Question for TN TRB Polytechnic Lecturer EEE 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest TN TRB Polytechnic Lecturer EEE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Computer Science, Mathematics, Mechanical, Physics, Chemistry, Current Affairs

Question Bank TN TRB Polytechnic Lecturer EEE Exam (Mechanical) - English

Computer Science

Question 1Single Answer

When two number are added in excess-3 code and the sum is less than 9 , then in order to get the correct answer it is necessary to

A
subtract 0011 from the sum
B
add 0011 to the sum
C
subtract 0110 from the sum
D
add 0110 to the sum

Question 2Single Answer

The characteristic equation of an SR filp-flop is given by

A
Q_n+1 = S+RQ_n
B
Q_n+1 = S _n+ Q_n
C
Q_n+1= + RQ_n
D
Q_n+1= S+ Q_n

Question 3Single Answer

A graph with n vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree , is

A
Connected
B
disconnected
C
Euler
D
A circuit

Question 4Single Answer

Networks that use different technologies can be connected by using

A
Packets
B
Switches
C
Bridges
D
Routers

Question 5Single Answer

A read bit can be read

A
and written by CPU
B
and written by peripheral
C
by peripheral and written by CPU
D
by CPU and written by the peripheral

Question 6Single Answer

The term ‘aging’ refers to

A
booting up the priority of the process in multi-level of queue without feedback .
B
gradually increasing the priority of job that wait in the system for a long time to remedy infinite booking .
C
keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of LRU replacement .
D
letting jobs reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the no pages required can be estimated accurately

Question 7Single Answer

Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r₁ ,r₂………….. r_nTo be run on a uni processor machine . Which of the following processer scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum throughput ?

A
Round Robin
B
Shortest job first
C
Highest response ratio first
D
First come first served

Question 8Single Answer

Consider a job scheduling program with 4 jobs J₁, J₂, J₃ and J₄With corresponding deadlines : (d₁ , d₂ , d₃ , d₄) = (4, 2, 4, 2). Which of the following is not a feasible schedule without violating any job schedule?

A
J₂, J₄, J₁, J₃
B
J₄, J₁, J₂, J₃
C
J₄, J₂, J₁, J₃
D
J₄, J₂, J₃, J₁

Question 9Single Answer

By using a eight bit optical encoder the degree of resolution that can be obtained is (approximately)

A
1.8^o
B
3.4^o
C
2.8^o
D
1.4^o

Question 10Single Answer

The principal of the locality of reference justifies the use of

A
virtual memory
B
interrupts
C
main memory
D
cache memory

Question 11Single Answer

Consider the following pseudo-code
x ; = 1;
I ; = 1;
While (x,=1000) begin
x ; =2^x;
i ; = i+1;end;
what is the value of I at the end of the pseudo-code

Question 12Single Answer

The five items : A, B, C, D and E are pushed in stack, one after other starting from A. The stack is popped four items and each element is inserted in a queue . The two element are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack, Now one item is popped from the stack . The popped item is

Question 13Single Answer

Round Robin schedule is essentially the pre-emptive version of

A
FIFO
B
Shortest job first
C
Shortest remaining time
D
Longest remaining time

Question 14Single Answer

The number of digit 1 present in the binary representative of 3 x 512 + 7 x 6 + 5 x 8 + 3 ? is

A
8
B
9
C
10
D
12

Question 15Single Answer

Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is

A
109
B
216
C
218
D
219

Question 16Single Answer

If the bandwidth of a single is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest frequency

A
5 kHz
B
10 kHz
C
I47 kHz
D
57 kHz

Question 17Single Answer

An Ethernet hub

A
Function as a repeater
B
Connects to a digital PBX
C
Connects to a token-ring network
D
Function as a gateway

Question 18Single Answer

Which of the following is an illegal array definition?
Type COLONGE: (LIME, PINE, MUSK, MENTHOL):

A
var a: array (COLONGE) or REAL;
B
var a: array [REAL] of REAL;
C
var a: array [‘A’……..’Z’] of REAL;
D
var a: array [BOOLEAN] of REAL;

Question 19Single Answer

The team phong associated with

A
Ray tracing
B
Shading
C
Hiddenline removal
D
a game

Question 20Single Answer

The Boolean expression

is given by

A
A
B
B
C
D
AB

Question 21Single Answer

The subnet mask 255.255.255.192

A
extends the network portion to 6 bits
B
extends the network portion to 26 bits
C
extends the network portion to 36 bits
D
has no effects on the network portion of an IP address

Question 22Single Answer

On a LAN, where are IP datagram transported?

