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Latest Telangana Police APP Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : The Constitution of India, 1949, The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, The Indian Penal Code, 1860, The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Question Bank Telangana Police Assistant Public Prosecutor Exam Paper I - English
The Constitution of India, 1949
Q 1 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 2 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 3 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 4 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 5 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 6 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 7 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 8 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 9 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 10 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 11 :
In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
A.1726
B.1772
C.1774
D.1781
Q 12 :
On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?
A.Cripps Mission
B.Webel Mission
C.Lord Mountbatten
D.Cabinet Mission Plan
Q 13 :
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?
A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B.Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C.Sr. B.N. Rau
D.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q 14 :
The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Shri S.N. Sinha
C.Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
D.None of the above
Q 15 :
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Sardar Patel
C.Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
D.Pt. J. Nehru
Q 16 :
Who was the first Prsident of Constituent Assembly of India ?
A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B.Dr. K. N. Katju
C.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D.C. Rajagopalachari
Q 17 :
The number of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution were
A.7
B.8
C.1
D.5
Q 18 :
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ?
`
A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B.Motilal Nehru
C.M.K. Gandhi
D.Sardar Patel
Q 19 :
The members of the Constituent Assembly were -
A.Elected directly by the people
B.Nominated by the Indian National Congress
C.Delegate of Indian princes
D.Mainly elected by the provincial Asemblies
Q 20 :
When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held ?
A.8th December
B.9th December
C.10th December
D.12th December
Q 21 :
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on -
A.9th December, 1946
B.15th August, 1947
C.26th December, 1949
D.10th December, 1948
Q 22 :
The task of making the Constitution was over on -
A.26th November, 1949
B.26th January, 1950
C.15th August, 1947
D.25th November, 1949
Q 23 :
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on -
A.November 25, 1949
B.November 29, 1949
C.November 26, 1949
D.November 27, 1949
Q 24 :
The Constitution of India, as framed by the Constituent Assembly, was finally adopted and enacted on -
A.15th August, 1947
B.26th November, 1949
C.30th January, 1949
D.26th January, 1950
Q 25 :
On which one of the following dates, the Constitution of India was adopted and finalized by the Constituent Assembly -
A.26th January, 1950
B.26th November, 1949
C.26th November, 1950
D.26th January, 1948
Q 26 :
Who adopted the constitution of India ?
A.Governor General
B.British Crown
C.Constituent Assembly
D.Indian Parliament
Q 27 :
On which date 'Law Day' is celebrated in India ?
A.26th November
B.28th October
C.2nd October
D.15th August
Q 28 :
The original Constitution of India contains :
A.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Raja Ravi Verma
B.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by S.H. Raza
C.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Jamini Roy
D.Several paintings created by a group of painters led by Nandalal Bose
Q 29 :
Who was the Chairman of the first Commission on review of the Indian Constitution ?
A.Justice Venkatachaliah
B.Justice Hidayatullah
C.Justice A.M. Ahmadi
D.Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
Q 30 :
On which date the National Anthem was adopted by the constituent Assembly ?
A.1st January 1950
B.24th January 1950
C.26th January 1950
D.26th November 1949
Q 31 :
Who designed the Indian flag ?
A.Alluri Sitarama Raju
B.Pinglai Venkayya
C.Sarojini Naidu
D.Potti Sreeramulu
Q 32 :
How many spokes are therein the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
A.22
B.24
C.14
D.18
Q 33 :
The Words "SATYAMEVA JAYATE" in the State Emblem of india have been adopted from which of the following :
`
A.Brahma Upnishad
B.Mudgala Upnishad
C.Maitriyi Upnishad
D.Mundakopanishad
Q 34 :
How many article are there in the Indian Constitution -
A.365
B.379
C.394
D.395
Q 35 :
The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was -
A.395 Articles and 8 Schedules
B.394 Articles and 9 Schedules
C.396 Articles and 10 Schedules
D.395 Articles and 7 Schedules
Q 36 :
How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India ?
