A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
A
Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
B
Only one path for holes in the conduction band
C
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively
D
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
A
Monostablemultivibrator
B
Bistablemultivibrator
C
Schmitt trigger circuit
D
Darlington complementary pair
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?
A
Capacitors
B
Inductors
C
Transistors
D
Resistance
Question 4Single Answer
Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
A
71 dB
B
82 dB
C
91 dB
D
102 dB
Question 6Single Answer
A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 7Single Answer
If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly
A
50%
B
67%
C
100%
D
125%
Question 8Single Answer
When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is
A
AM
B
PM
C
FM
D
Delta Modulation
Question 9Single Answer
The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
A
Up converter
B
Down converter
C
Phase detector
D
Frequency multiplier
Question 10Single Answer
In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?
A
0.6 kHz
B
3.6 kHz
C
12.4 kHz
D
14.4 kHz
Question 11Single Answer
In an IGBT cell the collector and emitter are respectively
A
n and p
B
n+ and p+
C
p and n
D
p+ and n+
Question 12Single Answer
The main units in a pulse code modulator are:
1. Sampler
2. Quantiser
3. Encoder
4. Comparator
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 13Single Answer
NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’ gates primarily because
A
They are available everywhere
B
They are widely used in I.C. packages
C
They can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate
D
They can be manufactured easily
Question 14Single Answer
To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate?
A
A high amplitude (but low energy) negative current
B
A low amplitude negative current
C
A high amplitude negative voltage
D
A low amplitude negative voltage
Question 15Single Answer
In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz and 100 W at 60 Hz, under the condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will be
A
64 W
B
73 W
C
82 W
D
91 W
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:
1. Better utilization of core as a number of evenly placed small slots are used
2. Improved waveform as harmonic emf’s are reduced
3. Diminished armature reaction and efficient cooling
Which of the above advantages are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 17Single Answer
The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine having 36 stator slots is
A
0.47
B
0.53
C
0.67
D
0.73
Question 18Single Answer
Consider the following factors for a dc machine:
1. Interpole
2. Armature resistance
3. Reduction in field current
Which of the above factors are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt generator?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 19Single Answer
A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operating condition. From this operating condition, a 10% reduction in field flux and 50% increase in armature current is made. What will be new value of electromagnetic torque?
A
225 N-m
B
202.5 N-m
C
22.5 N-m
D
20.25 N-m
Question 20Single Answer
If the capacitor of a capacitor-start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor picks up speed,
A
The motor will stop
B
The auxiliary winding will be damaged
C
The capacitor will be damaged
D
The winding will be damaged
Question 21Single Answer
If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is
A
At least 15
B
At most 15
C
Always 15
D
Exactly 100
Question 22Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 23Single Answer
Soft magnetic materials should have
A
Large saturation magnetization and large permeability
B
Low saturation magnetization and large permeability
C
Large saturation magnetization and low permeability
D
Low saturation magnetization and low permeability
Question 24Single Answer
Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of
A
0.1 Bohr magneton
B
1.0 Bohr magneton
C
10 Bohr magneton
D
100 Bohr magneton
Question 25Single Answer
When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a
A
Diamagnetic material
B
Ferrimagnetic material
C
Paramagnetic material
D
Antiferromagnetic material
Question 26Single Answer
What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
2, 5, 1, 3 and 4
B
4, 5, 3, 1 and 2
C
2, 3, 1, 5 and 4
D
4, 5, 1, 3 and 2
Question 27Single Answer
In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be
A
Series capacitor
B
Series inductor
C
Shunt capacitor
D
Shunt inductor
Question 28Single Answer
The total magnetic moment
1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 29Single Answer
Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 30Single Answer
Superconductivity is a material property associated with
A
Changing shape by stretching
B
Stretching without breaking
C
A loss of thermal resistance
D
A loss of electrical resistance
Question 31Single Answer
An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency, determined by
1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour atoms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Nano means 10–9 so that nano materials have an order of dimension higher than the size of atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, spheres or even thin sheets/films
2. Nano materials have enhanced of changed structural property
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical processing like rolling, twisting, positioning
4. Nano elements show important electrical, magnetic and optical characteristics that are useful in electrical industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 33Single Answer
For a two-part reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are A = 4, B = 7 and C = 5. What is the value of D?
