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Latest TGPSC Assistant Scientist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies and General Abilities
Question Bank TGPSC Assistant Scientist Paper 1 Exam - English
General Studies and General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 22 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 23 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 24 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 25 :
Three resistors 1 Γ’βΒ¦, 2 Γ’βΒ¦, 3Γ’βΒ¦ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Γ’βΒ¦ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 26 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 27 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 28 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 29 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 30 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 31 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2Γ°ΒΕβΉ + 1)λ
B.2nΓ°ΒΕβΉ
C.nλ
D.n
Q 32 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 33 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 34 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 35 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 36 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 37 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 38 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 39 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 40 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
Q 41 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 42 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 43 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 44 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 45 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 46 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 47 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 48 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 49 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 50 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
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TGPSC Assistant Scientist Paper 1 Exam Question Bank Book - English
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 52 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 53 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 54 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 55 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 56 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 57 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 58 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 59 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 60 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 61 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 62 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 63 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 64 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 65 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 66 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 67 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 68 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 69 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 70 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 71 :
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Q 72 :
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A.medulla oblongata
B.pons
C.cerebellum
D.hypothalamus
Q 73 :
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A.protein particles
B.a class of bacteria
C.a class of viruses
D.fungi
Q 74 :
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A.grafting
B.hybridization
C.embryo culture
D.shoot apex culture
Q 75 :
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A.cyanosis
B.bronchitis
C.rhinitis
D.bronchial carcinoma
Q 76 :
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A.C → A → D → B → E
B.A → C → E → D → B
C.A → D → C → E → B
D.B → A → C → D → E
Q 77 :
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A.Amoeba, sponge, leech
B.Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C.Earthworm, sponge, leech
D.Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Q 78 :
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Edward jenner
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Flemming
Q 79 :
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A.120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B.120 mm. Hg
C.80 mm. Hg
D.128/80 mm. Hg
Q 80 :
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A.Allium cepa
B.Drosophila
C.Humans
D.grasshoppers
Q 81 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 82 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 83 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 84 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 85 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 86 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 87 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 88 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 89 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 90 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 91 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 92 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 93 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 94 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 95 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 96 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 97 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 98 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 99 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 100 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 101 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 102 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 103 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 104 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 105 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 106 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 107 :
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnisa
Q 108 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 109 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 110 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 111 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 112 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 113 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 114 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 115 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 116 :
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A.Original jurisdiction only
B.Appellate jurisdiction only
C.Advisory jurisdiction only
D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Q 117 :
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A.14 and 7
B.11 and 7
C.15 and 9
D.None of the above
Q 118 :
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A.Government of India Act, 1919
B.Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.None of the above
Q 119 :
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A.3 June, 1947
B.4 July, 1947
C.15 July, 1947
D.18 July, 1947
Q 120 :
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
A.Simon Commission
B.Cripps Mission
C.Cabinet Mission Plan
D.The Mountbatten plan
Q 121 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 122 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 123 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 124 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 125 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 126 :
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 127 :
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 128 :
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Germany
D.Canada
Q 129 :
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.52nd Amendment
D.62nd Amendment
Q 130 :
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A.The Constitution of Canada
B.The Constitution of Ireland
C.The Constitution of Australia
D.The Constitution of USA
Q 131 :
Who was the first European power to arrive in India?
A.The Dutch
B.The French
C.The English
D.The Portuguese
Q 132 :
Vasco da Gama reached India in which year?
A.1498
B.1492
C.1500
D.1510
Q 133 :
Which city did Vasco da Gama first land in India?
A.Goa
B.Cochin
C.Calicut
D.Surat
Q 134 :
Which European power established trading posts in Malabar before others?
A.Dutch
B.Portuguese
C.French
D.English
Q 135 :
Which European power controlled Ceylon and Malacca during early 17th century?
A.Dutch
B.Portuguese
C.English
D.French
Q 136 :
The Dutch East India Company in India was called?
A.VOC
B.EIC
C.DIC
D.NIC
Q 137 :
Which European power was known for dominating spice trade in India during the 17th century?
A.English
B.Dutch
C.French
D.Portuguese
Q 138 :
Which European power first settled in Surat, India?
A.Portuguese
B.English
C.Dutch
D.French
Q 139 :
Who founded the English East India Company?
A.King Charles I
B.King James I
C.Queen Elizabeth I
D.Queen Victoria
Q 140 :
In which year was the English East India Company established?
A.1599
B.1605
C.1601
D.1600
Q 141 :
The death toll from devastating flash floods in Nepal (as of early September 2026) crossed approximately which figure?
A.500
B.800
C.1,000β1,250
D.2,000
Q 142 :
Which platform was launched by MoS Jitendra Singh to boost private investment in biotechnology startups?
A.Startup India
B.Atal Innovation
C.BIO-NIVESH
D.Make in India Bio
Q 143 :
GeM signed an MoU with the Textiles Committee to promote procurement of:
A.Only virgin cotton products
B.Imported luxury fabrics
C.Recycled and upcycled textile products
D.Military uniforms exclusively
Q 144 :
From which launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre was GSLV-F17/EOS-05 launched?
A.First Launch Pad
B.Second Launch Pad
C.Third Launch Pad
D.Mobile Launch Pad
Q 145 :
Which Indian badminton pair reached the semifinals of the 2026 China Masters after a hard-fought quarterfinal win?
A.Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand
B.Lakshya Sen and Kidambi Srikanth
C.Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty
D.HS Prannoy and Sameer Verma
Q 146 :
Two workers were rescued alive after how many days trapped in a tunnel at the Trishuli hydropower project in Nepal?
A.9 days
B.5 days
C.3 days
D.15 days
Q 147 :
According to the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), how many Indian nationals remained missing in the Nepal floods (as of early September reports)?
A.About 50
B.275
C.About 100
D.Over 1,000
Q 148 :
Indiaβs response to Nepalβs call for climate compensation after the floods emphasized that climate change is a:
A.βCommon challengeβ with historically high emitters needing to lead
B.Purely bilateral issue between India and Nepal
C.Sole responsibility of developed nations only
D.Matter for the UN Security Council
Q 149 :
Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni achieved which milestone around 4 September 2026?
A.First woman PM of Italy
B.Longest continuously serving postwar Prime Minister of Italy
C.Resignation after election loss
D.Appointment as EU Commission President
Q 150 :
The National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) received regulatory approval for an IPO of approximately what size (potential largest so far)?