A.9
B.10
C.11
D.12
Q 37 :
The First Law Commission of Independent India was established in year -
A.1861
B.1950
C.1951
D.1955
Q 38 :
The first State in Independent India which was created on linguistic basis was -
A.Gujarat
B.Kerala
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Haryana
Q 39 :
Consider the following statements -
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Mainly based on the Government of India Act 1935
Code
A.Statement 2 and 1 are correct
B.Statement 2 and 3 are correct
C.Only Statement 2 is correct
D.Statement 1 and 3 are correct
Q 40 :
Which one of these is not federal feature of the Constitution of India :
A.Written and rigid constitution
B.Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
C.Distribution of powers between Centre and States
D.Independent judiciary
Q 41 :
Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution ?
A.Distribution of power between Centre and States
B.Authority of Courts
C.Supremacy of the Constitution
D.Single citizenship
Q 42 :
Which of the following determines the federal character of the Indian Constitution ?
A.Written Constitution
B.Independent Judiciary
C.Distribution of Power between the Centre and the State
D.Judicial Review
Q 43 :
Who said that Indian Constitution is quasi-federal ?
A.Prof. K.C. Whaere
B.Prof. E.C.S. Wade
C.Sir Ivor Jennings
D.H.M. Seervai
Q 44 :
Prof. K.C. Wheare said the our Constitution is at most -
A.Federal Structure
B.Quasi-Federal
C.Weak Federation
D.Strong Federation
Q 45 :
The Constitution of India is -
A.Partly rigid and Partly flexible
B.Rigid
C.Flexible
D.None of the above
Q 46 :
Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity ?
A.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.Sir William Ivor Jennings
C.Sir B.N. Rau
D.Prof. K.C. Wheare
Q 47 :
Absolutism means :
A.The state or quality of being absolute
B.A short of government in which public power is visted in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution
C.Unconditional power or sovereignty vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an oligarchy
D.All of the above
Q 48 :
Out of the following, which is not related to the Indian Constitution ?
A.Democratic
B.Federal
C.Secular, Socialist
D.Presidential system
Q 49 :
Indian Constitution is -
A.Unitary
B.Neither Unitary nor Federal
C.Federal
D.Neither Unitary nor Federal but combination of both
Q 50 :
The essential characteristics of Federation in USA are -
1. Supremacy of the Constitution
2. Distribution of powers amongst the various organs of the federation and of regional units of the federation by the provision of constitution
3. Judicial review or enforcement of that supreme constitution as law
4. The Rule of Law
Choose the correct option
A.Only 1, 2 and 3
B.Only 1, 2 and 4
C.Only 2, 3 and 4
D.All 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Telangana Police Assistant Public Prosecutor Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 52 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
A.First Information Report
B.Final Investigation Record
C.Forensic Information Registry
D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 53 :
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
A.12 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
Q 54 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
A.Section 41
B.Section 437
C.Section 173
D.Section 306
Q 55 :
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
A.To arrest the accused
B.To initiate investigation
C.To record the evidence
D.To accuse the person of an offense
Q 56 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the examination of a witness by the party producing him?
A.Cross-examination
B.Re-examination
C.Direct examination
D.Preliminary examination
Q 57 :
What is the maximum duration allowed for the investigation of an offense under Section 173 of CrPC?
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Q 58 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the formal commencement of a trial in a court?
A.Summons
B.Warrant
C.Charge
D.Complaint
Q 59 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the procedure for the examination of an accused by a medical practitioner?
A.Section 160
B.Section 164
C.Section 174
D.Section 175
Q 60 :
What is the term for the written statement of the substance of the evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding?
A.Affidavit
B.Deposition
C.Statement
D.Report
Q 61 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the police officer to arrest without a warrant?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 49
D.Section 51
Q 62 :
Under CrPC, what is the term for the formal recording of evidence in the presence of the magistrate?
A.Inquest
B.In-camera proceedings
C.Examination-in-chief
D.Inquiry
E.Inquiry
Q 63 :
What is the term for the order issued by a magistrate for the arrest of a person accused of a non-bailable offense?
A.Arrest Warrant
B.Search Warrant
C.Summons
D.Notice
Q 64 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to grant bail to a person arrested for a bailable offense?
A.Section 37
B.Section 41
C.Section 437
D.Section 51
Q 65 :
What is the term for the legal process by which a person is accused of a crime and brought to trial?
