services
D.An agreement for the sale of goods
Q 99 :
In a partnership, what is the term for the partner who actively participates in the management of the business and shares both profits and losses?
A.Active Partner
B. Working Partner
C.Nominal Partner
D.Dormant Partner
Q 100 :
What is the implied condition regarding the title in a contract of sale of goods?
