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Question Bank

TN TRB PG Assistant (Economics) Exam - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 3

View TN TRB PG Assistant (Economics) 2026 Exam Page

Economics

1
Which is called Gossen’s second Law ?
  1. A.Law of equi-marginal utility
  2. B.Law of Diminishing marginal utility
  3. C.Revealed Preference Theory
  4. D.Indifference Curav approach                         
2
Which of the condition support long run equilibrium in monopolistic competition  ?
  1. A.MR = MC, AR = AC
  2. B.P = MC, AR = AC
  3. C.MR = MC = AR = AC
  4. D.AR = MC = AC
3
Who explained importance of time element in price determination, for the first time ?
  1. A.Chamberlin
  2. B.Stigler
  3. C.Mrs. Joan Robinson
  4. D.Marshall
4
Law of diminishing returns begins to operate when :
  1. A.Total product begins to rise
  2. B.Total product begins to fall
  3. C.Marginal Product begins to rise
  4. D.Marginal product begins to fall
5
Consider the following statements regarding Edgeworth Duopoly model :
I.      It takes as given output decision of rival.
II.    It takes as given price decision of rival
III.   It is an explanation of price rigidity of thease , the correct answer is :
  1. A.Only Statement I is true
  2. B.Both I & II are true
  3. C.Both II & III  are true
  4. D.Only III is true
6
Public goods are charactertised by :
1. Collective consumption
2. Divisibility
3. Non – exclusion
4. Rival consumption
Select the correct answer from the code given below  :
  1. A.1 & 2 are correct
  2. B.1 & 3 are correct
  3. C.1 & 4 are correct
  4. D.2 & 4 are correct
7
Among the following what causes market failure ?
1. Externality
2. Asymmetry of information
3. Perfact competition
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
  1. A.Codes :
    1,2 & 3 are correct
  2. B.Only 1 is correct
  3. C.1 & 2 are correct
  4. D.2 & 3 are correct 
8
Who distinguished between value in use and value in exchange and gave the famous example of diamonds and water ?
  1. A.Adam smith 
  2. B.David Ricardo
  3. C.Alfred Marshall
  4. D.Karl Marx
9
When income effect becomes stronger than substitution effect, the labour supply curve will :
  1. A.Slope positively 
  2. B.Negatively sloped
  3. C.Bend backward 
  4. D.Slope upwards
10
Assertion (A)   : The concept  of supply curve is meaningless for the monopolist.
Reason   (R)   : Monopolists are price setters ; it does not make reuse to ask what output they will produce at various prices.
  1. A.Codes :
    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.(A) is correct , but (R)  is not correct 
  3. C.Both (A) and (R) are correct , but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  4. D.(R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect 
11
Predatory pricing policy is designed to :
  1. A.drive competitors out of business
  2. B.maximum profits
  3. C.encourage entrants into the market
  4. D.atain least cost output
12
Match items in List-I with items in List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
            List-I                                               List-II
a. The screening Hypothesis             1. George  A. Akerlof
b. Job Market signaling                     2. K. J  Arrow
c. The problem of moral                    3. M. Spencer
 hazard in the case  
 of medical insura
d. The market for lemons                4. Paul W. Miller and Paul A.
                                                       Vplcker 
  1. A.Codes :
    (a)           (b)          (c)           (d)
    3              2              4              1
  2. B.2              3              4              1
  3. C.4              3              2              1
  4. D.2              4              3              1
13
The cost incurred by the firm in hiring labour is called as :
  1. A.Explicit cost   
  2. B.Implicit Cost
  3. C.Marginal Cost
  4. D.Total Cost
14
The locus of Pareto optimality in production and consumption is given by :
  1. A.The social Welfare Function
  2. B.The Utility Possibility Curve
  3. C.The Transformation Curve
  4. D.The Grand Utility possibility Curve 
15
Match items given in List-1 with those in List-II :
    List-I                                      List_II
a. Tea and coffee           1. Veblen goods
b. Car and petrol            2. Substitutes
c. Gold and               3. Giffen goods
    Diamonds              
d. Ragi and Bajra       4. Complementary
  1. A.Codes  :
    a              b             c              d
    2              1              3              4
  2. B.2              4              1              3
  3. C.4              1              2              3
  4. D.4              3              1              2
16
Assertion (A)  : In the short run under perfect competition, given the market demand and market supply the industry is in equilibrium at that price which clears the market.