A.Inquiry
B.Prosecution
C.Examination
D.Interrogation
Q 66 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to take cognizance of an offense upon receiving a police report?
A.Section 154
B.Section 156
C.Section 190
D.Section 200
Q 67 :
What is the term for the legal process by which an accused person is brought before a magistrate for the first time after arrest?
A.Examination
B.Inquiry
C.Arraignment
D.Preliminary hearing
Q 68 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to issue a warrant for the search of a place to arrest a person?
A. Section 90
B.Section 93
C.Section 97
D.Section 100
Q 69 :
What is the term for the formal written accusation charging a person with a crime?
A.Complaint
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D.Charge Sheet
Q 70 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to issue a search warrant for the search of a place suspected to contain stolen property?
A.Section 90
B.Section 93
C.Section 97
D.Section 100
Q 71 :
What is the term for the formal charge or accusation of a serious crime?
A.Indictment
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D. Complaint
Q 72 :
What is the term for the formal examination of an accused person by a magistrate to ensure that he is aware of the charges against him?
A.Inquiry
B.Examination
C.Charge
D. Committal
Q 73 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to order the arrest of a person committing a cognizable offense in his presence?
A.Section 41
B.Section 46
C.Section 149
D.Section 154
Q 74 :
What is the term for the formal charge or accusation of a minor offense?
A.Indictment
B.Summons
C.Warrant
D. Complaint
Q 75 :
In CrPC, which section deals with the power of the magistrate to release an arrested person on bail?
A.Section 37
B.Section 41
C.Section 437
D.Section 51
Q 76 :
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A.Only (i) is correct
B.Only (ii) is correct
C.Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Q 77 :
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A.Chapter VIII
B.Chapter IX
C.Chapter X
D.Chapter XI
Q 78 :
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A.State of Tripura
B.State of Assam
C.State of Meghalya
D.State of Nagaland
Q 79 :
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A.State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B.Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C.Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D.State of Nagaland v. Chung
Q 80 :
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A.Municipal area of Shilong
B.Municipal area of Mizoram
C.Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D.Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Q 81 :
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 82 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
A.On April 1, 1973
B.On April 1, 1974
C.On January 1, 1974
D.On March 1, 1974
Q 83 :
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
A.25-12-1973
B.25-01-1974
C.25-02-1974
D.25-05-1974
Q 84 :
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
A.21st July, 2005
B.23rd June, 2005
C.22nd August, 2005
D.20th September, 2005
Q 85 :
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
A.6th April, 2013
B.3rd February, 2013
C.7th January, 2013
D.5th March, 2013
Q 86 :
Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?
A.(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B.(2), (3) and (4)
C.(2) and (3) only
D.(1) and (4) only
Q 87 :
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A.Police report : Section 2(r)
B.Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
C.Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
D.Investigation : Section 2(h)
Q 88 :
'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in
A.the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
B.the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
C.Section 425 Cr.P.C
D.Section 426 Cr.P.C.
Q 89 :
What offence is bailable ?
A.Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
B.All cases of summon's trial
C.All non-cognizable offences
D.All cases which are not triable by session
Q 90 :
Non-bailable offence means -
A.Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
B.All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
C.Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
D.Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant
Q 91 :
Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A.Court
B.Public Prosecutor
C.Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
D.All of the above
Q 92 :
A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called
A.Bailable offence
B.Cognizable offence
C.Charge
D.Non-compoundable offence
Q 93 :
Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?
A.Section 2(a)
B.Section 2(c)
C.Section 2(i)
D.Section 2(1)
Q 94 :
Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -
A.Bailable offence
B.Non- Bailable offence
C.Cognizable offence
D.Non-cognizable offence
Q 95 :
In a cognizable offence a police officer :
A.Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
B.May arrest an accused without warrant
C.Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
D.Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate
Q 96 :
Cognizable offence means an offence
A.For which a police officer may arrest without warrant
B.For which a police officer may arrest if warrant of arrest is issued
C.For which a police officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector may arrest
D.None of the above
Q 97 :
In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :
A.investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B.investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
C.investigate including the power the arrest without warrant
D.investigate and arrest without warrant, only afer informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence
Q 98 :
In a cognizable case, the police has authority
A.to arrest without warrant
B.to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.either (A) or (B)
Q 99 :
Point out the incorrect statement -
A.In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B.A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C.An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
D.None of the above is correct
Q 100 :
Section 2(d) of Cr. P.C., 1973 defines
A.Charge
B.Cognizable offence
C.Complaint
D.Inquiry
The Indian Penal Code, 1860
Q 101 :
The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ?
