Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 7Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 8Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 9Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 10Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 11Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 12Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 13Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 14Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 15Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 16Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 18Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 19Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 20Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 21Single Answer
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement
Question 22Single Answer
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A
Adolescent girls
B
physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections
Question 23Single Answer
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka
Question 24Single Answer
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District
Question 25Single Answer
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank
Question 26Single Answer
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnis
Question 27Single Answer
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Question 29Single Answer
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Question 30Single Answer
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A
Ain-Ul-Mulk
B
Shah-Bandhar
C
Dabir
D
Kotwal
Question 31Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 32Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 33Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 34Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 35Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 36Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 37Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 38Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 39Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 40Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Important Questions Package
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹141[₹500]
3.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹171[₹500]
4.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 2 - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
6.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 2 - English
Description : 2200 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
7.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
8.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 2 - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
9.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 1 Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
10.
TGPSC Deputy Educational Officer / Head Master Exam Paper 2 Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
General Studies & General Abilities
Question 51Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 53Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 54Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 57Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 58Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 59Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 60Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 71Single Answer
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 72Single Answer
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Question 73Single Answer
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 74Single Answer
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 75Single Answer
The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
A
Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B
Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C
Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D
None of the above
Question 76Single Answer
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Question 77Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 78Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 79Single Answer
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
A
Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B
Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C
Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D
Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Question 80Single Answer
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
A
Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B
Religious intolerance in the countryside
C
August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D
State of untouchables in the country
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
Question 101Single Answer
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A
a Co-operative Bank
B
a Government Scheduled Bank
C
a Housing Bank
D
an Investment Bank
Question 102Single Answer
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement
Question 103Single Answer
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A
Adolescent girls
B
Physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections
Question 104Single Answer
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka
Question 105Single Answer
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District
Question 106Single Answer
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank
Question 107Single Answer
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnisa
Question 108Single Answer
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Question 110Single Answer
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Question 111Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 112Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 113Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 114Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 115Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 116Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 118Single Answer
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A
Kuchipudi
B
Odissi
C
Bharatnatyam
D
Kathak
Question 119Single Answer
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A
Agra
B
Benaras
C
Kirana
D
Gwalior
Question 120Single Answer
Which state gives the annual award Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra ?
A
Karnataka
B
Odisha
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Manipur
Question 121Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 122Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 123Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 124Single Answer
Education has given consciousness.
A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of
Question 125Single Answer
The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.
A
Thyagaraja
B
Tansen
C
Rahim Sen
D
Purandar Slave
Question 126Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 127Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 128Single Answer
What is considered the national game of India ?
A
Field hockey
B
cricket
C
Chess
D
Kabaddi
Question 129Single Answer
The national game of Türkiye is….
A
horse racing
B
wrestling
C
Handball
D
basketball
Question 130Single Answer
The national game of Scotland is -
A
Ice hockey
B
Rugby football
C
football
D
baseball
Question 131Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 132Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 133Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 134Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 135Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 137Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 138Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 139Single Answer
The process of soil formation is called :
A
Erosion
B
Weathering
C
Deposition
D
Lithification
Question 140Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 141Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 142Single Answer
In a centrally planned economy, what is the primary mechanism for resource allocation?
A
Market prices
B
Government directives
C
Consumer preferences
D
Private enterprise
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following is a key disadvantage of a traditional economic system compared to a mixed economy?
A
High economic growth potential
B
Resistance to technological innovation
C
Flexible resource allocation
D
Strong government intervention
Question 144Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Telangana region during the early centuries of the Common Era and is known for its contributions to trade and Buddhism?
A
Satavahanas
B
Kakatiyas
C
Qutb Shahis
D
Asaf Jahis
Question 145Single Answer
The capital city of the Satavahana dynasty was mostly located in which present-day Telangana region?
A
Golconda
B
Warangal
C
Hyderabad
D
Paithan / Pratishthan
Question 146Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A
Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B
Purchase of Rafale jets
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D
Signing of a nuclear agreement
Question 147Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A
GSAT-31
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
INSAT-4CR
D
GSAT-32
Question 148Single Answer
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A
A new defence missile system
B
Green hydrogen mission
C
AI Tutoring initiative
D
Digital payment platform
Question 149Single Answer
Disaster management is best defined as?
A
Only response after disaster
B
Relief distribution only
C
Systematic process of planning, organizing and managing disasters
