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Latest TN TRB Polytechnic Lecturer EEE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Computer Science, Mathematics, Civil, Physics, Chemistry, Current Affairs
Question Bank TN TRB Polytechnic Lecturer EEE Exam (Civil) - English
Computer Science
Q 1 :
When two number are added in excess-3 code and the sum is less than 9 , then in order to get the correct answer it is necessary to
A.subtract 0011 from the sum
B.add 0011 to the sum
C.subtract 0110 from the sum
D.add 0110 to the sum
Q 2 :
The characteristic equation of an SR filp-flop is given by
A.Qn+1 = S+RQn
B.Qn+1 = S n+ Qn
C.Qn+1 = รขโฌโน + RQn
D.Qn+1 = S+ Qn
Q 3 :
A graph with n vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree , is
A.Connected
B.disconnected
C.Euler
D.A circuit
Q 4 :
Networks that use different technologies can be connected by using
A.Packets
B.Switches
C.Bridges
D.Routers
Q 5 :
A read bit can be read
A.and written by CPU
B.and written by peripheral
C.by peripheral and written by CPU
D.by CPU and written by the peripheral
Q 6 :
The term ‘aging’ refers to
A.booting up the priority of the process in multi-level of queue without feedback .
B.gradually increasing the priority of job that wait in the system for a long time to remedy infinite booking .
C.keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of LRU replacement .
D.letting jobs reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the no pages required can be estimated accurately
Q 7 :
Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1 ,r2………….. rn To be run on a uni processor machine . Which of the following processer scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum throughput ?
A.Round Robin
B.Shortest job first
C.Highest response ratio first
D.First come first served
Q 8 :
Consider a job scheduling program with 4 jobs J1 , J2, J3 and J4 With corresponding deadlines : (d1 , d2 , d3 , d4) = (4, 2, 4, 2). Which of the following is not a feasible schedule without violating any job schedule?
A.J2, J4, J1, J3
B.J4, J1, J2, J3
C.J4, J2, J1, J3
D.J4, J2, J3, J1
Q 9 :
By using a eight bit optical encoder the degree of resolution that can be obtained is (approximately)
A.1.8o
B.3.4 o
C.2.8 o
D.1.4 o
Q 10 :
The principal of the locality of reference justifies the use of
A.virtual memory
B.interrupts
C.main memory
D.cache memory
Q 11 :
Consider the following pseudo-code
x ; = 1;
I ; = 1;
While (x,=1000) begin
x ; =2x;
i ; = i+1;end;
what is the value of I at the end of the pseudo-code
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
Q 12 :
The five items : A, B, C, D and E are pushed in stack, one after other starting from A. The stack is popped four items and each element is inserted in a queue . The two element are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack, Now one item is popped from the stack . The popped item is
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Q 13 :
Round Robin schedule is essentially the pre-emptive version of
A.FIFO
B.Shortest job first
C.Shortest remaining time
D.Longest remaining time
Q 14 :
The number of digit 1 present in the binary representative of 3 x 512 + 7 x 6 + 5 x 8 + 3 ? is
A.8
B.9
C.10
D.12
Q 15 :
Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is
A.109
B.216
C.218
D.219
Q 16 :
If the bandwidth of a single is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest frequency
A.5 kHz
B.10 kHz
C.I47 kHz
D.57 kHz
Q 17 :
An Ethernet hub
A.Function as a repeater
B.Connects to a digital PBX
C.Connects to a token-ring network
D.Function as a gateway
Q 18 :
Which of the following is an illegal array definition?
Type COLONGE: (LIME, PINE, MUSK, MENTHOL):
A.var a: array (COLONGE) or REAL;
B.var a: array [REAL] of REAL;
C.var a: array [‘A’……..’Z’] of REAL;
D.var a: array [BOOLEAN] of REAL;
Q 19 :
The team phong associated with
A.Ray tracing
B.Shading
C.Hiddenline removal
D.a game
Q 20 :
The Boolean expression is given by
A.A
B.B
C.รขโฌโน
D.AB
Q 21 :
The subnet mask 255.255.255.192
A.extends the network portion to 6 bits
B.extends the network portion to 26 bits
C.extends the network portion to 36 bits
D.has no effects on the network portion of an IP address
Q 22 :
On a LAN, where are IP datagram transported?
