To boost your performance in TNHB Assistant Engineer exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in TNHB Assistant Engineer exams.
Latest TNHB Assistant Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Civil Engineering
Question Bank TNBH Assistant Engineer Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 27 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 28 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 29 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 31 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 32 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 33 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 34 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 35 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 36 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 37 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 38 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 39 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 40 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 41 :
In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
A.Kerala
B.Telangana
C.Gujarat
D.Odisha
Q 42 :
Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
A.Nepal
B.Sri Lanka
C.Bangladesh
D.Myanmar
Q 43 :
What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
A.People Peace Progress
B.Peace for All
C.Plant Peace Partnerships
D.Tribute to Peacekeepers
Q 44 :
As per the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2020’ report released recently, which state/UT recorded the highest accident severity in 2020 ?
A.Kerala
B.Mizoram
C.Assam
D.Himachal Pradesh
Q 45 :
Which is the second state to recognize Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights inside a National Park ?
A.Rajasthan
B.Chhattisgarh
C.Karnataka
D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 46 :
PARAM ANANTA, a state of the art Super computer was commissioned at ……….. on May 30,2022.
A.IIT Kanpur
B.IIT Madras
C.IIT Mumbai
D.IIT Gandhi nagar
Q 47 :
Veteran Journalist Padmanand Jha Passed away on 30 May 2022. He was one of the founding members of ………. Newspaper.
A.The Pioneer
B.Hindustan Times
C.The Hindu
D.The Indian Express
Q 48 :
Who has inaugurated the 3 day 39th Commanders’ Conference of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ?
A.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
B.PM Narendra Modi
C.President Ram Nath Kovind
D.Home Minister Amit Shah
Q 49 :
What is the theme for 8th International Day of Yoga in 2022 ?
A.Yoga for Healthy Body
B.Yoga and World
C.Yoga for Humans
D.Yoga for Humanity
Q 50 :
When does Goa Celebrated its state hood day ?
A.15 March
B.28 May
C.30 May
D.30 April
Important Questions Package
TNHB Assistant Engineer Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy TNHB Assistant Engineer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in TNHB Assistant Engineer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
TNHB Assistant Engineer Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹231[₹500]
Civil Engineering
Q 51 :
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A.Maximum daily demand
B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C.Average demand
D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Q 52 :
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Q 53 :
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A.40.5m3
B.50m3
C.75m3
D.94.7m3
Q 54 :
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A.Flow rate through the tank
B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C.Volume of the sedimentation tank
D.Detention time in the tank
Q 55 :
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 56 :
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A.3.6 mg/l
B.13.6 mg/l
C.33.6 mg/l
D.53.6 mg/l
Q 57 :
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 58 :
Quick sand condition occurs when
A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Q 59 :
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A.5 m2
B.25 m2
C.10 m2
D.20 m2Â
Q 60 :
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 61 :
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic TankÂ
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?Â
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Q 62 :
Sewage sickness relates to
A.Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B.Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C.reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D.Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Q 63 :
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
A.8.6
B.7.9
C.5.4
D.4.5
Q 64 :
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4 only
B.3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 65 :
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 67 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 68 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 69 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 70 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 71 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 72 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 73 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 74 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 75 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 76 :
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A.Sprinkling water
B.Membrane curing
C.High-pressure steam curing
D.Infrared radiation curing
Q 77 :
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A.Compacting factor
B.Slump test
C.Vee-Bee test
D.Kelly Ball test
Q 78 :
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 79 :
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 80 :
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 81 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 82 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 83 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 84 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 85 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 86 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 87 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 88 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 89 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 90 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 91 :
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 92 :
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.2 and 3 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1 and 4 only
Q 93 :
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 94 :
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 95 :
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 96 :
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 97 :
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 98 :
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A.100.6 N/mm2
B.120.4 N/mm2
C.140.2 N/mm2
D.160.0 N/mm2
Q 99 :
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A.Annealing effect
B.Bauschinger effect
C.Strain rate effect
D.Fatigue effect
Q 100 :
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