A
9.5
B
9.0
C
8.5
D
8.0
Question 34Single Answer
Consider the following as representations of reciprocity in terms of z-parameters:
1. z11 = z12 2. z12 = z22
3. z12 = z21
Which of the above representations is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to
1. Closed loops in a circuit
2. Junction in a circuit
3. Magnetic circuits
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following are satisfied in a non-linear network?
1. Associative 2. Superposition
3. Homogeneity 4. Bilaterality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 37Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Network theorems are not derivable from Kirchhoff’s law
2. To get the Norton current, one has to short the current source
3. Thevenin’s theorem is suitable for a circuit involving voltage sources and series connections
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 38Single Answer
What is the octal equivalent of (5621.125)10?
A
11774.010
B
12765.100
C
16572.100
D
17652.010
Question 39Single Answer
What is the hexadecimal representation of (657)8?
A
1 AF
B
D 78
C
D 71
D
32 F
Question 40Single Answer
In potential transformers, the secondary turns are increased slightly and the primary and secondary windings are wound as closely as possible to compensate for
A
Phase angle and ratio error, respectively
B
Ratio and phase angle error, respectively
C
Any eddy current loss and hysteresis loss, respectively
D
The hysteresis loss and eddy current loss, respectively
Question 41Single Answer
Which one of the following methods is used for the measurement of high resistances?
A
Carey-Foster bridge method
B
Substitution method
C
Loss of charge method
D
Potentiometer method
Question 42Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to induction type wattmeter:
1. Can be used on both ac and dc systems.
2. Power consumption is relatively low.
3. It is accurate only at stated frequency and temperature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 43Single Answer
A computer system has a cache with a cache access time TC = 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80% and an average memory access time TM = 20 ns. What is the access time for physical memory TP?
A
90 ns
B
80 ns
C
60 ns
D
20 ns
Question 44Single Answer
The minimum number of arithmetic operations required to evaluate the polynomial P(X) = X5+ 8X3+ X for a given value of X using only one temporary variable is
A
8
B
7
C
6
D
5
Question 45Single Answer
A freewheeling diode in phase-controlled rectifiers
A
enables inverter operation
B
is responsible for additional reactive power
C
improves the line power factor
D
is responsible for additional harmonics
Question 46Single Answer
What is the analog output for a 4-bit R-2R ladder DAC when input is (1000)2, for Vref = 5V?
A
2.3333 V
B
2.4444 V
C
2.5556 V
D
2.6667 V
Question 47Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
LTI system is causal
B
If and only if its impulse response is nonzero for positive values of n.
C
If its impulse response is zero for negative values of n.
D
If its impulse response is zero for positive values of n
Question 48Single Answer
A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros in its open-loop transfer function. The slope of its highest frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot is
A
–40 dB/dec
B
–240 dB/dec
C
+40 dB/dec
D
+240 dB/dec
Question 49Single Answer
The characteristics of a mode of controller are summarized:
1. If error is zero, the output from the controller is zero.
2. If error is constant in time, the output from the controller is zero.
3. For changing error in time, the output from the controller is |K|% for every 1% sec–1 rate of change of error.
4. For positive rate of change of error, the output is also positive. The mode of controller is
A
Integral controller
B
Derivative controller
C
Proportional derivative
D
Proportional integral
Question 50Single Answer
A 1000V/400vV power transformer has a nominal short-circuit voltage VSC = 40%. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
A voltage of 400 V appears across the short-circuited secondary terminals
B
A voltage of 16 V appears across the short-circuited secondary terminals.
C
When the secondary terminals are short-circuited, the rated current flows at the primary side at a primary voltage of 400 V.
D
The primary voltage drops to 400 V, when the secondary terminals are short-circuited.
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Electrical
Question 51Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Salient pole alternators have small diameters and large axial lengths.
