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Question Bank

Question for TN MRB Pharmacist - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View TN MRB Pharmacist 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in TN MRB Pharmacist exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in TN MRB Pharmacist exams.

Latest TN MRB Pharmacist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Pharmacist

Question Bank TN MRB Pharmacist Exam - English

Pharmacist

Q 1 :
The characteristic odour of onion bulbs is attributed to:
  1. A.Quercetin glycosides   
  2. B.furostanol glycosides
  3. C.Heterogeneous suphated polysaccharides  
  4. D.Alkyl or alkenyl disulphides
Q 2 :
The chief constituent of the seeds strophanthus gratus or woods of Acokanthere schimiperi belonging to the family Apocynaceae is G-stropanthin. On hydrolysis, it gives:
  1. A.Scilarenin      
  2. B.Ouabagenin
  3. C.Cannogenin      
  4. D.Diosgenin
Q 3 :
The duration of action of sublingual nitroglycerin tablet is:
  1. A.8-10 hours  
  2. B.4-8 hours
  3. C.1-3 minutes  
  4. D.2-5 minutes
Q 4 :
Identify the adrenergic receptor, whose agonists can be missed used by sportsmen for Anabolic effects:
  1. A.a1            
  2. B.a2
  3. C.β1       
  4. D.β 2
Q 5 :
When the urinary pH becomes 8.0, significant increase in the excretion of the drugs Takes places:
  1. A.Mepyramine
  2. B.Aspirin
  3. C.Morphine     
  4. D.Mecamylamine
Q 6 :
Condensation of 6-Hydroxy-2,4,5-triaminopyridine with 1.13-trichloro acetone and N-(4-aminobenzoyl) glutamic acid at pH 4 to 5, in the presence of sodium bisulphate gives:
  1. A.Pteroyl glutarmic acid   
  2. B.Amethoterin
  3. C.Triamtereme 
  4. D.Acyclovir
Q 7 :
The common structural feature of iodoxamic acid, iotalmic acid, diatrizoic acid and iocarmic acid is:
  1. A.Sulphonaphthalein   
  2. B.2,4,6-tri-iodo benzoic acid
  3. C.Tri-ido triphenyl methanoic acid  
  4. D.Tri-ido diphenyl methanoic acid
Q 8 :
List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure or make claims to prevent or cure under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rule 1945 is given under:
  1. A.Schedule J         
  2. B.Schedule K
  3. C.Schedule M      
  4. D.Schedule P
Q 9 :
Annato consists of the dried seeds of Bixa orellana L-Family Bxaceae. The chief Constituent is:
  1. A.Triterpene alcohol   
  2. B.Crocin and crocetin
  3. C.Capsanthin   
  4. D.Carotenoids
Q 10 :
To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted ?
  1. A.Dilution test
  2. B.Dye test
  3. C.Conductivity test
  4. D.All
Q 11 :
‘Cresol with soap solution’ is a preparation, in which soap in incorporated to:
  1. A.Impact detergent property
  2. B.Improve mutual miscibility of cresol and water by Reducing critical solution temperature of cresol-water system
  3. C.Sustain the germicidal action of cresol
  4. D.Improve the stability of cresol
Q 12 :
When stoichiometric amount of CaCl2 is added to an emulsion stabilized with sodium alginate, it will:
  1. A.Crack immediately
  2. B.Change the nature from w/o to o/w
  3. C.Change the nature from o/w to w/o
  4. D.Accelerate the phenomenon of Oswald ripening
Q 13 :
Chlorine and bromine substitution in aromatic compounds:
  1. A.Enhances fluorescence 
  2. B.Does not change the fluorescence
  3. C.Quenches the fluorescence  
  4. D.Removes the fluorescence
Q 14 :
Solvent programming, also called gradient elution, involves:
  1. A.Changing the column length  
  2. B.Changing the mobile phase composition
  3. C.Using the mobile phase in unchanged    
  4. D.Successive injection of sample
Q 15 :
Calibration of the cell constant of conductance cell is carried out by using a solution:
  1. A.0.1 M NaCl     
  2. B.0.1 M CaCl2
  3. C.0.1 M KCl            
  4. D.0.1 M AlCl3
Q 16 :
Which preparation is used to help prevent dehydration or achieve rehydration?
  1. A.Lytren solution
  2. B.Liposul
  3. C.Bicytra
  4. D.Mylicon
Q 17 :
Emulsions prepared using Tweens as the principal emulsifying agents are usually of which type?
  1. A.Water-in-oil
  2. B.Oil-in-water
  3. C.Multiple emulsion
  4. D.Microcapsule dispersion
  5. E. reversible
Q 18 :
Compared with the corresponding crystalline form, an amorphous form of a drug is generally?
  1. A.Less soluble
  2. B.More soluble
  3. C.Chemically identical to a solvate
  4. D.Completely insoluble
Q 19 :
A triple-roller mill is particularly useful in pharmaceutical preparation for reducing particle size and producing smooth?
  1. A.Ointments
  2. B.Hard gelatin capsules
  3. C.Aerosols
  4. D.Suppository molds
Q 20 :
Particle-size reduction is most likely to improve drug absorption when absorption is limited primarily by which process?
  1. A.Dissolution of a poorly soluble drug
  2. B.Renal filtration
  3. C.Hepatic metabolism
  4. D.Plasma-protein synthesis
Q 21 :
A material whose apparent viscosity increases as shear rate increases is classified as?
  1. A.Dilatant
  2. B.Newtonian
  3. C.Pseudoplastic
  4. D.Thixotropic
Q 22 :
A solution contains 3 grains of a drug per US fluid ounce. Approximately what is its percentage strength w/v?
  1. A.0.66%
  2. B.0.20%
  3. C.1.50%
  4. D.6.60%
Q 23 :
Cyanocobalamin is which type of substance?
  1. A.Steroid
  2. B.Vitamin
  3. C.Cholinesterase inhibitor
  4. D.Enzyme
Q 24 :
Tweens are best classified as which type of pharmaceutical excipient?
  1. A.Nonionic surfactants
  2. B.Phospholipids
  3. C.Glycosides
  4. D.Inorganic electrolytes
Q 25 :
Which process can promote separation of an emulsion by accelerating movement of dispersed droplets?
  1. A.Centrifugation
  2. B.Buffering
  3. C.Isotonization
  4. D.Sweetening
Q 26 :
Which gastrointestinal effect is characteristically associated with oral iron preparations?
  1. A.Darkening of stools
  2. B.Blue discoloration of saliva
  3. C.Green discoloration of tears
  4. D.Purple discoloration of sweat
Q 27 :
Orally administered lidocaine has limited systemic usefulness largely because it undergoes extensive?
  1. A.First-pass hepatic metabolism
  2. B.Renal tubular secretion before absorption
  3. C.Photochemical degradation in the stomach
  4. D.Pulmonary metabolism before absorption
Q 28 :
On exposure to air and light, phenol may gradually develop which discoloration because of oxidation?
  1. A.Pink to reddish coloration
  2. B.Bright green coloration
  3. C.Deep blue coloration
  4. D.Pure white coloration
Q 29 :
Approximately how much HgCl₂ is required to prepare 1 US pint (about 473 mL) of a 1:5000 w/v solution?
  1. A.9.5 mg
  2. B.47.3 mg
  3. C.94.6 mg
  4. D.473 mg
Q 30 :
Which sulfonylurea has historically been associated with potentiation of the antidiuretic action of vasopressin?
  1. A.Chlorpropamide
  2. B.Chloramphenicol
  3. C.Phenytoin
  4. D.Dicoumarol
Q 31 :
Creaming is a ________ process.
  1. A.Reversible​
  2. B.Irreversible
  3. C.Downward
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 32 :
o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.
  1. A.Downward
  2. B.Upward
  3. C.First up and then down
  4. D.First down then up
Q 33 :
 ______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.
  1. A.Cellulose
  2. B.Pectin
  3. C.Glucose
  4. D.Methyl cellulose
Q 34 :
Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.
  1. A.Neutralize
  2. B.Decrease
  3. C.Increase
  4. D.Stabilize
Q 35 :
The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
 
