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Latest Telangana Police SI Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Arithmetic Ability & Reasoning, General Studies
Question Bank Telangana Police SI (Prelims) Exam - English
Arithmetic Ability & Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 22 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 24 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 25 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 28 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 30 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 33 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 34 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.X
C.A
D.E
E.K
Q 38 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 41 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 42 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 43 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 44 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 45 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 46 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 47 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 48 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 49 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 50 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
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Arithmetic Ability & Reasoning
Q 51 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 52 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 53 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 54 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 55 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 56 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 57 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 58 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 59 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 60 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 61 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 62 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 63 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 64 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 65 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 66 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 67 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 68 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 69 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 70 :
Which of the following is composite ?
A.
17
B.19
C.21
D.23
Q 71 :
What is √0.0009 ?
A.0.003
B.0.03
C.0.3
D.0.09
Q 72 :
What is √1156 ?
A.32
B.34
C.36
D.38
Q 73 :
What is √2025 ?
A.35
B.40
C.45
D.50
Q 74 :
What is (51^2) ?
A.2601
B.2501
C.2551
D.2651
Q 75 :
7 8 18 57 ?
A.244
B.174
C.186
D.none of these
Q 76 :
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A.25 years
B.27 years
C.26 years
D.24 years
Q 77 :
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A.2
B.-1
C.1
D.-2
Q 78 :
How many factors does 100 have ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 79 :
A.​
E.None of these
Q 80 :
​
A.18
B.13
C.15
D.11
E.None of these
Q 81 :
​
E.None of these
Q 82 :
​
A.4875
B.4857
C.4785
D.4877
E.None of these
Q 83 :
​
A.1512
B.1521
C.1251
D.1531
E.None of these
Q 84 :
6389 – 1212 – 2828 = ?
A.2349
B.2493
C.2934
D.2394
E.None of these
Q 85 :
A.​
E.None of these
Q 86 :
526 x 12 + 188 = 50 x ?
A.120
B.160
C.140
D.110
E.None of these
Q 87 :
622 – 322 + (?)2 = 3144
A.17
B.16
C.19
D.15
E.None of these
Q 88 :
​
A.58
B.61
C.63
D.51
E.None of these
Q 89 :
38 % of 4500 – 25 % of ? = 1640
A.260
B.270
C.280
D.290
E.None of these
Q 90 :
What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?
A.9
B.11
C.10
D.12
Q 91 :
What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?
A.F
B.E
C.G
D.H
Q 92 :
What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
A.20
B.36
C.30
D.25
Q 93 :
What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
A.13
B.15
C.14
D.16
Q 94 :
What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?
A.M
B.J
C.S
D.O
Q 95 :
What comes next: 5, 10, 15, 20, ?
A.25
B.30
C.35
D.40
Q 96 :
What is the missing letter: A, C, E, G, ?
A.H
B.J
C.I
D.K
Q 97 :
What follows: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?
A.81
B.100
C.125
D.144
Q 98 :
What is next in the series: 10, 20, 30, 40, ?
A.45
B.55
C.50
D.60
Q 99 :
What comes after: Z, Y, X, W, ?
A.S
B.U
C.T
D.V
Q 100 :
What is the next number: 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A.36
B.32
C.49
D.64
General Studies
Q 101 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 102 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 103 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 104 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 105 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 106 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 107 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 108 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 109 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 110 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 111 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 112 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 113 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 114 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 115 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 116 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 117 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 118 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 119 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 120 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 121 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 122 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 123 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 124 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 125 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 126 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 127 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 128 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 129 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 130 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 131 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 132 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 133 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 134 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 135 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 136 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 137 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 138 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 139 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 140 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 141 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 142 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 143 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 144 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 145 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 146 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 147 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 148 :
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A.Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B.Nizamuddin Awliya
C.muinuddin Chishti
D.Naseeruddin Mahmud
Q 149 :
Education has given consciousness.
A.Devotion of
B.Knowledge of
C.recidivism of
D.Sufi Don't of
Q 150 :
The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.
A.Thyagaraja
B.Tansen
C.Rahim Sen
D.Purandar Slave
Q 151 :
What was the real name of Gautam Buddha?
A.Siddhartha
B.Narendra
C.Devdutt
D.Vishal Dutt
Q 152 :
What was the real name of the famous Urdu poet Mirza Ghalib?