2. Cylindrical rotor alternators have a distributed winding.
3. Cylindrical rotor alternators are wound for large number of poles.
4. Salient pole alternators run at speeds slower than cylindrical rotor machines.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 52Single Answer
A permanent magnet stepper motor with 8 poles in stator and 6 poles in rotor will have a step angle of
A
7.5°
B
15°
C
30°
D
60°
Question 53Single Answer
Bulk power transmission over long HVDC lines is preferred because of
A
Low cost of HVDC terminal
B
No harmonic losses
C
Minimum line power losses
D
Simple protection
Question 54Single Answer
The turn-off time of a thyristor is 30 µs at 50°C. What is its turn-off time at 100°C?
A
15 µs
B
30 µs
C
60 µs
D
120 µs
Question 55Single Answer
A large dc motor is required to control the speed of the blower from a 3-phase ac source. The suitable ac to dc converter is, 3-phase
A
Fully controlled bridge converter
B
Fully controlled bridge converter with freewheeling diode
C
Half controlled bridge converter
D
Converter pair in sequence control
Question 56Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The voltage developed across the OFF switches of the half bridge converter is the maximum dc link voltage.
2. In the full bridge converter, the voltage across the primary of the transformer is the dc link voltage.
3. The voltage developed across the OFF switches of the full bridge converter in half the maximum dc link voltage.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 57Single Answer
What is the probability that at most 5 defective fuses will be found in a box of 200 fuses, if 2% of such fuses are defective?
A
0·82
B
0·79
C
0·59
D
0·52
Question 58Single Answer
At temperature above a limiting value, the energy of lattice vibrations, in a conductor, increases linearly with temperature so that resistivity increases linearly with temperature. In this region, this limiting value of temperature is called
A
Bernoulli Temperature
B
Curie Temperature
C
DebyeTemperature
D
Neel Temperature
Question 59Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The critical magnetic field of a superconductor is maximum at absolute zero.
2. Transition temperature of a superconductor is sensitive to its structure.
3. The critical magnetic field of a superconductor is zero at its critical temperature.
4. Superconductors show very high conductivity below the critical temperature.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 60Single Answer
Eddy current losses in transformer cores can be reduced by the use of
1. Solid cores
2. Laminated cores
3. Ferrites
Select the correct answer using he codes given below:
A
2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 61Single Answer
The phenomenon of magnetostriction occurs when a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized resulting in
A
Heating
B
Small changes in its dimensions
C
Small changes in its crystal structure
D
Some change in its mechanical properties
Question 62Single Answer
What type of defect causes F-centers in a crystal?
A
Stoichiometric defect
B
Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies
C
Metal excess defect due to extra cations
D
Frenkel defect
Question 63Single Answer
In a connected graph, the total number of branches is b and the total number of nodes is n. Then the number of links L of a co-tree is
A
b – n
B
b – n – 1
C
b + n – 1
D
b – n + 1
Question 64Single Answer
When 7/0.029 V.I.R cable is carrying 20 A, a drop of 1 V occurs every 12 m. The voltage drop in a 100 m run of this cable when it is carrying 10 V is nearly
A
4.2 V
B
3.2 V
C
1.2 V
D
0.42 V
Question 65Single Answer
Consider the following statements: If a high Q parallel resonant circuit is loaded with a resistance
1. The circuit impedance reduces
2. The resonant frequency remains the same
3. The bandwidth reduces
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
3 only
B
2 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 66Single Answer
The three non-inductive loads of 5 kW, 3 kW and 2 kW are connected in a star network between R, Y and B phases and neutral. The line voltage is 400 V. The current in the neutral wire is nearly
A
11 A
B
14 A
C
17 A
D
21 A
Question 67Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to Lissajous pattern on a CRO:
1. It is a stationary pattern on the CRO.
2. It is used for precise measurement of frequency of a voltage signal.
3. The ratio between frequencies of vertical and longitudinal voltage signals should be an integer to have a steady Lissajous pattern.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 68Single Answer
Electric flux enclosed by a surface surrounding a charge is equal to the amount of charge enclosed.” This is the statement of
A
Faraday’s law
B
Lenz’s law
C
Modified Ampere’s law
D
Gauss’s law
Question 69Single Answer
If a positively charged body is placed inside a spherical hollow conductor, what will be the polarity of charge inside and outside the hollow conductor?