A
In the LAN header
B
In the application field
C
In the information field of the LAN frame
D
After the TCP header

Question 23Single Answer

In Ethernet, the source address field in the MAC frame is the ____ address.

A
Original sender’s physical
B
Previous station’s physical
C
Next destination’s physical
D
Original sender’s service port

Question 24Single Answer

Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation?

A
Radio
B
Optical fibers
C
Coaxial cable
D
Twisted pair

Question 25Single Answer

The postfix expression AB + CD – * can be evaluated using a

A
stack
B
tree
C
queue
D
linked list

Mathematics

Question 26Single Answer

The income of a broker remains unchanged though the rate of commission is increased from 4 per cent to 5 per cent. The percentage of slump in business is :

A
10 per cent
B
15 per cent
C
20 per cent
D
30 per cent

Question 27Single Answer

A man buys a single apple for Rs 25. If he were to buy a dozen apples, he would have to pay a total amount of Rs 250. What would be the approximate per cent discount he would get on buying a dozen apples?

A
32%
B
20%
C
12%
D
8%
E
17%

Question 28Single Answer

The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs 1,200 in four years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. What would be the simple interest accrued on thrice of that principal at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a in 3 years

A
Rs 2025
B
Rs 3025
C
Rs 2250
D
Rs 2150
E
none of these

Question 29Single Answer

If the manufacture gains 10% the wholesale dealer 15% and the retailer 25% then the cost of production of an article whose retail price is Rs 1265 is

A
Rs 632.50
B
Rs 800
C
Rs 814
D
Rs 834.34

Question 30Single Answer

What profit/loss per cent did Ravi earn if he purchased an item of Rs 5,600 and sold it at three-fourth of its cost price ?

A
Loss of 20 per cent
B
Gain of 25 per cent
C
Neither gain nor loss
D
Loss of 15 per cent
E
None of these

Question 31Single Answer

The decimal expansion of n is

A
terminating
B
non-terminating and non-recurring
C
non-terminating and recurring
D
does not exist

Question 32Single Answer

The square root of

Question 33Single Answer

If (1101)²= 1212201 find the value at

A
110.1
B
11.01
C
1.101
D
11.001

Question 34Single Answer

, then value of

A
7.09
B
7.1014
C
7.1104
D
7.12

Question 35Single Answer

is equal to

A
–2
B
2
C
0
D
1

Question 36Single Answer

The square root of is

A
24
B
2.4
C
0.024
D
1.2

Question 37Single Answer

The simplified value of

A
0.075
B
0.705
C
0.750
D
7.500

Question 38Single Answer

The digit in unit's place of the number (1570)²+ (1571)² + (1572)² + (1573)² is

Question 39Single Answer

, then the value of

A
14.9985
B
149.985
C
1499.85
D
1.49985

Question 40Single Answer

The largest among the numbers (0.1)2

, 0.12 and is

A
(0.1)2
B
C
0.12
D

Question 41Single Answer

A
4
B
6
C
8
D
10

Question 42Single Answer

If(10.15)² = 103.0225, then the value of

A
1025.15
B
103.515
C
102.515
D
102.0515

Question 43Single Answer

is equal to

A
12.0
B
11.5
C
11.0
D
10.5

Question 44Single Answer

The number of digits in the square root of 625686734489 is

Question 45Single Answer

The simplified value of

Question 46Single Answer

Given that

, then the value of

is equal to

A
36.164
B
37.254
C
36.254
D
37.154

Question 47Single Answer

Given that

is approximately equal to 4898,

is nearly equal to

A
0.544
B
1.333
C
1.633
D
2.666

Question 48Single Answer

Which of the following numbers 0.1, 0.01, (0.11)²,

is greatest?