A.Mushtaq Ali
B.Asadullah Khan
C.Saifullah Khan
D.Yusuf Khan
Q 153 :
Path of action Mother Faleshu misfortune,What Religion Granthas of quote Is
A.Shrimad Bhagwat Geeta
B.Ramcharitmanas
C.Ramayana
D.Jayadratha Kill
Q 154 :
Whose disciple was Saint Kabir?
A.Ramanujacharya
B.Vallabhacharya
C.Narharidas
D.Ramanand
Q 155 :
What is the birthplace of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth and last Sikh Guru?
A.Nanded
B.Talbandi
C.Amritsar
D.Patna Sahib
Q 156 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 157 :
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A.water polo
B.Rugby
C.Polo
D.baseball
Q 158 :
What is considered the national game of India ?
A.Field hockey
B.cricket
C.Chess
D.Kabaddi
Q 159 :
The national game of Türkiye is….
A.horse racing
B.wrestling
C.Handball
D.basketball
Q 160 :
The national game of Scotland is -
A.Ice hockey
B.Rugby football
C.football
D.baseball
Q 161 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 162 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 163 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 164 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 165 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 166 :
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 167 :
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 168 :
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Germany
D.Canada
Q 169 :
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.52nd Amendment
D.62nd Amendment
Q 170 :
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A.The Constitution of Canada
B.The Constitution of Ireland
C.The Constitution of Australia
D.The Constitution of USA
Q 171 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 172 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 173 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 174 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 175 :
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A.Ganges
B.Kosi
C.Son
D.Gandak
Q 176 :
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
A.Aravallis
B.Vindhyas
C.Eastern Ghats
D.Himalayas
Q 177 :
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
A.Himalayas and Western Ghats
B.Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
C.Vindhyas and Satpuras
D.Aravallis and Satpuras
Q 178 :
Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
A.Gujarat
B.Maharashtra
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Andhra Pradesh
Q 179 :
Which is the only active volcano in India?
A.Deccan Traps
B.Barren Island
C.Narcondam Island
D.Lakshadweep
Q 180 :
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
A.5
B.7
C.8
D.10
Q 181 :
The Western Coastal Plains of India are divided into which three sections?
A.Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel
B.Konkan, Kannad, Malabar
C.Malabar, Coromandel, Northern Circar
D.Konkan, Northern Circar, Malabar
Q 182 :
In which state is the Thar Desert located?
A.Gujarat
B.Rajasthan
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Punjab
Q 183 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 184 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 185 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 186 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 187 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 188 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?
A.RTGS
B.NEFT
C.UPI Lite
D.IMPS
Q 189 :
Which ministry implements the PM-KISAN Scheme?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Rural Development
C.Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q 190 :
Exercise Tarang Shakti is associated with which arm of the Indian Armed Forces?
A.Indian Army
B.Indian Navy
C.Indian Coast Guard
D.Indian Air Force
Q 191 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 javelin final, the gold medal was won by an athlete from:
A.Sri Lanka
B.Australia
C.India
D.England
Q 192 :
Which institution publishes the Global Innovation Index?
A.World Bank
B.IMF
C.WIPO
D.WTO
Q 193 :
India’s retail inflation is primarily measured using which index?
A.CPI
B.WPI
C.GDP Deflator
D.IIP
Q 194 :
Which body decides the Repo Rate in India?
A.Finance Ministry
B.SEBI
C.RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
D.NITI Aayog
Q 195 :
The second indigenous Diving Support Vessel ‘Nipun’ was delivered at which location?
A.Mumbai
B.Kochi
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kolkata
Q 196 :
Approximate indigenous content in DSV Nipun is:
A.50%
B.60%
C.Over 80%
D.100%
Q 197 :
The Public Examinations Amendment Bill 2026 increases the maximum imprisonment for individuals involved in paper leaks to:
A.3 years
B.5 years
C.10 years
D.7 years
Q 198 :
Who among the following was appointed as the new Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND) recently?
A.Satya Pal Kumar
B.Pankaj Kumar Mishra
C.Anurag Jain
D.Raj Kumar Goyal
Q 199 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 men’s javelin final, who won the bronze medal for India?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 200 :
Which of the following is correct regarding India’s retail inflation measurement?
5.015 =?
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