  1. A.One
  2. B.Greater than one
  3. C.Zero
  4. D.Less than one
Q 36 :
Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?
  1. A.Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
  2. B.Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
  3. C.Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
  4. D.Redispersion becomes progressively impossible
Q 37 :
Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?
  1. A.Stokes' law
  2. B.Henry's law
  3. C.Raoult's law
  4. D.Beer-Lambert law
Q 38 :
According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?
  1. A.0.26
  2. B.0.50
  3. C.0.74
  4. D.0.90
Q 39 :
Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?
  1. A.Charcoal
  2. B.Kaolin
  3. C.Calamine
  4. D.Aluminum Hydroxide
Q 40 :
Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?
  1. A.Creep test
  2. B.Pycnometry
  3. C.Nephelometry
  4. D.Refractometry
Q 41 :
Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?
  1. A.Higher
  2. B.Always lower
  3. C.Exactly identical
  4. D.Always zero
Q 42 :
According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.
 
 
  1. A.Downward
  2. B.Upward
  3. C.Centre
  4. D.Both (a) and (b)
Q 43 :
____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions  is of globules is not uniform.
  1. A.Caking
  2. B.Breaking
  3. C.Creaming
  4. D.Coalescence
Q 44 :
The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
 
  1. A.Homogenization
  2. B.Lyophilization
  3. C.Centrifugation
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 45 :
According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?
  1. A.Decreasing globule size
  2. B.Increasing globule size
  3. C.Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
  4. D.Increasing the density difference between phases
Q 46 :
Which of the following is an important responsibility of a clinical pharmacist?
  1. A.Monitoring medication therapy and promoting safe drug use
  2. B.Manufacturing medicines exclusively
  3. C.Marketing pharmaceutical products
  4. D.Performing surgical procedures
Q 47 :
Which knowledge is particularly important for a clinical pharmacist when optimizing pharmacotherapy?
  1. A.Disease states and their pharmacological management
  2. B.Pharmaceutical advertising alone
  3. C.Drug packaging design alone
  4. D.Hospital architecture
Q 48 :
Which is NOT a part of the clinical pharmacy practice?
  1. A.Patient counseling
  2. B.Drug utilization review
  3. C.Manufacturing drugs
  4. D.Therapeutic drug monitoring
Q 49 :
Clinical pharmacists commonly collaborate with which healthcare professionals in multidisciplinary patient care?
  1. A.Physicians, nurses, dietitians and other healthcare professionals
  2. B.Pharmaceutical sales representatives only
  3. C.Administrative staff exclusively
  4. D.Accountants exclusively
Q 50 :
Which of the following is a symptom of Tuberculosis?
  1. A.Fever and cough
  2. B.Skin rash
  3. C.Joint pain
  4. D.Nausea

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