A
0.1
B
0.01
C
(0.11)2
D

Question 49Single Answer

The square root of

Question 50Single Answer

A
8.661
B
4.331
C
1.7321
D
–1.732

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Mechanical

Question 51Single Answer

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1

Question 52Single Answer

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Question 53Single Answer

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids

Question 54Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Question 55Single Answer

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 57Single Answer

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible

Question 58Single Answer

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4

Question 59Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 60Single Answer

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing

Question 61Single Answer

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A
3 m/s²
B
6 m/s²
C
9 m/s²
D
15 m/s²

Question 62Single Answer

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8

Question 63Single Answer

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid

Question 64Single Answer

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity

Question 65Single Answer

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm

Question 66Single Answer

Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10^-6m²/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is

A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m

Question 67Single Answer

In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW

Question 68Single Answer

In a hydraulic coupling

A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque

Question 69Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?

A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4

Question 70Single Answer

A water jet 0.0015m²in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is

A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N

Question 71Single Answer

Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n².
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?

A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle

Question 73Single Answer

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in

A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

Question 74Single Answer

Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 10⁵. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be

A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q

Question 75Single Answer

Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be

A
7.5 W/m²K
B
15 W/m²K
C
25 W/m²K
D
35 W/m²K

Question 76Single Answer

For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress

A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance

Question 77Single Answer

Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of

A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal

Question 78Single Answer

Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?

A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream

Question 79Single Answer

Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?

A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces

Question 80Single Answer

Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at

A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube

Question 81Single Answer

For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is

A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re

Question 82Single Answer

The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as

A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency

Question 83Single Answer

A pump is defined as a device which converts

A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above

Question 84Single Answer

The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is

A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available

Question 85Single Answer

Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is

A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed

Question 86Single Answer

The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m² above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be

A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m

Question 87Single Answer

A Newtonian fluid is one which

A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation

Question 88Single Answer

Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to

A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer

Question 89Single Answer

Manometer is a device used for measuring

A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above

Question 90Single Answer

When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is

A
0.10 N/m²
B
0.5 N/m²
C
1.0 N/m²
D
0.15 N/m²

Physics

Question 91Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 92Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 93Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 94Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 95Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 96Single Answer

In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across

A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter

Question 97Single Answer

Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules

A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only

Question 98Single Answer

Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.

A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only

Question 99Single Answer

Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have

A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss

Question 100Single Answer

According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is

A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium

Question 101Single Answer

For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to

A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n

Question 102Single Answer

The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using

A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer

Question 103Single Answer

A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?

A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant

Question 104Single Answer

Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?

A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)

Question 105Single Answer

An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be

A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km

Question 106Single Answer

The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is

A
25 kWh
B
9 x 10¹⁰ kWh
C
3 x 10¹⁰ kWh
D
0.5 x 10⁵ kWh

Question 107Single Answer

The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 10⁴ 48000.50 are respectively

A
5 and 6
B
5 and 7
C
2 and 7
D
2 and 6

Question 108Single Answer

β-decay means emission of electron from

A
innermost electron orbit
B
a stable nucleus
C
outermost electron orbit
D
radioactive nucleus

Question 109Single Answer

An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is

A
0.8 A
B
2.5 A
C
0.4 A
D
1.25 A

Question 110Single Answer

A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is

A
50 s^-2
B
25 s^-2
C
12.5 s^-2
D
6.25 s^-2

Question 111Single Answer

A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35^o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is

A
35^o
B
50^o
C
55^o
D
60^o

Question 112Single Answer

A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms^-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms^-2)

A
0.015 N
B
0.15 N
C
0.030 N
D
zero

Question 113Single Answer

The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called

A
emulsions
B
gels
C
foams
D
liquid crystals

Question 114Single Answer

In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because

A
I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B
scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C
the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D
scattering of I–R light is less than visible light

Question 115Single Answer

Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body

A
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C
cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D
can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle

Chemistry

Question 116Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 117Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 118Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 119Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 120Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