A.First Law Commission
B.Second Law Commission
C.Third Law Commission
D.Sixteen Law Commission
Q 102 :
Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code ?
A.Lord Macaulay
B.Mullah
C.Sir H.S. Mayne
D.Frederock Pollock
Q 103 :
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code ?
A.Lord William Bentick
B.Lord Macaulay
C.Lord Macaulay
D.Lord Macaulay
Q 104 :
What is the correct definition of offence ?
A.Act punishable by law
B.Act prohibited by law
C.Immoral act
D.Act punishable by law and also prohibited by law
Q 105 :
Who among the following defined crime as "an act committed or omitted in violation of pulic law either forbidding or commanding it" ?
A.Russel
B.Kenny
C.Blackstone
D.J.F. Stephen
Q 106 :
Fill in the gap :
Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some……….
A.law
B.method
C.society
D.All the above
Q 107 :
Assertion (A) : Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the jmoral sense of society.
Code -
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 108 :
Observe the statements given below and mark the answer as correct -
1. Tort and crime are neither exactly different nor exactly the same
2. Murder is outright crime
3. Trespass without intention is only tort
A.Statement 1 and 2 are true
B.Statement 2 and 3 are true
C.All the statement are true
D.All the statement are false
Q 109 :
Which in the following is not inchoate crime ?
A.Attempt
B.Criminal conspiracy
C.Abetment
D.Kidnapping
Q 110 :
Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
A.Mens rea
B.Actus reu
C.Injury
D.Motive
Q 111 :
The Essential and chief ingredients of 'crime' are :
A.motive, mens rea and actus reus
B.motive, intention and knowledge
C.mens rea and actus reus
D.knowledge, intention and action
Q 112 :
Which of the following are not essential for offence.
A.Intention
B.Object
C.Prohibited act
D.Punishment for act
Q 113 :
The chief elements of crime are :
A.To act in a particular way otherwise to undergo punishment
B.An act committed or omitted in furtherance of criminal intent
C.An act causing injury to another individual or society
D.All of the above
Q 114 :
Which one of the following is not generally an essential element of crime ?
A.Actus reus
B.Mens rea
C.Motive
D.Human being
Q 115 :
In which one of the following offences 'mens rea' is not an essential element ?
A.Assault
B.Bigamy
C.Defamation
D.None of the above
Q 116 :
In which of the following offences 'Mens rea' is not an essential ingredient ?
A.Murder
B.Theft
C.Robbery
D.Bigamy
Q 117 :
In which of the following offence the "mens rea" is not necessary to make the offender criminally liable ?
A.Culpable Homicide
B.Wrongful Confinement
C.Kidnapping
D.Criminal Conspiracy
Q 118 :
In which of the following cases, doctrine of 'Mens rea' is NOT applicable ?
A.Theft
B.Murder
C.Public nuisance
D.Thug
Q 119 :
The maxim 'ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea' is propounded by :
A.Coke
B.Lord Kenyon
C.Augustine
D.Lord Arbinger
Q 120 :
If actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea is a cardinal principle of criminal law, then which one of the following statements correctly reflects the about principle ?
A.Mens rea is an essential elements of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea
B.Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea
C.To constitute a crime, there must be actus reus and mens rea
D.Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime
Q 121 :
The case of R.V. Prince was decided by -
A.North J.
B.Wright J.
C.Blackburn J.