A
Inside positive, outside negative
B
Inside negative, outside positive
C
Both negative
D
Both positive
Question 70Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to Moving Iron (MI) instruments:
1. These instruments possess high operating torque.
2. These instruments can be used in ac and dc circuits.
3. Power consumption in these instruments is lower for low voltage range.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 71Single Answer
Consider the following components in a multistate R-C coupled amplifier:
1. Parasitic capacitance of transistor
2. Coupling capacitance
3. Stray capacitance
4. Wiring capacitance
Which of the above components effectively control high frequencies?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 72Single Answer
A Wien Bridge Oscillator is suitable for
1. Audio frequency applications
2. Radio frequency applications
3. Very low frequency applications
Which of the above frequency applications is/ are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 73Single Answer
The number of complex additions and multiplications in direct DFT are, respectively
A
N(N–1) and N2
B
N(N+1) and N2
C
N(N+1)2 and N
D
N and N2
Question 74Single Answer
While forming a Routh arrary, the situation of a row of zeros indicates that the system
A
has symmetrically located roots
B
is stable
C
is insensitive to variations in gain
D
has asymmetrically located roots
Question 75Single Answer
A linear time-invariant control system with unsatisfactory steady state error is to be compensated. Which is/are the correct type of cascade compensation to be provided?
1. Lead
2. Lag
3. Lag-lead
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
Question 76Single Answer
In a system, the damping coefficient is –2. The system response will be
A
Undamped
B
Oscillations with decreasing magnitude
C
Oscillations with increasing magnitude
D
Critically damped
Question 77Single Answer
A dynamic system is described by the following equations:
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 78Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding capability curves of a synchronous generator:
1. The MVA loading should not exceed the generator rating.
2. The field current should not be allowed to exceed a specified value determined by field heating.
3. The MW loading should not exceed the rating of the prime mover.
4. The load angle must be more than 90°.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 79Single Answer
Which one of the following does not have an effect on corona?
A
Spacing between conductors
B
Conductor size
C
Line voltage
D
Length of conductor
Question 80Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding corona:
1. It causes radio interference
2. It attenuates lightning surges.
3. It causes power loss.
4. It is more prevalent in the middle conductor of a transmission line employing flat conductor configuration.
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4
D
3 and 4 only
Question 81Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to a GTO :
1. The turn-off gain of the GTO is large.
2. Large negative gate current pulses are required to turn off the GTO.
3. GTO has large reverse blocking capability Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 82Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to power diodes:
1. The breakdown voltage is directly proportional to the doping density of the drift region.
2. Losses in the diode are less due to conductivity modulation of the drift region in the on-state.
3. The vertically oriented structure supports large blocking voltages.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 83Single Answer
In a synchronous machine, hunting is predominantly damped by
A
mechanical losses in the rotor
B
iron losses in the rotor
C
copper losses in the stator
D
copper losses in the rotor
Question 84Single Answer
In a 3-phase ac power transmission system using synchronous generation
A
The steady state power limits of both round rotor and salient pole machines are reached Ø = of their respective power angle characteristics.
B
the steady state power limit of round rotor motor machines occurs at a much smaller angle Ø as compared to that of salient pole machine power angle characteristics.
C
The steady state power limit of salient pole machines occurs at smaller angle Ø as compared to that of round rotor machine power angle characteristics.
D
The transient state power limits of synchronous generators do not depend on initial load just before the large change in load or on 3-phase fault.
Question 85Single Answer
A lossless power system has two generators G1 and G2; and total load to be served is 200 MW. The respective cost curves C1 and C2 are defined as C1 = PO1 + 0.01P201; C2 = P02 + 0.01P2a2 : Assume the minimum loading on any generator to be 30 MW, the most economical loads PG1 and PG2 for the two generators are respectively
A
170 MW and 100 MW
B
200 MW and 100 MW
C
170 MW and 30 MW
D
200 MW and 30 MW
Question 86Single Answer
The loss formula coefficient matrix for a two-plant system is given by
The economic schedule for a certain load is given as
P1 = 150 MW and P2 = 275 MW
What is the penalty factor for plant 1 for this condition?