Reason (R)        : In the long run all the firms in the industry earn profit .
  1. A.Codes :
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanations of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true , but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true , but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false , but (R) is true 
17
Put the following in chronological order on the basis of development :
I. Law of demand
II.Revealed Preference Analysis
III. IIndifference Curve Analysis
IV. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
  1. A.I, II, III, IV 
  2. B.I, IV, III, II
  3. C.I, II, IV,III  
  4. D.I, III, IV, II
18
If the monopolist incurs loss in the short run , then in the long run :
a. he will go out of business.
b. he will stay in business
c. he will break even
d. any of the above is possible
  1. A.(A) and (B) 
  2. B.(A) and (C)
  3. C.(A) only    
  4. D.(D) only
19
The condition of Pareto Optimality holds correct under.
  1. A.Perfect Competition
  2. B.Monopolistic Competition
  3. C.Oligopoly
  4. D.Monopoly
20
Assertion (A)  : Compared to the individual supply curve is more elastic .
Reason (R)      : There is the possibility of moving between being out of the labour force and being in the labour force.
Choose amongst the following  the correct answer .
  1. A.Codes :
    (A) is correct , but (R) I not the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.(A) is correct and (R)  is the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is correct , but (R) is incorrect
  4. D.(A) is incorrect , but (R) Is correct 
21
With reference to demand for money, match List-I with List-II :
       List-I                                     List-II
a. Demand for money                1. J.M. Keynes
    is stable
b. Liquidity preference               2. W. Baumol
    as behaviour  towards
    risk
c. Inventory Theoretic               3. James Tobin
    Approach
d. No portfolio                              4. Milton Friedman
   diversification
  1. A.Codes:
    A             b             c              d
    4              3              1              2
  2. B.3              4              1              2
  3. C.2              1              3              1
  4. D.4              3              2              1
22
The negative relationship between the gap between  actual GDP and its trend value and the difference between actual  unemployment rate and its equilibrium value is called :
  1. A.The Aggregate supply curve
  2. B.The Phillips curve
  3. C.The Natural Rate of Unemployment Hypothesis
  4. D.Okun’s Law
23
It is often true that as the economy begins to recover from a recession , the unemployment rate rises because :
  1. A.As the economy initially recovers from a recession the demand for goods and services falls, so the demand for workers falls.
  2. B.b. as the economy begins to recover from a recession , workers who were previously discouraged about their chance of finding a job begin to look for work again
  3. C.as the economy begins to recover from a recession because of the errors in the way the data are collected.
  4. D.as the economy initially recovers, from a recession, firms do not immediately increase the number of workers they hire. Firms wait to hire more individuals until they are convinced that the recovery is strong 
24
When additional government expenditure is financed by selling government securities, then what will be the nature of crowding out effect , given in List-I in the context of the situation given in List-II ?       
    List-I                                                      List-II
Crowding out effect                                 Situations
a. Full                                        1. Keynesian Range
b. Partial                                    2. Classical Range
c. Nil                                          3. Intermediate Range
  1. A.Codes :
    a              b             c
    2              3              1
  2. B.3              1              2
  3. C.1              3              2
  4. D.1              2              3
25
Match items given in List-I with those in List-II :
     List-I                                      List-II
a. Equation of               1. J.M. Keynes
    exchange
b. Cash Balance            2. Irving Fisher
    Approach
c. Regressive                3. W.J. Baumol
    Expectation
    Model of
   Demand money
d. Square Root           4. A.c. Pigou and
    Formula of                   Alfred Marshall
    Demand for
    Money
  1. A.Codes:
    a              b             c              d
    2              4              1              3
  2. B.3              2              4              1
  3. C.4              3              1              2
  4. D.1              3              2              4
26
Fiscal deficit less interest payments is called
  1. A.Net fiscal deficit
  2. B.Monetised deficit
  3. C.Primary deficit
  4. D.Budgetary deficit
27
How many countries are the members of European Union ?