Question 121Single Answer

In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl₂. This is

A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road

Question 122Single Answer

A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is

A
AB₂
B
A₂B
C
AB
D
AB₃

Question 123Single Answer

In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position

Question 124Single Answer

The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with

A
PCI₅
B
PCI₃
C
SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 125Single Answer

The carbon bond length in benzene is

A
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₄
B
same as in C₂H₄
C
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₂
D
in between C₂H₄ and C₂H₂

Question 126Single Answer

The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is

A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal

Question 127Single Answer

An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K₂Cr₂O₇. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is

A
CH₃CH₂OH
B
CH₃ – C – CH₃
C
(CH₃)₂CHOH
D
CH₃CHO

Question 128Single Answer

Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₂N, NH₃

A
NH₃, < (CH₃)₃N < (CH₃)₂NH < CH₃NH₂
B
NH₃ < (CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH
C
(CH₃)₃N < NH₃ < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH
D
CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH < (CH₃)₃N , NH₃

Question 129Single Answer

The one which has least iodine value is

A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil

Question 130Single Answer

A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because

A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously

Question 131Single Answer

There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is

A
8000
B
6470
C
7465
D
5360

Question 132Single Answer

At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO₂ be the same as that of O₂at 303 K ?

A
403 K
B
303 K
C
606 K
D
273 K

Question 133Single Answer

Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is

A
m–bromophenol
B
2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C
2-4 dibromophenol
D
A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols

Question 134Single Answer

In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:

A
Nickel
B
Zinc
C
Sodium
D
Aluminium

Question 135Single Answer

Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO₄and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?

A
Benzyl alcohol
B
Acetophenone
C
Anisole
D
Toluene

Question 136Single Answer

The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:

A
Guanine
B
Adenine
C
Uracil
D
Thymine

Question 137Single Answer

The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:

A
7
B
3
C
8
D
14

Question 138Single Answer

Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :

A
Dehydrogenation
B
Dehydration
C
Dehydrohalogenation
D
Dehalogenation

Question 139Single Answer

Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B
Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C
Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D
Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law

Question 140Single Answer

The unit of quantity of electricity is:

A
Ohm
B
Ampere
C
Coulomb
D
Volt

Current Affairs

Question 141Single Answer

Who were appointed as part-time non-official directors on the RBI Central Board?

A
Raghuram Rajan, Viral Acharya and Ashima Goyal
B
Sanjay Malhotra, Shaktikanta Das and Urjit Patel
C
Annie George Mathew, Janmejaya Kumar Sinha and Syed Akbaruddin
D
T. Rabi Sankar, M. Rajeshwar Rao and Swaminathan J.

Question 142Single Answer

What was India’s GDP growth rate in the April–June quarter of FY 2026–27?

A
6.5%
B
7.8%
C
7.0%
D
8.6%

Question 143Single Answer

Which sector recorded 9.2% growth in India during the April–June 2026 quarter?

A
Agriculture
B
Manufacturing
C
Mining
D
Construction

Question 144Single Answer

Which vessel was commissioned by the Indian Navy in August 2026?

A
INS Nipun
B
INS Vikrant
C
INS Surat
D
INS Nilgiri

Question 145Single Answer

What does the Sanskrit word “Nipun” mean?

A
Powerful
B
Victorious
C
Skilled and proficient
D
Protector

Question 146Single Answer

What is the approximate indigenous content of INS Nipun?

A
60%
B
75%
C
50%
D
90%

Question 147Single Answer

Which Indian state is set to host its first-ever international film festival, ‘Rang-e-Cinema’?

A
Jammu and Kashmir
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Uttarakhand
D
Sikkim

Question 148Single Answer

Who became the youngest player to score a half-century in the Duleep Trophy?

A
Vaibhav Sooryavanshi
B
Yashasvi Jaiswal
C
Ayush Mhatre
D
Sarfaraz Khan

Question 149Single Answer

Which team did India defeat by 94 runs in the Women’s Asia Cup campaign?

A
Sri Lanka
B
Bangladesh
C
Thailand
D
Pakistan

Question 150Single Answer

How many railway lines covering approximately 647 km were approved under the Hybrid Annuity Model?

A
Six
B
Five
C
Eight
D
Four

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