D.Lord Goddard
Q 122 :
The maxim "actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea" mens
A.crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
B.there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C.crime is the result of guilty mind
D.guilty mind leads to crime
Q 123 :
Which of the following observed that "Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit sea"
is totally irrelevant in Indian Penal Code -
A.J.D. Mynane, Criminal law of India
B.H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India
C.Ratan Lal Dhiraj Lal, Law of Crimes
D.All of the above
Q 124 :
To find mens rea it is necessary that there must exist :
A.The Act was intended
B.There must be resultant consepqnce
C.The Act of causing injury to another
D.The knowledge of existence of facts
Q 125 :
Denotion of mens rea is inferred through :
A.Reason to believe
B.Voluntarily
C.Dishonestly
D.All of the above
Q 126 :
"In every statute mens – rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown". This view was expressed in -
A.Sherras v. De Rutzen
B.R v. Dudley & Stephen
C.Harding v Prince
D.R.v. Prince
Q 127 :
Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
A.R.V. Prince
B.Queen v. Tolson
C.Sherras v. De Rutzen
D.Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
Q 128 :
Which one fot the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
A.Preparation to commit murder
B.Preparation to commit dacoity
C.Preparation to wage war against the State
D.Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Q 129 :
Preparation to commit murder is -
A.punishable
B.not punishable
C.punishable with fine
D.All of the above
Q 130 :
Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following is not a punishable offence ?
A.Making preparation to commit murder
B.Making preparation to commit dacoity
C.Making preparation of waging war against the Government of India
D.Making preparation to commit depredation on territories of power at peace with the Govering of India
Q 131 :
Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable ?
1. Waging war against India
2. Sedition
3. Murder
4. Danoity
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1 and 4
Q 132 :
Preparation consists in devising or arranging means necessary for the commission of the offence. Such attempt is not punishable because.
1. the motive was harmless
2. impossibility to reach wrongful end
3. does not effect the security of any person
4. it remained without culmination
A.Only 1 is correct
B.The most proability is 1 and 2
C.There is quite likelihood of 1 and 3
D.All the reasons 1, 2, 3 and 4 have to be examined
Q 133 :
Which of the following statement is correct
A.Offence is essentially an immoral act
B.Offence is an legal act
C.Offence is necessarily an anti-social act
D.Offence is necessarily an anti-religious act
Q 134 :
Point out the correct state4ment :
A.Crime is necessarily an immoral act
B.Crime is necessarily an anti-social act
C.Crime is necessarily an anto-communal act
D.Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act
Q 135 :
The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on which of the following ?
A.Public policy
B.Failure to supervise
C.Treated as unauthorised
D.Strict liability
Q 136 :
Malum Prohibitum means :
A.Intrinsically wrong
B.Course of law has made it otherwise
C.Innocent but made punishable by statute
D.All of them
Q 137 :
Wantonly means :
A.Things done recklessly
B.Things done malignantly
C.Acts done through mischief
D.All of the above
Q 138 :
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 (Act No. 13 of 2013) came into effect from :
A.January 26, 2013
B.February 1, 2013
C.February 3, 2013
D.March 1, 2013
E.None of the above
Q 139 :
Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 namely
A.Section 376A
B.Section 376B
C.Section 166A, 166B, 354C
D. All of the above
Q 140 :
The criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 comes into force from -
A.11 August, 2018
B.21 April, 2018
C.1 September, 2018
D.1 July, 2018
Q 141 :
Justice J.S. Verma Committee Report of January 23, 2013 has recommended that non-penetrative forms of sexual contract should be regarded as
A.Rape
B.Sexual Assault
C.An offence under Section 354 of Indian Penal Code
D.Defamation
Q 142 :
Indian Penal Code came into force on :
A.6-10-1860
B.10-10-1860
C.1-1-1861
D.1-1-1862
Q 143 :
When did Indian Penal Code 1860 come into force ?
A.1860
B.1861
C.1862
D.1863
Q 144 :
The Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into force on -
A.6th October, 1860
B.6th December, 1860
C.1st Jauary, 1861
D.1st Jauary, 1862
Q 145 :
Section 1 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with -
A.The definition of offence
B.Title and extent of operation of the code
C.Title and jurisdiction
D.None of the above
Q 146 :
To which of the following is Indian Penal Code not applicable ?
A.State of J&K
B.A Foreigner committing offence in India
C.Offence committed on Indian Aircraft flying over territory of Japan
D.A Foreigner committing offence in territorial water of India
Q 147 :
A national of Pakistan fires from other side of the borders and a person within the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indian rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder ?