A
1.324
B
1.515
C
1.575
D
1.721
Question 87Single Answer
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A
(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00H
B
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D
(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Question 88Single Answer
A power system has two synchronous generators having governor turbine characteristics as
P1 = 50 (50 – f)
P2 = 100(51 – f)
Where f represents the system frequency. Assuming a lossless operation of the complete power system, what is the system frequency for a total load of 800 MW?
A
55.33 Hz
B
50 Hz
C
45.33 Hz
D
40 Hz
Question 89Single Answer
Geneticists say that they are very close to confirming the genetic roots of psychiatric illness such as depression and schizophrenia, and consequently, that doctors will be able to eradicate these disease through early identification and gene therapy. On which of the following assumptions does the statement above rely?
A
Strategies are now available for eliminating psychiatric illnesses.
B
Certain psychiatric illnesses have a genetic basis.
C
All human diseases can be traced back to genes and how they are expressed.
D
In the future, genetics will become the only relevant field for identifying psychiatric illnesses.
Question 90Single Answer
A 12-pole, 440 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous motor takes a line current of 100 A at 0.8 pf leading. Neglecting losses, the torque developed will be
A
705 Nm
B
1165 Nm
C
1058 Nm
D
525 Nm
Question 91Single Answer
A 3-phase, 460 V, 6-pole, 60 Hz cylindrical rotor synchronous motor has a synchronous reactance of 2.5 and negligible armature resistance. The load torque, proportional to the square of the speed, is 398 N.m at 1200 rpm.Unity power factor is maintained by excitation control. Keeping the V/f constant, the frequency is reduced to 36 Hz. The torque angle is
A
9.5°
B
12.5°
C
25.5°
D
30°
Question 92Single Answer
Where does electro-static shielding occur in a charged spherical shell ?
A
When electrical potential outside spherical shell is zero
B
When electrical potential inside the spherical shell is zero
C
When electrical field outside the spherical shell
D
Electrical field inside the spherical shell
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence below?It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied environment conditions.
A
adopt to
B
adapt to
C
adept in
D
accept with
Question 94Single Answer
A 3-phase, 50 Hz, six pole induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.1 Ω and reactance of 0.92 Ω. Neglect the voltage drop in stator and assume that the rotor resistance is constant. Given that the full load slip is 3%, the ratio of maximum torque to full load torque is
A
1.567
B
1.712
C
1.948
D
2.134
Question 95Single Answer
In an oscilloscope screen, linear sweep is applied at the
A
vertical axis
B
horizontal axis
C
origin
D
both horizontal and vertical axis
Question 96Single Answer
A phase-lead network has its transfer function
What is the frequency at which the maximum phase-lead occurs?
A
25 rad/sec
B
50 rad/sec
C
75 rad/sec
D
100 rad/sec
Question 97Single Answer
For a periodic square wave, which one of the following statements is true?
A
The Fourier series coefficients do not exist.
B
The Fourier series coefficients exists but the reconstruction converges at no point.
C
The Fourier series coefficients exists and the reconstruction converges at most points.
D
The Fourier series coefficients exists and the reconstruction converges at every point.
Question 98Single Answer
The number of complex additions and multiplications in GFT are, respectively
A
log2 N and N log2 N
B
N log2 N and log2 N
C
log2 N and log2 N
D
log2 N and log2 N
Question 99Single Answer
The undesirable property of an electrical insulting material is
A
high electric strength
B
high relative permittivity
C
high thermal conductivity
D
high insulation resistivity
Question 100Single Answer
Fourier series of any periodic signal x(t) can be obtained if
1.
2. Finite number of discontinuities within finite time interval t
3. Infinite number of discontinuities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 101Single Answer
Consider the following statements with respect to Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT):
1. If is obtained by performing a sampling operation in the time domain.
2. It transforms a finite duration sequence into a discrete frequency spectrum.
3. It is obtained by performing a sampling operation in both time and frequency domains.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
3 only
Question 102Single Answer
One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them.Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
A
Through regimentation as the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances
B
The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals
C
Discipline was the armies inheritance from their seniors
D
The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them
Question 103Single Answer
A periodic voltage waveform observed on an oscillating across a load is shown. A permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) meter connected across the same load reads
A
4 V
B
5 V
C
8 V
D
10 V
Question 104Single Answer
The logical expression,
A
B
C
D
Question 105Single Answer
A tuned-collector oscillator has a fixed inductance of 100 µH and has to be tunable over the frequency band of 500 kHz to 1500 kHz. What is the range of variable capacitor to be used?