A.In the LAN header
B.In the application field
C.In the information field of the LAN frame
D.After the TCP header
Q 23 :
In Ethernet, the source address field in the MAC frame is the ____ address.
A.Original sender’s physical
B.Previous station’s physical
C.Next destination’s physical
D.Original sender’s service port
Q 24 :
Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation?
A.Radio
B.Optical fibers
C.Coaxial cable
D.Twisted pair
Q 25 :
The postfix expression AB + CD – * can be evaluated using a
A.stack
B.tree
C.queue
D.linked list
Mathematics
Q 26 :
The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4 per cent to 5 per cent. The percentage of slump in business is :
A.10 per cent
B.15 per cent
C.20 per cent
D.30 per cent
Q 27 :
A man buys a single apple for Rs 25. If he were to buy a dozen apples, he would have to pay a total amount of Rs 250. What would be the approximate per cent discount he would get on buying a dozen apples?
A.32%
B.20%
C.12%
D.8%
E.17%
Q 28 :
The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs 1,200 in four years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. What would be the simple interest accrued on thrice of that principal at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a in 3 years
A.
Rs 2025
B.
Rs 3025
C.
Rs 2250
D.
Rs 2150
E.
none of these
Q 29 :
If the manufacture gains 10% the wholesale dealer 15% and the retailer 25% then the cost of production of an article whose retail price is Rs 1265 is
A.Rs 632.50
B.Rs 800
C.Rs 814
D.
Rs 834.34
Q 30 :
What profit/loss per cent did Ravi earn if he purchased an item of Rs 5,600 and sold it at three-fourth of its cost price ?
A.Loss of 20 per cent
B.Gain of 25 per cent
C.Neither gain nor loss
D.Loss of 15 per cent
E.None of these
Q 31 :
The decimal expansion of n is
A.terminating
B.non-terminating and non-recurring
C.non-terminating and recurring
D.does not exist
Q 32 :
The square root of is
Q 33 :
If (1101)2 = 1212201 find the value at
A.
110.1
B.
11.01
C.
1.101
D.
11.001
Q 34 :
If , then value of is
A.
7.09
B.
7.1014
C.
7.1104
D.
7.12
Q 35 :
is equal to
A.
–2
B.
2
C.0
D.1
Q 36 :
The square root of is
A.
24
B.
2.4
C.
0.024
D.
1.2
Q 37 :
The simplified value of is
A.
0.075
B.
0.705
C.
0.750
D.
7.500
Q 38 :
The digit in unit's place of the number (1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2 is
A.
4
B.1
C.2
D.3
Q 39 :
If , then the value of is
A.
14.9985
B.
149.985
C.
1499.85
D.
1.49985
Q 40 :
The largest among the numbers (0.1)2 , 0.12 and is
A.
(0.1)2
C.
0.12
Q 41 :
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.10
Q 42 :
If(10.15)2 = 103.0225, then the value of
A.
1025.15
B.
103.515
C.
102.515
D.
102.0515
Q 43 :
is equal to รขโฌโน
A.
12.0
B.
11.5
C.
11.0
D.
10.5
Q 44 :
The number of digits in the square root of 625686734489 is
A.
4
B.5
C.6
D.7
Q 45 :
The simplified value of is
A.
3
B.2
C.4
D.6
Q 46 :
Given that , then the value of is equal to
A.
36.164
B.
37.254
C.
36.254
D.
37.154
Q 47 :
Given that is approximately equal to 4898, is nearly equal to
A.
0.544
B.
1.333
C.
1.633
D.
2.666
Q 48 :
Which of the following numbers 0.1, 0.01, (0.11)2, is greatest?
A.
0.1
B.
