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Latest TGPSC Senior Lecturer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & General Abilities
Question Bank TGPSC Senior Lecturer Exam Paper 1 - English
General Studies & General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 7 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 8 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 9 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 10 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 11 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 12 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 13 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 14 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 15 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 16 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 17 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 18 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 19 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 20 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 21 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 22 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 23 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 24 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 25 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 26 :
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnis
Q 27 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 28 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 29 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 30 :
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-Ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 31 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 32 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 33 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 34 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 35 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 36 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 37 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 38 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 39 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 40 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 41 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 42 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 43 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 44 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 45 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 46 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 47 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 48 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 49 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 50 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
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TGPSC Senior Lecturer Exam Paper 1 Question Bank Book - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 62 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 63 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 64 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 65 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 66 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 68 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 69 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 70 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 71 :
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 72 :
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A.Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B.Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C.Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D.Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Q 73 :
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both
D.None
Q 74 :
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 75 :
​The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
A.Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B.Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C.Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D.None of the above
Q 76 :
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A.Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B.Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C.Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D.Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Q 77 :
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A.I only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.None
Q 78 :
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 79 :
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
A.Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B.Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C.Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D.Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Q 80 :
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
A.Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B.Religious intolerance in the countryside
C.August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D.State of untouchables in the country
Q 81 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 82 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 83 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 84 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 85 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 86 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 87 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 88 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 89 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 90 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 91 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 92 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 93 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 94 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 95 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 96 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 97 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 98 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 99 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 100 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Q 101 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 102 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 103 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 104 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 105 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 106 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 107 :
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnisa
Q 108 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 109 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 110 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 111 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 112 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 113 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 114 :
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 115 :
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A.Privy Council
B.Supreme Court
C.High Court
D.Federal Court
Q 116 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 117 :
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A.Only Statement II is true
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D.Only Statement I is true
Q 118 :
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A.Kuchipudi
B.Odissi
C.Bharatnatyam
D.Kathak
Q 119 :
As an exponent of Khayal, Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belonged to which music Gharana ?
A.Agra
B.Benaras
C.Kirana
D.Gwalior
Q 120 :
Which state gives the annual award Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra ?
A.Karnataka
B.Odisha
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Manipur
Q 121 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 122 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 123 :
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A.Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B.Nizamuddin Awliya
C.muinuddin Chishti
D.Naseeruddin Mahmud
Q 124 :
Education has given consciousness.
A.Devotion of
B.Knowledge of
C.recidivism of
D.Sufi Don't of
Q 125 :
The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.
A.Thyagaraja
B.Tansen
C.Rahim Sen
D.Purandar Slave
Q 126 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 127 :
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A.water polo
B.Rugby
C.Polo
D.baseball
Q 128 :
What is considered the national game of India ?
A.Field hockey
B.cricket
C.Chess
D.Kabaddi
Q 129 :
The national game of Türkiye is….
A.horse racing
B.wrestling
C.Handball
D.basketball
Q 130 :
The national game of Scotland is -
A.Ice hockey
B.Rugby football
C.football
D.baseball
Q 131 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 132 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 133 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 134 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 135 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 136 :
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A.Metaphysics
B.Aesthetics
C.Normative ethics
D.Epistemology
Q 137 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 138 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 139 :
The process of soil formation is called :
A.Erosion
B.Weathering
C.Deposition
D.Lithification
Q 140 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 141 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 142 :
In a centrally planned economy, what is the primary mechanism for resource allocation?
A.Market prices
B.Government directives
C.Consumer preferences
D.Private enterprise
Q 143 :
Which of the following is a key disadvantage of a traditional economic system compared to a mixed economy?
A.High economic growth potential
B.Resistance to technological innovation
C.Flexible resource allocation
D.Strong government intervention
Q 144 :
Which dynasty ruled the Telangana region during the early centuries of the Common Era and is known for its contributions to trade and Buddhism?
A.Satavahanas
B.Kakatiyas
C.Qutb Shahis
D.Asaf Jahis
Q 145 :
The capital city of the Satavahana dynasty was mostly located in which present-day Telangana region?
A.Golconda
B.Warangal
C.Hyderabad
D.Paithan / Pratishthan
Q 146 :
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B.Purchase of Rafale jets
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
Q 147 :
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A.GSAT-31
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.INSAT-4CR
D.GSAT-32
Q 148 :
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A.A new defence missile system
B.Green hydrogen mission
C.AI Tutoring initiative
D.Digital payment platform
Q 149 :
Disaster management is best defined as?
A.Only response after disaster
B.Relief distribution only
C.Systematic process of planning, organizing and managing disasters