A
115 – 1021 pF
B
113 – 1015 pF
C
93 – 1015 µF
D
119 – 1021 µF
Question 106Single Answer
In an R-C phase shift oscillator using FET and 3-section R-C phase shift network, the condition for sustained oscillation is Where,
A
> 6
B
> 29
C
> 4 + 23
D
> 23
Question 107Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding electrical conductivity ó:
1. It increases with temperature in semiconductors.
2. Its increase with temperature is exponential.
3. It increases in metals and their alloys, linearly with temperature.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1,2 and 3
Question 108Single Answer
What is the effect on the natural frequency (n) and damping factor () in the control systems when derivative compensation is used?
A
n increases and decreases
B
n remains unchanged and increases
C
n remains unchanged and decreases
D
n decreases and increases
Question 109Single Answer
If n has the value 3, then the C language statement: [+ + ] = + +; assigns
A
3 to a[5]
B
4 to a[5]
C
4 to a[4]
D
5 to a[5]
Question 110Single Answer
A current of (10 + 5 sin t + 3 sin 2 t) is measured using a moving iron instrument. The reading would be
A
08.82 A
B
10.00 A
C
10.82 A
D
12.75 A
Question 111Single Answer
The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when
A
k=2 and a=0,75
B
k=3 and a = 0,75
C
k=4 and a=0.5
D
k=2 and a=0.5
Question 112Single Answer
A 4 digit voltmeter is used for voltage measurement. How would 0.7525 V be displayed in 1 V range?
A
0.725 V
B
0.752 V
C
0.075 V
D
0.0752 V
Question 113Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Peer-to-Peer computing environment:
1. In this system, clients and servers are not distinguished from one another.
2. All nodes distributed throughout the system (within) are considered Peers and each may act as either a client or a server.
3. Peer-to-Peer system assuredly offers certain advantages over the traditional client-server system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1,2,3 and 4
B
1,2 and only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2,3 and 4 only
Question 114Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 115Single Answer
Suppose the resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel to give an equivalent resistor R. if resistors R1 and R2 have tolerance of 1% each, the equivalent resistor R for resistors R1 = 300 Ω and R2 = 200Ω will have tolerance of
A
0.5%
B
1%
C
1.2%
D
2%
Question 116Single Answer
In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S is operated at 100 kHz with a duty ratio of 50%. Given that is 1.6 A peak-to-peak and is 5A DC, the peak current in S is
A
6.6 A
B
5.0 A
C
5.8 A
D
4.2 A
Question 117Single Answer
A drawn wire of resistance 5 is further drawn so that its diameter becomes one-fifth of the original. What is its resistance with volume remaining the same?
A
25
B
125
C
625
D
3125
Question 118Single Answer
The horizontally placed conductors of a single phase line operating at 50 Hz are having outside diameter of 1.6 cm, and the spacing between centres of the conductors is 6 m. the permittivity of free space is 8.854 x 10-12 F/m. the capacitance to ground per kilometer of each line is
A
4.2 x 10-9 F
B
8.4 x 10-9 F
C
4.2 x 10-12 F
D
8.4 x 10-12 F
Question 119Single Answer
How fast can be output of an OP Amp change by 10 V, if its slew rate is 1 V / µs?
A
5 µs
B
10 µs
C
15 µs
D
20 µs
Question 120Single Answer
A two-element series circuit is connected across an AC source given by e = 200 sin(314t 20)V . The current is then found to be i = 10 cos(314t25)V. The parameters of the circuit are
A
R = 20 and C = 160 µF
B
R = 14.14 and C = 225 µF
C
L = 45 mH and C = 225 µF
D
L = 45 mH and C = 160 µF
Question 121Single Answer
Two resistors of 5 and 10 and an inductor L are connected in series across a 50cost voltage source. If the power consumed by the 5 resistor is 10 W, the power factor of the circuit is
A
1.0
B
0.8
C
0.6
D
0.4
Question 122Single Answer
What is the value of resistance R which will allow maximum power dissipation in the circuit?