0.01
C.
(0.11)2
Q 49 :
The square root of is
Q 50 :
If is
A.
8.661
B.
4.331
C.
1.7321
D.
–1.732
Important Questions Package
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Civil
Q 51 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 52 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 53 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 54 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 55 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 56 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 57 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 58 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 59 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 60 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 61 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 62 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 63 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 64 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 65 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 67 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 68 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 69 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 70 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 71 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.3 and 4
Q 72 :
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 4
B.3 and 4
C.1 and 2
D.2 and 3
Q 73 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.1, 4 and 5
D.3, 4 and 5
Q 74 :
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A.4 and 5
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 4
D.3 and 5
Q 75 :
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 76 :
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A.625
B.480
C.330
D.250
Q 77 :
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Q 78 :
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 79 :
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 2
Q 80 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 81 :
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 82 :
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
A.ASCU treatment
B.Abel’s process
C.Creosoting
D.Tarring
Q 83 :
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 84 :
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 85 :
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A.75 kg/cm3
B.100kg/cm3
C.125 kg/cm3
D.150 kg/cm3
Q 86 :
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
A.English bond
B.Single Flemish bond
C.Double Flemish bond
D.Rat-trap bond
Q 87 :
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 88 :
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
A.Alumina content
B.Iron oxide content
C.Free lime content
D.Durability under sea water
Q 89 :
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 90 :
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
A.3
2
B.2
3
C.3
D.1
3
Physics
Q 91 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 92 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 93 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 94 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 95 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 96 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 97 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 98 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 99 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 100 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 101 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
B.2nรฐยลโน
C.nλ
D.n
Q 102 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 103 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 104 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 105 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 106 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 107 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 108 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 109 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 110 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
Q 111 :
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
A.35o
B.50o
C.55o
D.60o
Q 112 :
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
A.0.015 N
B.0.15 N
C.0.030 N
D.zero
Q 113 :
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
A.emulsions
B.gels
C.foams
D.liquid crystals
Q 114 :
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
A.I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B.scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C.the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D.scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Q 115 :
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
A.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C.cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D.can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Chemistry
Q 116 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 117 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 118 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 119 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 120 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 121 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 122 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 123 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 124 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 125 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 126 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 127 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 128 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 129 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 130 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 131 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 132 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 133 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 134 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 135 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 136 :
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A.Guanine
B.Adenine
C.Uracil
D.Thymine
Q 137 :
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A.7
B.3
C.8
D.14
Q 138 :
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A.Dehydrogenation
B.Dehydration
C.Dehydrohalogenation
D.Dehalogenation
Q 139 :
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A.Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B.Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C.Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D.Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Q 140 :
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A.Ohm
B.Ampere
C.Coulomb
D.Volt
Current Affairs
Q 141 :
What is the name of the next phase of Indiaโs semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 142 :
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the โOliy Darajali Doโstlik Orderโ, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A.Kazakhstan
B.Kyrgyzstan
C.Uzbekistan
D.Tajikistan
Q 143 :
Where was the 2026 SCO Leadersโ Summit held?
A.Tashkent
B.Bishkek
C.Dushanbe
D.Astana
Q 144 :
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A.Strategic Partnership
B.Economic Partnership
C.Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D.Defence Partnership
Q 145 :
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A.ONGC and IOCL
B.GAIL and NTPC
C.PNGRB and EESL
D.HPCL and BPCL
Q 146 :
In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?
A.Kerala
B.Manipur
C.Assam
D.Odisha
Q 147 :
What is the proposed special feature of Biharโs new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?
A.Only online education
B.All students and staff will be women
C.Only foreign students
D.It will focus only on engineering
Q 148 :
How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?
A.39.09 crore
B.59.09 crore
C.49.09 crore
D.69.09 crore
Q 149 :
How much did Indiaโs coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025โ26?
A.โน4,349 crore
B.โน5,038 crore
C.โน7,038 crore
D.โน6,038 crore
Q 150 :
Which company announced an investment of up to โน18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?
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