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Latest TNPL GET Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Civil Engineering

Question Bank TNPL Graduate Engineer Trainee Exam (Civil Engineerring) - English
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Civil Engineering

Question 1Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 2Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 4 only
Question 3Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 2 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    3 and 4 only
Question 4Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 3 only
  3. C
    1 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 6Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    2, 3 and 4 only
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 8Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A
    100.6 N/mm2
  2. B
    120.4 N/mm2
  3. C
    140.2 N/mm2
  4. D
    160.0 N/mm2
Question 9Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. A
    Annealing effect
  2. B
    Bauschinger effect
  3. C
    Strain rate effect
  4. D
    Fatigue effect
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    3 only
Question 11Single Answer
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
  1. A
    100 N
  2. B
    200 N
  3. C
    300 N
  4. D
    400 N
Question 12Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 4 only
  2. B
    1 and 3 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    2, 3 and 4 only
Question 14Single Answer
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
  1. A
    49.27 mm
  2. B
    39.27 mm
  3. C
    30.27  mm
  4. D
    20.27  mm
Question 15Single Answer
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    3 only
Question 16Single Answer
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
  1. A
    0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
  2. B
    0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  3. C
    4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  4. D
    0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
Question 17Single Answer
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
  1. A
    136 N
  2. B
    131 N
  3. C
    131 N
  4. D
    121 N
Question 18Single Answer
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 19Single Answer
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
  1. A
    SM1 > SM2
  2. B
    SM1 < SM2
  3. C
    SM1 = SM2
  4. D
    Cannot be ascertained
Question 20Single Answer
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1,2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 21Single Answer
A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is
  1. A
    25·0 kN
  2. B
    28·13 kN
  3. C
    31·25 kN
  4. D
    32·81 kN
Question 22Single Answer
According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind speed acting on industrial roof is estimated based on the basic wind speed by multiplying it by factors K1,K2 andK3, where K1 is called
  1. A
    Risk coefficient
  2. B
    Structure size factor
  3. C
    Topography factor
  4. D
    Risk coefficient
Question 23Single Answer
Consider the following two statements regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the location of a concentrated load:
1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing and buckling loads.
2. Bearing area and the area resisting buckling load are the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    2 only
  2. B
    1 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 24Single Answer
In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist
  1. A
    The bending stresses in the flange
  2. B
    The vertical shear force at the section
  3. C
    The horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
  4. D
    The forces causing buckling in the web
Question 25Single Answer
A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm square cross-section is made of M 20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column as by the relevant code is
  1. A
    1069 kN
  2. B
    1198 kN
  3. C
    1548kN
  4. D
    1659 kN
Question 26Single Answer
A rectangular beam of size 230 mm × 350 mm beam is (effective depth). The factored shear force acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the design shear force is nearly
  1. A
    100 kN
  2. B
    80 kN
  3. C
    60kN
  4. D
    20 kN
Question 27Single Answer
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment occurs at
  1. A
    The inside face of the heavier column
  2. B
    A section equidistant from both the columns
  3. C
    A section subjected to maximum shear force
  4. D
    A section subjected to zero shear force
Question 28Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum steel requirements of slabs are based on considerations of shrinkage and temperature effects alone, and not on strength.
2. Providing excessive reinforcement in beams can result in congestion, thereby adversely affecting the proper placement and compaction of concrete.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 29Single Answer
A T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular beam with width equal to its flange width when the neutral axis is
  1. A
    Through the geometrical centre of the beam
  2. B
    At the junction of the rib and the flange
  3. C
    Below the slab
  4. D
    Within the flange
Question 30Single Answer
Consider the following statements in the light of IS : 456 - 2000 :
1. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even with shear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in diagonal compression.
2. A rectangular concrete slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-way slab for certain definable support conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 31Single Answer
A simply supported prestressed concrete beam is of 25m span. The initial stress is 1000 MPA. The slip in the jack during tensioning has been 2mm. If ES = 200 GPa, the loss of prestress due to anchorage slip is
  1. A
    16%
  2. B
    12%
  3. C
    10%
  4. D
    1.6%
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following measures are relevantly considered for earthquake loading and lateral stability of tall buildings?
1. Minimizing gravity loads
2. Adding masses at floor levels
3. Ensuring ductility at the locations of maximum moments
4. Providing shear walls
5. Providing basement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 5 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    3, 4 and 5 only
Question 33Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct for a non-critical activity?
1. It demands very special attention and action.
2. One can do with normal attention to this activity with some leeway for action.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 34Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding tendering for a civil work:
1. Earnest money deposit (EMD) is a prerequisite to tender for a work.
2. It is not essential to call for the contractor’s credentials when a tender is invited.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding quality control:
1. It refers to absolute conformity to specifications.
2. It may not vouch against overspending.
3. It may unknowingly resort to overdesign in the hope of risk minimization.
4. It is intended to reduce maintenance costs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 3 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    1 and 4 only
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Depression of mercury in a capillary tube is dependent on density and surface tension.