A
11.66
B
10.33
C
8.33
D
7.66
Question 123Single Answer
What is the current through the 8 resistance connected across terminals, M and N in the circuit?
A
0.34 A from M to N
B
0.29 A from M to N
C
0.29 A from N to M
D
0.34 A from N to M
Question 124Single Answer
The voltage and current waveforms for an element are shown in the figure
The circuit element and its value are
A
Capacitor, 2F
B
Inductor, 2H
C
Capacitor, 0.5F
D
Inductor, 0.5H
Question 125Single Answer
For the circuit shown, Thevenin’s open circuit voltage Voc and Thevenin’s equivalent resistance Req at terminals A – B are, respectively,
A
6.25 V and 2.5
B
12.5 V and 5
C
6.25 V and 5
D
12.5 V and 2.5
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct regarding dot product of vectors?
1. Dot product is less than or equal to the product of magnitudes of two vectors.
2. When two vectors are perpendicular to each other, then their dot product is non-zero.
3. Dot product of two vectors is positive or negative depending whether the angle between the vectors is less than or greater than
4. Dot product is equal to the product of one vector and the projection of the vector on the first one.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 127Single Answer
A copper conductor has a resistance of 15.5 at 0°C. What is its percentage conductivity at 16°C (to nearest unit value) assuming the temperature coefficient of copper as 0.00428 per °C at 0°C?
A
54%
B
68%
C
94%
D
98%
Question 128Single Answer
For intrinsic gallium arsenide, conductivity at room temperature is 10–6 ( –m)-1 , the electron and hold mobilities are, respectively 0.85 and 0.04m2/V-s. The intrinsic carrier concentration at room temperature is
A
7.0 × 1012m–3
B
0.7 × 1012m–3
C
7.0 × 10–12m–3
D
0.7 × 10–12m–3
Question 129Single Answer
Gauss’s theorem states that total electric flux emanating from a closed surface is equal to
A
Total current density on the surface
B
Total charge enclosed by that surface
C
Total current on the surface
D
Total charge density within the surface
Question 130Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46-m. What is the intrinsic carrier density i at 30°C, taking the electron mobility µ as 0.38 m2/V-s and hole mobility µp as 0.18 m2/Vs?
A
2.4 × 1019/m3
B
4.2 × 1019/m3
C
2.4×1010/m3
D
4.2 × 1010/m3
Question 131Single Answer
Photoconductivity is a characteristic of semiconductors. When light falls on certain semiconductors, it
A
Sets free electrons from some of the atoms, increasing the conductivity
B
Ejects electrons into space
C
Establishes a potential difference creating a source of EMF
D
Produces heat raising the temperature
Question 132Single Answer
If X is a normal variate with mean 30 and standard deviation 5, what is Probability (26 < x < 34) given A(z = 0.8) = 0.2881 ?
A
0.2881
B
0.5762
C
0.8181
D
0.1616
Question 133Single Answer
A random variable X has a probability density function (n is an integer) With mean 3. The value of (k, n) are
A
B
C
D
{1, 2}
Question 134Single Answer
A random variable has the density function (x) = . Then the value of K is
A
B
1
C
2
D
1
2
Question 135Single Answer
A bag contains 7 red and 4 white balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that both the balls are red?
A
28
55
B
21
55
C
7
55
D
4
55
Question 136Single Answer
The Fourier series expansion of the saw-toothed waveform gives the series, The sum is equal to
A
B
C
D
Question 137Single Answer
What is the value of the m for which my2 is harmonic?