  1. A.25 
  2. B.28
  3. C.26   
  4. D.15
28
If the mean and variance of a given distribution is 8 and 0.25, then the coefficient of variation will be
  1. A.4 percent
  2. B.8 percent
  3. C.12 percent
  4. D.16 percent
29
The doctrine of unbalanced growth was propounded by
I. Hirschman
II. Robert Solow
III. Singer
IV. Ragnar Nurkse
Codes :
  1. A.I and II are correct
  2. B.II and III are correct
  3. C.III and IV are correct
  4. D.I and III are correct
30
Match List-I with List-II and show the relation between trade cycle and profit by selecting correct codes given below
         List-I                      List-II
a. Recession                   I. Low
b. Boom                           II. Positive
c. Recovery                     III. Highest level
d. Depression                IV. Negative
  1. A.Codes :
    a              b             c              d
    III            IV            I               II
  2. B.I               III            II             IV
  3. C.IV            III            II             I
  4. D.I               II             III            IV
31
Under Cournot Model of Duopoly, each duopolist will produce :
  1. A.half the output
  2. B.one-fourth of the output
  3. C.one-six of the output
  4. D.one-third of the total output
32
As long as the substitution effect dominates the income effect, the labour supply curve is :
  1. A.negatively sloped
  2. B.positively sloped
  3. C.bend backward
  4. D.shifting towards left 
33
Assertion (A)     :  Monopoly is Pareto inefficient .
Reason (R)         :  It would be possible to change the allocation of resources to make the amount of Income he would be prepared to pay in exchange of the reduction in price
  1. A.Codes:
    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
  3. C.Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A)
  4. D.(R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect 
34
If MPk/MPk does not change with any proportionate change in labour and capital then the production function  is :
  1. A.Linear
  2. B.Non-Linear
  3. C.Homogeneous
  4. D.Homothetic
35
Match the items in the List-I with items in List-II select the correct answer from the code given below :
  List-I                                      List-II
I. Agency Theory of        1. O.E. Williamson 
   Firm
II. X-inefficiency              2. M.C. Jenson and W. J. Meckling
III. The Utility                 3. Wilfredo Pareto
    Maximisation
     Model
IV. Edgeworth box         4. Harvey Leibenstein
      Diagram first
      Used by
  1. A.Codes:
    I               II             III            IV
    3              2              1              4
  2. B.2              4              1              3      
  3. C.2              3              4              1
  4. D.3              4              1              2
36
The revealed preference theory of consumer’s behavior is based on :
  1. A.Consistency
  2. B.Strong ordering 
  3. C.Positive income elasticity of demand
  4. D.All of the above 
37
An individual’s supply curve for labour will bend backwards when : 
  1. A.The substitution effect of wage rate increases is higher than income effect
  2. B.The income effect of wage rate increases is negative and higher than the substitution effect 
  3. C.Leisure is Giffen good
  4. D.The substitution and income effect of wage rate increases reinforce each other
38
The short run supply curve of a firm under perfect competition is the same as the :
  1. A.Marginal cost curve
  2. B.marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve
  3. C.average variable cost curve
  4. D.Average total cost curve
39
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
         List-I                                 List-II
 a. Quasi rent                          1. Hicks
 b. Elasticity of substitution     2. Chamberlin
 c. Monopolistic                      3. Neumann and Morgenstern
 d. Theory of Games              4. Marshall
Codes :
  1. A.A          b          c          d
    4          1          3          2
  2. B.2          1          4          3
  3. C.2          1          3          4
  4. D.4         1          2          3 
40
The difference between the value of marginal product and the marginal revenue product arises only if : 