A.No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
B.Yes
C.He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trail in Pakistan
D.None of the above
Q 148 :
Read the following :
1. Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime committed by an Indian in a foreighn country
2. Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime committed by a foreigner in India
Of the above -
A.1 is true but 2 is false
B.1 is false but 2 is true
C.Both 1 and 2 are true
D.Both 1 and 2 are false
Q 149 :
Which of the following Sections give extra-territorial operation under Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?
A.Section 3 and 4
B.Section 5 and 6
C.Section 7 and 9
D.Section 10 and 11
Q 150 :
A an Indian citizen commits adultery in England, which is not an offence in the country. The alleged offence can be tried by :
A.The court within whose local jurisdiction the adultery was committed
B.The court of Judicial Magistrate first class situated at any place in India at which he may be found
C.International court of Justice
D.The supreme Court of India
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Q 151 :
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
A.Lord Macaulay
B.Sir James F. Stephen
C.Huxley
D.Sir Henery Maine
Q 152 :
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
A.Lord Denning
B.A.V. Dicey
C.Lord Macaulay
D.J. F. Stephen
Q 153 :
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
A.Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B.Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C.The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D.None of the above
Q 154 :
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A.Substantive Law
B.Procedural Law
C.Substantive and Procedural Law
D.None of the above
Q 155 :
Law of evidence is
A.A substantive law
B.an adjective law
C.Both (A) and (B)
D.Neither (A) nor (B)
Q 156 :
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A.Only civil proceedings
B.Only criminal proceedings
C.Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D.None of the above
Q 157 :
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
A.Not correct
B.Correct
C.Partly correct
D.None of the above
Q 158 :
Law of Evidence :
A.Retrospective
B.Effect the fundamental right of person
C.Always have prospective effect
D.Not a procedural law
Q 159 :
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
A.Lex Talionis
B.Lex Fori
C.Lex Loci
D.Lex Situ
Q 160 :
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
A.Law of the Land is Supreme
B.Law of Land
C.Local Laws
D.Law of England
Q 161 :
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into………Parts and ........... Chapters .
A.2, 10
B.3, 11
C.4, 12 3, 12
D.3, 12
Q 162 :
How many Sections and Chapters are there in Indian Evidence Act ?
A.164 Sections and 10 Chapters
B.167 Sections and 10 Chapters
C.167 Sections and 11 Chapters
D.167 Sections and 9 Chapters
Q 163 :
As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
A.to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
B.to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
C.to define and amend the law of evidence
D.to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
Q 164 :
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the of
A.6th October, 1860
B.1st March, 1874
C.15th March, 1872
D.1st September, 1872
Q 165 :
Which one of of the following dates enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct ?
A.15th March, 1872
B.1st September, 1872
C.1st July, 1872
D.1st February, 1872
Q 166 :
Indian evidence act was enforced
A.1 Sep. 1862
B.1 Oct. 1872
C.1 July 1872
D.None of the above
Q 167 :
The Indian Evidence Act applies to -
A.proceedings before tribunals
B.affidavits presented to any court or
C.proceedings before an arbitrator
D.None of the above
Q 168 :
The affidavit given to the Court is
A.not an evidence
B.an evidence
C.merely a written statement
D.a proof
Q 169 :
Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply to
A.Affidavits produced before the court
B.proceedings before the arbitrator
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.On Judicial proceedings before the courtv
Q 170 :
The Indian Evidence Act applies to
A.Affidavits
B.Judicial proceedings
C.Arbitration proceedings
D.All of these
Q 171 :
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A.administrative tribunal's proceedings
B.arbitrator's proceedings
C.contempt's proceedins
D.none of the above
Q 172 :
Which evidence is not admissible ?
A.Evidence on affidavit
B.Oral evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.Expert evidence
Q 173 :
To which of the following does the Evidence Act apply ?
A.Non-judicial proceedingsf
B.Affidavits
C.Judicial proceedings
D.Arbitration proceedings
Q 174 :
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to :-
A.All judicial proceedings in or before any Court
B.affidavits presented to any Court or officer
C.proceedings before an Arbitrator
D.All the above
Q 175 :
The Indian Evidence Act :
A.applies to proceedings before an arbitrator
B.does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C.does not apply to appeals
D.is basically a substantive law
Q 176 :
Indian evidence Act does not apply
A.In Jammu & Kashmir
B.In Jammu-Kashmir and Nagaland
C.Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland, Schedule tribes area
D.At all the above place
Q 177 :
Select the incorrect statements using the code given below :
1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to arbitration proceedings.