2. Modeling of flow-induced drag on a ship is done invoking both of Froude number 30. and Reynolds number.
3. Flow of a fluid in a narrow pipe is relatable to both Reynolds number and Cauchy number.
4. Formation and collapse of a soap bubble is analyzed through employing surface tension and external pressure.
5. Flow over the downstream slope of an ogee spillway can be affected by surface tension.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 4 only
  2. B
    1, 3 and 5 only
  3. C
    2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    3, 4 and 5 only
Question 37Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding flow net:
1. It helps determine the quantity of seepage.
2. It helps determine the upward lift below a hydraulic structure.
3. It is applicable to rotational flow only.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 2 only
  2. B
    1 and 3 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 38Single Answer
Hydraulic jump forms in a horizontal rectangular channel carrying a unit discharge of 1.019 m3/sec/m at a depth of 101.9 mm. This jump is classified as
  1. A
    Weak jump
  2. B
    Oscillating jump
  3. C
    Steady jump
  4. D
    Strong jump
Question 39Single Answer
A man, 65 kg, descends to the ground with the help of a parachute, 18 kg. The parachute is hemispherical in shape, 2m diameter. Density of air can be taken as 0.00125 g/cm3 and its kinematic viscosity as 0.15 stoke. What is the terminal velocity of the parachute? (Take CD = 1.5 and g = 1000 cm/sec2)
  1. A
    16.6 m/sec
  2. B
    15.8 m/sec
  3. C
    15.0 m/sec
  4. D
    14.1 m/sec
Question 40Single Answer
In a wide rectangular channel, the normal depth is increased by 20%. This would mean an increase in the discharge of the channel nearly by
  1. A
    20%
  2. B
    26%
  3. C
    36%
  4. D
    56%
Question 41Single Answer
At a sluice gate across a rectangular channel, the upstream flow conditions are: depth of 2.0 m; velocity of flow of 1.25 m/sec. The flow conditions at the vena contract just downstream of the gate can be taken as: depth of 0.44 m; velocity of flow of 5.68 m/sec. What is the total thrust on the gate on its upstream face (to the nearest 10 units)?
  1. A
    770 kgf
  2. B
    800 kgf
  3. C
    825 kgf
  4. D
    870 kgf
Question 42Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a turbine:
1. Specific speed plays an important role in the selection of the type of turbine.
2. An increase in specific speed of the turbine is accompanied by higher maximum efficiency.
3. The runner of too high specific speed with high available head increases the cost of the turbine on account of the high mechanical strength required.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 43Single Answer
In a hydraulic machine, the moment of momentum of water is reduced by 15915 N.m, when the machine is rotating at 600 rpm. The power developed is
  1. A
    1000 kW
  2. B
    1500 kW
  3. C
    2000 kW
  4. D
    2500 kW
Question 44Single Answer
Consider the following statements in connection with hydraulic turbines:
1. The Kaplan turbine is a radial flow turbine in which the guide vane angles as well as the runner vane angles are adjustable.2. Francis and Kaplan turbines are provided with draft tubes which carry water from exit of runner to tail water to increase the gross-head across the turbine.
3. The parts of turbines susceptible to cavitation are the guide vanes and runner vanes — drastically reducing the turbine efficiency.
4. The specific speed of a 4-jet Pelton turbine will be 28 if the specific speed of a single-jet Pelton turbine is 14.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 3 only
  3. C
    1 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 4 only
Question 45Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Surge tanks are not substitutes for forebays.
2. Pumped storage power plants are a boon to power generation.
3. Water hammer in penstocks is not dangerous.
4. Kaplan turbines are used in low head power plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 4 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 46Single Answer
In the standard SCS-CN method of modelling runoff due to daily rainfall, if CN = 75, the runoff magnitude for a one-day rainfall of 100 mm is nearly
  1. A
    17 mm
  2. B
    31 mm
  3. C
    41 mm
  4. D
    57 mm
Question 47Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning precipitation:
1. The Isohyetal map method of determining the average precipitation is considered to be better than the Thiessen method.
2. There is no possibility of damaging the storms because of cloud seeding activity.
3. Water that percolates through the soil emerges as the dry weather flow in streams.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    1 and 2 only
  2. B
    1 and 3 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 48Single Answer
The probability of a 10-year flood to occur at least once in the next 4 years is
  1. A
    45%
  2. B
    35%
  3. C
    30%
  4. D
    20%
Question 49Single Answer
Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
  1. A
    Meander length to width of the meander
  2. B
    Meander length to width of the river
  3. C
    Curved length along the river to the direct axial length of the river
  4. D
    Direct axial length of the river to the curved length along the river
Question 50Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of ground water aquifers:
1. Specific storage is specific capacity per unit depth of the aquifer.
2. Specific capacity is storage coefficient per unit aquifer depth.
3. Specific capacity is a constant for a given well.
4. For one-dimensional flow in a confined aquifer between two water bodies, the piezometric head line in the aquifer is a straight line.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A
    2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2 and 4 only
  3. C
    1 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 4 only
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