  1. A.Average revenue is not equal to marginal revenue
  2. B.Average cost is not equal to marginal revenue 
  3. C.Total revenue is not equal to total cost
  4. D.Average cost is not equal to average revenu. 
41
Assertion (A) : In the short run, a producer operates in only stage II of the law of diminishingreturns where average product of the variable factor is decline
Reason (R)  In stage I and Stage III the marginal products of the fixed and the variable factors respectively are negative
codes :
  1. A.(A) is true and (R) is false
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  4. D.(A) is false and (R) is true
42
Assertion (A) : In monopolistic competition a firm earns only normal profit in the long run
Reason  (R)    A firm in monopolistic competition produces a commodity which has no closesubstitutes
 Codes :
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true and (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false and (R) is true
43
The Opportunity Cost Curve assumes that 
  1. A.Labour is the only factor of production
  2. B.The price or a cost of a commodity can be inferred from its labour content
  3. C.Labour is homogeneous
  4. D.None of the above
44
Hedging refers to ; 
  1. A.the acceptance of a foreign exchange risk 
  2. B.covering of a foreign exchange risk
  3. C.foreign exchange speculation
  4. D.foreign exchange arbitrage
45
An increase in the marginal propensity to import :
  1. A.has the same effect  upon the multiplier as an increase in the MPC 
  2. B.has no effect upon the multiplier
  3. C.will increase the value of the multiplier
  4. D.will decrease the value of the multiplier
46
The price elasticity of demand is equal to one for a demand curve, which is:
  1. A.horizontal line
  2. B.vertical line
  3. C.rectangular hyperbola
  4. D.downward  moving line
47
The third moment around the mean is useful to measure
  1. A.central tendency     
  2. B.Hirschman
  3. C.peakedness    
  4. D.symmetry
48
Which of the following plans aimed at improving the standard of living ?
  1. A.Third Plan
  2. B.Fourth Plan
  3. C.Fifth Plan
  4. D.Sixth Plan
49
Golden Age hypothesis is concerned with : 
  1. A.natural rate of growth > warranted rate of growth 
     
  2. B.actual rate of growth > warranted rate of growth 
  3. C.warranted rate of growth > natural rate of growth
  4. D.warranted rate of growth = natural rate of growth
50
Which of the following can be evaluated with the help of Lorenz Curve ?
  1. A.The Allocation and technical efficiency of markets 
  2. B.The comparative advantage of trading partners and terms of trade
  3. C.The degree of equity in income distribution
  4. D.the equilibrium of market prices and quantities throughout the world
51
Which of the following distribution function has equal mean and variance ?
  1. A.Normal   
  2. B.Binomial
  3. C.Hypergeometric         
  4. D.Poisson
52
Global 2008 Financial crisis was created by :
  1. A.Nationalised  Banks
  2. B.Sub-prime Market lending
  3. C.Bond Market
  4. D.Interest rate mechanism
53
For downward movement along the isoquants , MRTS of labour per unit of capital (MRTSL,K) is given by: 
  1. A.–dK/dL    
  2. B.dK/dL
  3. C.dL/dK  
  4. D.-dL/dK
54
Which of the following is not instructional material ?
  1. A.Over Head Projector
  2. B.Audio Casset
  3. C.Printed Material
  4. D.Transparency
55
Which of the following is the most significant in stabilization policy ?
  1. A.Private investment 
  2. B.Inventory investment
  3. C.Autonomous investment
  4. D.Public investment
56
The concept of vicious circle of poverty is associated with :
  1. A.Kindleberger
  2. B.Schumpeter
  3. C.Ragnar Frish
  4. D.Gunnar Myrdal
57
Solow built his model as an alternative to :
  1. A.Kaldor’s model of growth
  2. B.Ranis-Fei  model of growth
  3. C.Harrod-Domar model of growth
  4. D.Meade’s model of growth
58
Green Box subsidies under WTO are allowed because they are considered to be : 
  1. A.Minimally trade distorting
  2. B.higher among developed and relatively lower for developing counties
  3. C.They are confined to agriculture sector
  4. D.They are related to GATS provision
59
Which one of the following is not reserved for public sector ?