A
1
B
–1
C
2
D
–2
Question 138Single Answer
Given the Fourier series in will be
A
B
0
C
2
D
Question 139Single Answer
The general solution of the differential equation
A
y = (c1 – c2)e + c3 cos + c4 sin
B
y = (c1 + c2)e - c3 cos + c4 sin
C
y = (c1 + c2)e + c3 cos + c4 sin
D
y = (c1 + c2)e - c3 cos - c4 sin
Question 140Single Answer
The sum of residues of at its singular point is
A
–8
B
–4
C
0
D
4
General Awareness
Question 141Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 142Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 143Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 144Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 146Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 147Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 148Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 149Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 152Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 153Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 154Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 155Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 156Single Answer
What is the theme of World Intellectual Property Day 2023, which is observed annually on April 26 for creating awareness of intellectual property and its safeguarding ?
A
IP and Youth: Innovating for a Better Future
B
IP and SMEs: Taking Your Ideas to Market
C
Innovate for a Green Future
D
Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following countries will host the third in-person Quad Summit on May 24, 2023 ?
A
India
B
The USA
C
Japan
D
Australia
Question 158Single Answer
In April 2023, the State Bank of India (SBI) has opened its fourth exclusive branch for startups. In this context, which of the following Indian cities does not have SBI’s startup branch ?
A
Mumbai
B
Bengaluru
C
New Delhi
D
Chennai
Question 159Single Answer
In April 2023, the Y20 Pre Summit Meeting under G20 is being hosted by the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs in which Indian city from 26th to 28th April 2023 ?
A
Bengaluru
B
Leh
C
Kanpur
D
Srinagar
Question 160Single Answer
In April 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the Acting Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court with effect from April 24, 2023 ?
A
Biswanath Somadder
B
Sarasa Venkatanarayana Bhatti
C
S Manikumar
D
Akil Kureshi
Question 161Single Answer
In April 2023, 14th Dalai Lama received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in Person after _____years .
A
59
B
52
C
64
D
70
Question 162Single Answer
Name the company that has recently (in April’23) won First Prize in the Ministry of Steel’s Ispat Rajbhasha Samman” for the yaer 2021-22 .
A
Tata Steel Limited
B
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
C
JSW Steel Limited
D
ESL Steel Limited
Question 163Single Answer
Which stock exchange company’s subsidiary has recently (in April ’23) introduced new guidelines for retaining a demerged entity in its respective index ?
A
Calcutta Stock Exchange
B
Vadodara Stock Exchange
C
Bombay Stock Exchange
D
National Stock Exchange
Question 164Single Answer
In April 2023, which of the following insurgent group signed a peace pact with the Assam government and Union government ?
A
Dimasa National Liberation Army
B
Kangleipak Communist Party
C
Kanglei Yawol Kanna Lup
D
Revolutionary People’s Front
Question 165Single Answer
In April 2023, who among the following was honoured with the prestigious Leipzig Book Prize for European Understanding in 2023 ?
A
Angela Steidele
B
Carolin Amlinger
C
Oliver Nachtwey
D
Maria Stepanova
Question 166Single Answer
Gandhisagar Sanctuary, which was in news recently, is located in which of the following state ?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Bihar
Question 167Single Answer
Who among the following has named the new deputy prime minister of the United Kingdom, following the resignation of Dominic Raab ?
A
Alex Chalk
B
Oliver Dowden
C
Tim Farron
D
Sarah Green
Question 168Single Answer
In April 2023, who becomes the first Woman in Indian Air Force (IAF) to receive the Vayu Sena medal ?
A
Padma Bandopadhyay
B
Deepika Misra
C
Punita Arora
D
Sheila S. Mathai
Question 169Single Answer
In April 2023, which of the following financial service companies collaborated with the M1xchange to offer a digital invoice discounting solution to farmers through Farm Pass ?
A
Mastercard
B
Rupay
C
Visa
D
American Express
Question 170Single Answer
According to the Morgan Stanley report, what would be the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India in FY24 ?
A
6.2 percent
B
5.5 percent
C
6.7 percent
D
5.0 percent
Reasoning
Question 171Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 173Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 175Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 176Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 178Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 179Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 180Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 181Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 182Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 183Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 184Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 185Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 186Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 187Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 189Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 190Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 191Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 192Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 193Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 194Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 195Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 196Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A
1
B
8
C
3
D
5
E
None of these
Question 197Single Answer
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A
FYH
B
GWG
C
HWH
D
GUF
E
None of these
Question 198Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
215
B
143
C
247
D
91
E
65
Question 199Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
78
B
48
C
72
D
54
E
42
Question 200Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?