2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before a Commissioner appointed by the court for recording evidence.
3. The Indian Evidence Act Act applies to affidavits presented to courts
4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial proceedings held before all kinds of military courts
Codes :
A.2, 3 are incorrect
B.2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
C.1 and 3 are incorrect
D.None of the above is incorrect
Q 178 :
Section-2 of the Indian Evidence Act was repealed by
A.Repealing Act, 1948
B.Repealing Act, 1945
C.Repealing Act, 1938
D.Repealing Act, 1883
Q 179 :
In the Indian Evidence Act, the expression "Court" means
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All persons except Arbitrators, legally authorised to take evidence
D.All the above
Q 180 :
Which of the following is not included in the expression of "court" under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All persons legally authorised to tak evidence
D.Arbitrator
Q 181 :
Which one of the following does not fall within the definition of the term Court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
A.All Judges
B.All Magistrates
C.All Consumer Forums
D.All persons legally authorised to take evidence
Q 182 :
Which of the following does not the definition of the term of 'Court' ?
A.Magistrate
B.Judges
C.Arbitrator
D.Income tax appellate officer
Q 183 :
The term "Court", as defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not include
A.Presiding Officer of a Labour Court
B.Tahsildar
C.Arbitrator
D.Commissioner appointed by a Civil Court
Q 184 :
Which of the following statement is not correct in relation in words and expressions used in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act ?
A.'Fact' includes not only state of things but also mental condition
B.'Court' includes arbitrators
C.An inscription on a stone is a document
D.A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved
Q 185 :
Which one of the following is not judicial proceeding ?
A.Hearing by a judge
B.Hearing by a person who is authorized to take evidence
C.Hearing before an arbitrator
D.Hearing by magistrate
Q 186 :
Which one of the following terms has not been defined by the Indian Evidence Act under Section 3 ?
A.Court
B.Document
C.Evidence
D.Confession
Q 187 :
Fact according to the Evidence Act means and includes
A.An existing thing
B.Only a mental condition of which a person is conscious
C.Only a visible thing
D.Any tangible and visible thing and it includes statements, feelings, opinions and state of mind
Q 188 :
Anything, state of things or relation of things, capable of being perceived by the senses, is
A.an evidence
B.fact
C.facts in issue
D.none of the above
Q 189 :
The word "facts" does not include .
A.That a man feared danger
B.That a man heard gunshots
C.That one man made another man run saw
D.That the deceased has revealed the name of the attacker
Q 190 :
There are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place -
A.Is a fact
B.Is an opinion
C.Is a document
D.Is a motive
Q 191 :
Any mental condition of which only person is conscious
A.is not fact
B.Is fact
C.Is a condition other than fact
D.Is not fact but state of mind
Q 192 :
That a man has a certain routation is a
A.Fact
B.Condition other than fact
C.Not fact
D.An idea which may not be fact
Q 193 :
Which of the following are fact ?
A.Hari said
B.Mohan saw
C.Ram lied
D.All the above
Q 194 :
The witness gave details of the objects in evidence in the court. This one adorned the room .
A.Fact
B.Opinion
C.Document
D.Motive
Q 195 :
A beats B to death, following not relevant
A.His motive to kill B
B.His intention to kill B
C.His kinship with B
D.Intrude which hit B
Q 196 :
Electronic records are :
A.Oral evidence
B.No evidence
C.Documentary evidence
D.None of these
Q 197 :
Which one of the following is a 'fact'
A.Sohan saw a cow
B.Mohan said Sohan to go
C.Sheetel has a high reputation
D.All of these
Q 198 :
Which of the following statement is not correct ?
A.That a man heard or saw something, is a fact
B.That a man said certain words is a fact
C.That a man has certain reputation, is not a fact
D.That a man holds a certain opinion is a fact
Q 199 :
Which of the following is a fact ?
A.That there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place
B.That a man heard or saw something
C.That a man said certain words
D.All of the above
Q 200 :
Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact
A.must be logically relevant
B.must be legally relevant
C.must be legally and logically relevant
D.must be legally and logically relevant and admissible