  1. A.Atomic energy
  2. B.Railways
  3. C.Insurance
  4. D.Port Trust of India
60
The rate at which the Central Bank discounts the bills of commercial banks is called :
  1. A.Discount Rate
  2. B.Bill Rate
  3. C.Interest Rate   
  4. D.Lending Rate
61
If the economy is the liquidity trap then 
  1. A.Fiscal policy will be more effective
  2. B.Monetary policy will be more effective
  3. C.Crowding our effect will make fiscal and monetary policy effective
  4. D.None of the above
62
If the price consumption curve of a commodity is bending backwards , then the commodity must be : 
  1. A.An inferior commodity
  2. B.A perfectly elastic commodity
  3. C.Normal commodity
  4. D.Giffen goods
63
IS curve represents : 
  1. A.Goods market equilibrium 
  2. B.Money market equilibrium 
  3. C.Bond market equilibrium
  4. D.Labour Market equilibrium
64
''Freedom as Development “ Book is written by : 
  1. A.Keynes 
  2. B.Amartya Kumar Sen
  3. C.Mrs. Joan Robinson
  4. D.Gunnar Myrdal
65
The Chairman of 13th Finance Commission is :
  1. A.Dr. Vijay Kelkar
  2. B.Dr. M. Govind Rao
  3. C.Dr. C. Rangarajan
  4. D.Dr. Atul Sharma
66
Human Development index was formulated by : 
  1. A.World bank
  2. B.International Monetary Fund
  3. C.UNTAD
  4. D.UNDP
67
In the Hekscher-Ohlin theory, the most important cause of the difference in relative commodity prices and trade between nations is a difference in : 
  1. A.Factor endowments
  2. B.Technology
  3. C.Tastes
  4. D.None of the above
68
Marginal Revenue of a Monopoly firm is less than the price, Because :
  1. A.Demand curve has a positive slope
  2. B.Demand curve has a negative slope
  3. C.Monopolist is in equilibrium
  4. D.Monopolist incurs losses
69
For an inferior goods , income consumption curve and Engles curves are :
  1. A.Positively sloped
  2. B.Negative sloped
  3. C.Are the same 
  4. D.Income consumption curve positively sloped and the Engles curve is negative sloped
70
The classical economists focused on the role of money as :
  1. A.Medium of exchange 
  2. B.medium of distribution
  3. C.wealth
  4. D.link between present and future
71
If the demand for money is perfectly interest inelastic , the LM schedule will be :
  1. A.Upward sloping  
  2. B.Downward sloping
  3. C.Horizontal line 
  4. D.vertical line
72
Harrod –Domer model of economic growth is based on the equilibrium between
  1. A.Income generation and productive capacity creation
  2. B.Equilibrium between income and consumption
  3. C.Equilibrium between income and consumption
  4. D.None of the above
73
What is the primary focus of microeconomics?
  1. A.National income
  2. B.Individual units and markets
  3. C.Government policies
  4. D.Economic growth
74
Who is considered the father of economics?
  1. A.Adam Smith
  2. B.Alfred Marshall
  3. C.Lionel Robbins
  4. D.John Maynard Keynes
75
Microeconomics is concerned with which of the following?
  1. A.Aggregate demand and supply
  2. B.Behavior of individual consumers and firms
  3. C.Monetary policies
  4. D.Fiscal policies
76
Which of the following is an example of a microeconomic issue?
  1. A.Inflation rates
  2. B.Consumer preferences for a product
  3. C.Unemployment rate
  4. D.National income accounting
77
Which of the following best defines microeconomics?
  1. A.Study of the overall economy
  2. B.Study of individual and business decisions
  3. C.Study of economic development
  4. D.Study of international trade
78
What does the term "economics" originally mean?
  1. A.Study of wealth
  2. B.Management of the household
  3. C.Study of markets
  4. D.Analysis of resources
79
The scope of microeconomics includes all the following except:
  1. A.Theory of demand
  2. B.Theory of production
  3. C.National income determination
  4. D.Market structure analysis
80
Which of the following is a normative statement?
  1. A.The unemployment rate is 5%.
  2. B.The government should reduce taxes to increase consumer spending.
  3. C.There is a decrease in production.
  4. D.The inflation rate has risen to 3%.
81
What does positive economics deal with?
