Question for Telangana PSC VRA 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest Telangana PSC VRA Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies, Arithmetic Skills, Logical Skills

Question Bank Telangana PSC VRA Exam - English

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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer

The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to

A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement

Question 2Single Answer

'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of

A
Adolescent girls
B
physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections

Question 3Single Answer

What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?

A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka

Question 4Single Answer

"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of

A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District

Question 5Single Answer

Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is

A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank

Question 6Single Answer

Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?

A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnis

Question 7Single Answer

Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?

A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao

Question 8Single Answer

Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?

A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee

Question 9Single Answer

Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?

A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy

Question 10Single Answer

Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?

A
Ain-Ul-Mulk
B
Shah-Bandhar
C
Dabir
D
Kotwal

Question 11Single Answer

For the maintenace of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?

A
Aurangabad
B
Warangal
C
Mahaboobnagar
D
Berar

Question 12Single Answer

Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad?

A
Salarjung - I
B
Salarjung - II
C
Salarjung - III
D
Osman Ali Khan

Question 13Single Answer

Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) In Telangana State?

A
Nalgonda
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam

Question 14Single Answer

Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?

A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Adilabad
D
Warangal

Question 15Single Answer

Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census

A
227 persons per sq. Km.
B
307 persons per sq. Km.
C
325 persons per sq. Km.
D
350 persons per sq. Km.

Question 16Single Answer

Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?

A
Nalgonda
B
Nizamabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Warangal

Question 17Single Answer

Second largest district in Telangana State, area - wise is

A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Khammam

Question 18Single Answer

Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Cesus is

A
Adilabad
B
Nalgonda
C
Mahaboobnagar.
D
Medak

Question 19Single Answer

Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of

A
Khammam
B
Karimnagar
C
Nizamabad
D
Warangal

Question 20Single Answer

'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?

A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Warangal
D
Adilabad

Question 21Single Answer

The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is

A
Ellanna
B
Mallanna
C
Rajanna
D
Beeranna

Question 22Single Answer

Name the Village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .

A
Bellampalli .
B
Bhupalpalli
C
Yellandu
D
Ramagundam

Question 23Single Answer

Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?

A
Sharad Pawar
B
Mir Osman Ali Khan
C
Azam Khan
D
N.T. Rama Rao

Question 24Single Answer

How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?

A
6.
B
7
C
8
D
9.

Question 25Single Answer

Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?

A
Nizamabad
B
Hanmakonda
C
Medak
D
Karimnagar

Question 26Single Answer

The Dandora Movement was launched for the purpose of

A
Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes
B
Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes
C
Sub-classification of the most Backward classes
D
Abolition of Caste based reservation

Question 27Single Answer

Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?

A
Warangal
B
Khammam
C
Nalgonda
D
Nizamabad.

Question 28Single Answer

Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?

A
Karimnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Khammam
D
Medak

Question 29Single Answer

In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?

A
Karimnagar
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam

Question 30Single Answer

The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate

A
The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed stuggle.
B
The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement.
C
The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt.
D
The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement.

Question 31Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 32Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 33Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 34Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 35Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 36Single Answer

In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across

A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter

Question 37Single Answer

Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules

A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only

Question 38Single Answer

Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.

A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only

Question 39Single Answer

Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have

A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss

Question 40Single Answer

According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is

A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium

Question 41Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 42Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 43Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 44Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 45Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

Question 46Single Answer

In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl₂. This is

A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road

Question 47Single Answer

A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is

A
AB₂
B
A₂B
C
AB
D
AB₃

Question 48Single Answer

In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position

Question 49Single Answer

The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with

A
PCI₅
B
PCI₃
C
SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 50Single Answer

The carbon bond length in benzene is

A
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₄
B
same as in C₂H₄
C
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₂
D
in between C₂H₄ and C₂H₂

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General Studies

Question 51Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 52Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 53Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 54Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 55Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

Question 56Single Answer

Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A

Question 57Single Answer

What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.

A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C

Question 58Single Answer

Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B

Question 59Single Answer

Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects

A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition

Question 60Single Answer

Stoma opens, when

A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential

Arithmetic Skills

Question 61Single Answer

A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .

A
2 hours
B
3 hours
C
4 hours
D
5 hours

Question 62Single Answer

Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?

A
69
B
96
C
78
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these

Question 63Single Answer

The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?

A
12
B
13
C
14
D
10
E
None of these

Question 64Single Answer

Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?

A
Rs. 123000
B
Rs. 112500
C
Rs. 138500
D
Rs. 132500

Question 65Single Answer

Which is the largest of the following fractions ?

Question 66Single Answer

The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?

A
42
B
38
C
32
D
72
E
None of these

Question 67Single Answer

Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?

A
18
B
16
C
19
D
17
E
None of these

Question 68Single Answer

The difference between

th of

th of a number and

th of the same number is 9. What in the number.

A
45
B
35
C
40
D
30
E
None of these

Question 69Single Answer

is subtracted from

and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?

A
2024
B
2104
C
2004
D
2014
E
None of these

Question 70Single Answer

‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?

A
38
B
42
C
44
D
34
E
None of these

Question 71Single Answer

The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?

A
20
B
22
C
21
D
23
E
None of these

Question 72Single Answer

If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .

A
50
B
75
C
57
D
60
E
None of these

Question 73Single Answer

IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?

A
52
B
54
C
56
D
48
E
None of these

Question 74Single Answer

If the following fractions

are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?

Question 75Single Answer

What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?

A
118
B
95
C
110
D
100
E
None of these

Question 76Single Answer

What is 234 time 167 ?

A
48768
B
41184
C
40581
D
39078
E
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?

A
62
B
71
C
66
D
65
E
None of these

Question 78Single Answer

If the fractions

are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?

Question 79Single Answer

What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?

A
47
B
38
C
28
D
25
E
None of these

Question 80Single Answer

What is 147 times 329 ?

A
48069
B
48363
C
49021
D
48723
E
None of these

Question 81Single Answer

The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?

A
6708
B
6880
C
6552
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these

Question 82Single Answer

The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?

A
83
B
79
C
81
D
77
E
None of these

Question 83Single Answer

If the fractions

are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?

A
B
C
D
E
None of these

Question 84Single Answer

What is 394 times 113 ?

A
44402
B
44632
C
44802
D
44522
E
None of these

Question 85Single Answer

What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?

A
131
B
221
C
77
D
98
E
None of these

Question 86Single Answer

What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?

A
234
B
47
C
128
D
36
E
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

What is 846 times 323 ?

A
280872
B
276488
C
273258
D
272412
E
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 15 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number is 3 . What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?

A
72
B
56
C
54
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these

Question 89Single Answer

If the fractions

are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?

A
B
C
D
E
None of these

Question 90Single Answer

The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of the next two consecutive odd numbers ?

A
4899
B
4891
C
5037
D
5183
E
None of these

Logical Skills

Question 91Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 92Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 93Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 94Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 95Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 96Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 97Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 98Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 99Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 100Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

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Latest Telangana PSC VRA Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

General Studies

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