  1. A.Value judgments
  2. B.Statements of facts
  3. C.Economic predictions
  4. D.Policy recommendations
82
Economics as a science is primarily based on:
  1. A.Opinions
  2. B.Experiments
  3. C.Observations and deductions
  4. D.Assumptions and beliefs
83
According to Alfred Marshall, economics is:
  1. A.The study of scarcity
  2. B.The study of human behavior
  3. C.A science of wealth and welfare
  4. D.The study of macroeconomic policies
84
Which of the following theories explains inflation as a result of an increase in aggregate demand in the economy?
  1. A.Cost-Push Inflation
  2. B.Demand-Pull Inflation
  3. C.Structural Inflation
  4. D.Wage-Price Spiral
85
In the Philips Curve, what is the relationship between inflation and unemployment?
  1. A.Positive correlation
  2. B.Negative correlation
  3. C.No correlation
  4. D.None of the above
86
Which of the following is a characteristic of inflationary gap?
  1. A.Unemployment is high
  2. B.Actual output is greater than potential output
  3. C.Actual output is less than potential output
  4. D.Full employment
87
Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to demand-pull inflation?
  1. A.Increase in government spending
  2. B.Decrease in interest rates
  3. C.Increase in aggregate demand
  4. D.Decrease in the cost of production
88
According to the Philips Curve, which of the following happens when unemployment is reduced?
  1. A.Inflation increases
  2. B.Inflation decreases
  3. C.Inflation remains unchanged
  4. D.Unemployment increases
89
Which theory of inflation suggests that inflation occurs when the cost of production increases, causing producers to raise prices to maintain profits?
  1. A.Demand-Pull Inflation
  2. B.Cost-Push Inflation
  3. C.Built-In Inflation
  4. D.Structural Inflation
90
Which of the following is a possible effect of inflation?
  1. A.Increased purchasing power
  2. B.Decreased cost of living
  3. C.Decreased cost of borrowing
  4. D.Reduced real wages
91
The use of differential calculus in economics primarily helps in:
  1. A.Determining the total output
  2. B.Maximizing or minimizing functions like cost and profit
  3. C.Estimating future trends in the market
  4. D.Calculating market equilibrium
92
In the context of economics, the first-order derivative of the total cost function represents:
  1. A.Marginal cost
  2. B.Total revenue
  3. C.Average cost
  4. D.Total cost
93
Profit maximization occurs when the:
  1. A.Marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue
  2. B.Total revenue is greater than total cost
  3. C.Price elasticity of demand is zero
  4. D.Average cost is minimized
94
A firm will continue producing as long as:
  1. A.Marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue
  2. B.Marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost
  3. C.Total revenue exceeds total cost
  4. D.The marginal cost curve is upward sloping
95
The price-quantity determination in a competitive market is influenced by:
  1. A.The supply curve and demand curve
  2. B.The total revenue and total cost curves
  3. C.The marginal revenue and marginal cost curves
  4. D.All of the above
96
Partial differentiation is used to analyze how:
  1. A.A dependent variable changes with respect to one independent variable
  2. B.Two independent variables affect a dependent variable simultaneously
  3. C.A function changes with respect to time
  4. D.Prices affect the equilibrium quantity
97
In economics, the partial derivative of a production function with respect to labor gives:
  1. A.Total product
  2. B.Marginal product of labor
  3. C.Total cost
  4. D.Average product of labor
98
If the marginal cost (Mc) is equal to the average cost (AC), then:
  1. A.The firm is making losses
  2. B.The firm is maximizing profit
  3. C.The firm is in the short run
  4. D.The firm is minimizing cost
99
In economics, elasticity of demand measures:
  1. A.The percentage change in quantity demanded relative to a change in price
  2. B.The total revenue of the firm
  3. C.The consumer surplus
  4. D.The effect of income changes on demand
100
If the elasticity of demand is greater than 1, the demand is:
  1. A.Perfectly inelastic
  2. B.Elastic
  3. C.Unitary elastic
  4. D.Inelastic
101
Which sector contributes the highest to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
  1. A.Agriculture
  2. B.Industry
  3. C.Services
  4. D.Manufacturing
102
What type of economy does India have?
  1. A.Capitalist
  2. B.Socialist
  3. C.Mixed
  4. D.Communist
103
The term 'Demographic Dividend' refers to:
  1. A.Increase in agricultural production
  2. B.Rise in the working-age population
  3. C.Growth in foreign investments
  4. D.Surge in industrial output
104
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian economy?
  1. A.Predominantly urban
  2. B.High dependency on agriculture
  3. C.Low population density
  4. D.Export-oriented manufacturing
105
The 'Informal Sector' in India refers to:
  1. A.Organized and registered businesses
  2. B.Unorganized and unregistered businesses
  3. C.Government enterprises
  4. D.Foreign direct investments
106
Which organization is responsible for calculating India's GDP?
  1. A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  2. B.NITI Aayog
  3. C.Ministry of Finance
  4. D.Central Statistics Office (CSO)
107
The term 'Inclusive Growth' in the Indian context means:
  1. A.Growth that includes foreign investments
  2. B.Growth that benefits all sections of society
  3. C.Growth limited to urban areas
  4. D.Growth focused only on industrial sectors
108
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian economy?
  1. A.Large population
  2. B.Predominance of agriculture
  3. C.High per capita income
  4. D.Mixed economic system
109
The 'Green Revolution' in India was associated with:
  1. A.Industrial growth
  2. B.Agricultural productivity
  3. C.Information technology
  4. D.Environmental conservation
110
Which sector is known as the 'Primary Sector' in the Indian economy?
  1. A.Agriculture and allied activities
  2. B.Manufacturing
  3. C.Services
  4. D.Information Technology

Education Methodology

1
What is the primary goal of pre-primary education?
  1. A.Academic excellence
  2. B.Competitive exam preparation
  3. C.Vocational training
  4. D.Holistic development of young children
2
What does Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE) aim to achieve?
  1. A.Higher education access
  2. B.Skill development for adults
  3. C.Vocational training for all
  4. D.Free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14
3
Which initiative focuses on improving secondary education in India?
  1. A.SSA
  2. B.RTE
  3. C.RUSA
  4. D.RMSA
4
What is the main objective of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
  1. A.Higher education reform
  2. B.Universal elementary education
  3. C.Vocational education
  4. D.Teacher training
5
What does the RTE Act, 2009, mandate for children aged 6-14?
  1. A.Free vocational training
  2. B.Higher education access
  3. C.Free and compulsory education
  4. D.Skill development programs
6
What is the purpose of the Samagra Shiksha scheme?
  1. A.Higher education funding
  2. B.Holistic school education from pre-school to class 12
  3. C.Adult literacy programs
  4. D.Vocational training
7
What is a key feature of the RUSA initiative?
  1. A.Elementary education reform
  2. B.Higher education quality enhancement
  3. C.Vocational training for youth
  4. D.Teacher recruitment
8
What does the term "functional literacy" refer to?
  1. A.Academic excellence
  2. B.Basic reading, writing, and numeracy skills
  3. C.Advanced vocational skills
  4. D.Higher education qualifications
9
What is the primary aim of open schooling?
  1. A.Competitive exam preparation
  2. B.Flexible education for dropouts and non-traditional learners
  3. C.Higher education access
  4. D.Vocational training
10
What is a major cause of dropouts in Indian schools?
  1. A.Lack of vocational training
  2. B.Socio-economic barriers
  3. C.Excessive academic rigor
  4. D.Teacher shortages
11
What does delinking degrees from employment aim to achieve?
  1. A.Promote skill-based hiring
  2. B.Increase academic pressure
  3. C.Enforce degree requirements
  4. D.Reduce vocational training
12
What is a key objective of vocationalisation of education?
  1. A.Academic excellence
  2. B.Skill development for employability
  3. C.Higher education access
  4. D.Teacher training
13
What is a major challenge in the education of socially disadvantaged groups?
  1. A.Lack of vocational training
  2. B.Accessibility and affordability
  3. C.Excessive academic rigor
  4. D.Teacher shortages
14
Which group is considered a socially disadvantaged group in education?
  1. A.Urban students
  2. B.High-income families
  3. C.Tribal communities
  4. D.Private school students
15
What is the primary goal of inclusive education?
  1. A.Uniform teaching methods
  2. B.Vocational training
  3. C.Academic excellence
  4. D.Addressing diverse learning needs
16
What is a key feature of Universal Design for Learning (UDL)?
  1. A.Standardized assessments
  2. B.Uniform curriculum
  3. C.Strict discipline
  4. D.Flexible teaching methods for diverse learners
17
Which constitutional value promotes equal educational opportunities?
  1. A.Egalitarianism
  2. B.Secularism
  3. C.Democracy
  4. D.Socialism
18
What is a key barrier to education in India?
  1. A.Excessive teacher training
  2. B.Lack of vocational training
  3. C.Affordability and accessibility issues
  4. D.Overemphasis on academics
19
Which pre-independence commission focused on education in India?
  1. A.Kothari Commission
  2. B.Mudaliar Commission
  3. C.Radhakrishnan Commission
  4. D.Hunter Commission
20
What was the focus of the Kothari Commission (1964-66)?
  1. A.Vocational training
  2. B.Teacher recruitment
  3. C.Comprehensive education reform
  4. D.Higher education funding
21
Which policy promotes free education for children aged 6-14?
  1. A.SSA
  2. B.RMSA
  3. C.RUSA
  4. D.RTE Act, 2009
22
What is a key feature of non-formal education?
  1. A.Rigid curriculum
  2. B.Standardized assessments
  3. C.Competitive exams
  4. D.Flexible learning for out-of-school children
23
What does brain drain refer to in education?
  1. A.Lack of teachers
  2. B.Vocational training gaps
  3. C.Dropout rates
  4. D.Migration of skilled professionals abroad
24
Which initiative promotes skill development in schools?
  1. A.SSA
  2. B.Samagra Shiksha
  3. C.RMSA
  4. D.RUSA
25
What is a key objective of the Functional Literacy Programme?
  1. A.Higher education access
  2. B.Basic literacy for adults
  3. C.Vocational training
  4. D.Competitive exam preparation
26
Which constitutional provision supports education for all?
  1. A.Article 21A
  2. B.Article 356
  3. C.Article 370
  4. D.Article 19
27
What is a major challenge in achieving universal elementary education?
  1. A.Lack of vocational training
  2. B.Teacher shortages
  3. C.Excessive academic rigor
  4. D.High dropout rates
28
What is the purpose of the RTE Act, 2009?
  1. A.Higher education reform
  2. B.Free and compulsory education for children
  3. C.Vocational training
  4. D.Teacher recruitment
29
Which scheme integrates pre-school to higher secondary education?
  1. A.SSA
  2. B.RMSA
  3. C.RUSA
  4. D.Samagra Shiksha
30
What is a key feature of informal education?
  1. A.Structured curriculum
  2. B.Formal assessments
  3. C.Standardized tests
  4. D.Learning through daily experiences

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
3
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
4
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
5
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A.1946
  2. B.1947
  3. C.1948
  4. D.1950
6
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
  1. A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  2. B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  4. D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
7
Which is the longest river in India?
  1. A.Yamuna
  2. B.Ganges
  3. C.Brahmaputra
  4. D.Godavari
8
Which period is considered the golden age of Tamil literature?
  1. A.Sangam Age
  2. B.Chola Period
  3. C.Vijayanagara Empire
  4. D.British Rule
9
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
  1. A.Uttar Pradesh
  2. B.Rajasthan
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Gujarat
10
What does the abbreviation "UNESCO" stand for?
  1. A.United Nations Environment and Sustainable Organization
  2. B.United Nations Economic and Social Council
  3. C.Universal Network for Educational Standards and Cooperation
  4. D.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Question for TN TRB PG Assistant (Economics) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam