the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
A
Phytochromes
B
Stomata
C
Enzymes
D
Phytohormones
Question 502Single Answer
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
A
Sharks
B
Rays and skates
C
Hilsa ilisha
D
Catla catla
Question 503Single Answer
Plasmids occur in:
A
Viruses
B
Chromosomes
C
Bacteria
D
Chloroplasts
Question 504Single Answer
Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
A
Nitro – phosphate bond
B
Adeno – phosphate bond
C
Phosphoester bond
D
Phosphoanhydride bond
Question 506Single Answer
The protists have:
A
Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
B
Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
C
Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
D
Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Question 507Single Answer
Antrum is the cavity of:
A
Gastrula
B
Graffian follicle
C
Ovary
D
Blastula
Question 508Single Answer
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A
Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
B
Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
C
Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
D
Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Question 509Single Answer
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
A
Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
B
Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
C
Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
D
Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Question 510Single Answer
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
A
These cells never produce glands
B
The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C
Tissues are highly vascularized
D
Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Question 511Single Answer
Great Indian Bustard sanctuary is located in:
A
Rajasthan
B
Maharashtra
C
Pakistan
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 512Single Answer
The result of ozone hole is:
A
Acid rain
B
Global warming
C
The UV radiations reach the earth
D
Greenhouse effect
Question 513Single Answer
This is not cells of areolar tissue:
A
Macrophages
B
Schwann cell
C
Plasma cell
D
Adipose cell
Question 514Single Answer
The pH of stomach range between:
A
7.1 – 8.2
B
7.6 – 8.6
C
1.5 – 2.0
D
6.8 – 7.2
Question 515Single Answer
Match the name of the experiments listed under column 1 with the aim of the experiment given under column 2; choose the answer which give the correct combination of the alphabets:
column 1
column 2
A.
Gridling experiment
p
Ascent of sap
B.
Cobalt chloride paper method
q
Transpiration
C.
Crescograph
r
Unequel transpiration on leaf surfaces
D.
Bell jar experiment
s
translocation
A
A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
B
A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
C
A = q, B = p, C = s, D = r
D
A = s, B = p, C = q, D = r
Question 516Single Answer
Number of endangered species of angiosperms in India is:
A
15,000
B
500
C
3,000
D
None of these
Question 517Single Answer
Transduction in bacteria is mediated by:
A
Cosmids
B
F - factors
C
Plasmid vectors
D
Phage vectors
Question 518Single Answer
Match the common name of diseases listed under column 1 unit their medical terms listed under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1
Column 2
A.
Blood clotting in small capillaries
p
Rhinitis
B.
Value defects
q
Stenosis
C.
Hay fever
r
Parkinson's disease
D.
Paralysis
s
Coronany thrombosis
A
A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
B
A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p
C
A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
D
A =s, B = p, C = r, D = q
Question 519Single Answer
The cell wall of bacteria is composed of:
A
Murein
B
Chitin
C
Cellulose
D
Suberin
Question 520Single Answer
The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known as:
A
Suppression
B
Inactivation
C
Epistasis
D
Dominance
Question 521Single Answer
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 522Single Answer
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Question 523Single Answer
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 524Single Answer
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 525Single Answer
The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
A
Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B
Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C
Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D
None of the above
Question 526Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian National Congress towards princely states in British India:
1. The Indian National Congress, for the first time at its Nagpur session in 1920, enunciated its policy towards the peoples' movement in the princely states.
2. Post withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the Indian National Congress adopted the policy of total non- interference in the political status of the princely states.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 527Single Answer
Who among the following are associated with the finding of the Indian National Congress?
1. Badruddin Taiyabji
2. A.O. Hume
3. Dinshaw Edulji Wacha
4. Surendranath Banerjee
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 only
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 3 and 4 only
Question 528Single Answer
The moderates were so called because
1. They had rejected the idea of participating in legislative councils and instead believed in peaceful protests.
2. They relied on organised struggle against the British, something that was opposite to the extremist camp.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 529Single Answer
The 'Home charges' mentioned in the drain theory by Dadabhai Naoroji included
1. Profits from local trade monopolies by the British
2. Remittances out of British official's income sent to Europe.
3. Charges of British administrative set up in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
None
Question 530Single Answer
The British used political control to subordinate the Indian economy and society to the needs of the British economy and society. Among them, 'Drain of wealth' was caused by
1. Plunder and taxation.
2. Employment of Englishmen in India (Home charges).
3. Investing British capital in India.
4. Free and unequal trade with India.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
All of the above
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
4 only
Question 531Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Badruddin Tyabji:
1. He never served as the president of the Indian National Congress.
2. He was the first Indian to hold the post of chief justice in Mumbai.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 532Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Amrita Bazar Patrika, one of the oldest newspapers in India, was launched in Bengali.
2. Mahratta was launched by B.G. Tilak in English
Which of the above is/are true?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 533Single Answer
After the perceived failure of the moderates, the extremists continued their expansion and attacks on the British. Main objectives of the extremists were
1. Self-government with dominion status for India
2. Provincial autonomy from Central Legislature
3. More power for the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 only
Question 534Single Answer
Even though the moderates were not very popular among the extremists, they succeeded on a number of fronts. They were successful at
1. Popularising the ideas of democracy, civil liberties and representative institutions
2. Explaining British exploitation of the Indian economy
3. Getting the legislative councils expanded for Indian benefit
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 535Single Answer
In pre-independent India, journal with the name 'Vande Mataram' was started/published by
1. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Bipin Chandra Pal
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 only
Question 536Single Answer
Which of the following about the partition of Bengal is INCORRECT?
A
It was ordered by Curzon.
B
All India Muslim League supported the division of Bengal.
C
It was annulled after the First World War ended.
D
Programme of Swadeshi was adopted to protest against the division.
Question 537Single Answer
With reference to the partition of Bengal, 1905, consider the following statements:
1. It was done when Lord Dalhousie was the governor general of British India.
2. The incident gave birth to the Swadeshi and Rithala movements.
3. New provinces of East Bengal and Assam were created after the partition of Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 only
Question 538Single Answer
The Swadeshi movement that spanned over several decades in India
1. Followed 'moderate methods as well as boycotts of institutions'
2. Was also called the Vande Mataram movement
3. Was based on Gandhian ideals
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 539Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The Muslim community did not oppose the partition of Bengal and did not participate in the Swadeshi movement.
2. The Indian National Congress never had a Muslim president.
Which of these is/are NOT correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 540Single Answer
How is the word 'Swadeshi' different from boycott'as far as the Indian freedom struggle is concerned?
1. Swadeshi was essentially economic movement, boycott was not.
2. While Swadeshi attracted the lower strata of Indian society, boycott attracted the higher strata.
Which of these is/are true?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 541Single Answer
The Swadeshi movement, 1905, in response to the division of Bengal, involved which of the following?
1. Boycott of government service, courts, schools and colleges
2. Promotion of national education through the establishment of national schools and colleges
3. Reviving age-old local governments and empowering them with legal authority
4. Formation of a volunteer armed front that would fight against the British
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 542Single Answer
The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 by the British because
1. They wanted to curb revolutionary terrorism
2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply against a division of Bengal
3. A divided Bengal was becoming difficult to administer
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 only
Question 543Single Answer
With reference to Swadeshi movement and use of Khadi during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:
1. During the Swadeshi movement, the change of fabric to Khadi appealed largely to the upper castes and classes rather than to the poor.
2. The use of Khadi appealed and even after the Swadeshi Khadi was used by both the lower classes of people.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 544Single Answer
The movement that precedes the first split in the Indian National Congress between 'moderates' and 'extremists' is
A
The Swadeshi movement
B
The Quit India movement
C
The Non-Cooperation movement
D
The Civil Disobedient movement
Question 545Single Answer
Consider the following statements. The Indian National Congress was divided into two groups
1. Between extremists and moderates
2. In 1915 at the Lucknow Session
3. Based on a resolution passed in the leadership of Pandit Nehru
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 546Single Answer
Which of the following is/are related with the relationship between the faction of moderates and extremists as far as the Indian national movement is concerned?
1. Surat Split 1907
2. Lucknow Pact 1916
3. August Declaration 1917
4. Lahore Session Congress 1929
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 547Single Answer
What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
A
Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
B
Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British government
C
Foundation of the Muslim League
D
Aurobindo Ghosh's inability to be elected as president of the Indian National Congress
Question 548Single Answer
Which of the following was/were the difference(s) between the moderates and the extremists?
1. Boycott of legislative councils
2. Boycott of government institutions and strikes
3. Self-government for India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 549Single Answer
With reference to pre-independent history of India, what was Komagata Maru?
A
It was an Indian steamship that sailed to Japan carrying Muslim passengers.
B
It was a Japanese steamship that sailed to Canada carrying immigrants from Punjab.
C
It was a Canadian steamship that sailed to Japan carrying Indian labourers.
D
It was an Indian steamship that sailed to Canada carrying people from Punjab.
Question 550Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the Komagata Maru incident in September 1914:
1. Thousands of Indians were killed by the Canadian authorities when they tried to enter the national boundaries of Canada.
2. This incident was one of the reasons for the fuelling of the Ghadar movement.
3. The incident evoked a sharp response from the Indian revolutionaries because people from almost all parts of India were onboard the Komagata Maru.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 only
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General Studies
Question 551Single Answer
A manifesto titled The Revolutionary produced as evidence in the Kakori conspiracy case of 1925, was written by
A
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
B
W.C. Banerjee
C
Feroze Shah Mehta
D
Badruddin Tyabji
Question 552Single Answer
Which of the following revolutionary organisations of the colonial period were based out of India?
1. Swadesh Sevak Home
2. Jashn-e-Hind
3. United India House
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 553Single Answer
The Anushilan Samiti formed in 1906 Propounded
A
Constitutional methods to achieve administrative reforms
B
British support for bringing social reforms in India
C
Revolutionary violence as means for ending British rule in India
D
The doctrine of 'Council entry' to weaken the British raj from within
Question 554Single Answer
Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaiji Cama:
1. She co-founded the Paris Indian Society.
2. She once served as the president of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress.
3. She unfurled the national flag at the International Socialist Conference in 1907.
4. She has served as the secretary general of the Indian Home Rule Society.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 555Single Answer
What was common between the following leaders of the national movement?
1. Surya Sen
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjea
3. Bhagwati Charan Vohra
4. Chandrashekhar Azad
Select the correct answer from the following options:
A
All were from Bengal.
B
All were part of the non-violent struggle during the initial days.
C
Except Bhagawati Chandra Vohra, all were revolutionary terrorists.
D
None of the above.
Question 556Single Answer
Why was there an outrage against the enactment of the Defence of India Act 1915?
1. It was an emergency criminal law enacted with the intention of curtailing the nationalist and revolutionary activities.
2. It applied only to Indian subjects and white Europeans were exempt under the provisions of the law.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 557Single Answer
The secretary of state for India had his own reasons for urging restrictions on immigration of Indians to North America. Why?
1. He was worried about Indians getting infected by socialist ideas.
2. He did not want Indians to work with the whites as it was a prestige issue.
3. He was worried about racial discrimination against Indians.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 558Single Answer
In British India, what was the contention against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill amongst the revolutionaries?
1. The act gave more power to the British government and the police against Indian revolutionaries and freedom fighters.
2. It affected the civil liberties of citizens and workers.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 559Single Answer
In Modern India, Yugantar Ashram was
A
The headquarters of the Ghadar party
B
An Ashram adopted by the Indian National Congress in the memory of Mahatma Gandhi
C
A seditious publication of the India House, London
D
A war memorial established by the British government for Indian freedom fighters in 1948
Question 560Single Answer
The Ghadar party was
1. A revolutionary organisation
2. Aiming at securing India's independence from British rule
3. Associated with Rashbehari Bose
4. Was founded in Punjab
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 561Single Answer
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Question 562Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 563Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 564Single Answer
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
A
Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B
Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C
Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D
Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Question 565Single Answer
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
A
Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B
Religious intolerance in the countryside
C
August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D
State of untouchables in the country
Question 566Single Answer
With reference to individual Satyagraha, consider the following:
1. It was launched with an aim to seek independence and self-governance.
2. Women did not participate in individual Satyagraha.
3. Gandhi himself chose the first few individual satyagrahis.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 567Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the August Offer of 1940 of the British government:
1. It abolished the system of communal electorates in India.
2. It suggested the setting up provisional governments in the Princely states.
3. The Congress did not approve the August Offer.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 only
Question 568Single Answer
When did the Muslim League passa resolution committing itself to the creation of a separate nation called 'Pakistan"?
A
First Non-cooperation movement, 1919
B
Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930
C
In 1940, few months after the Congress resigned from the provinces
D
Direct Action Day, 1946
Question 569Single Answer
Which of the following could NOT be a causative factor behind the Bengal Famine, 1943?
A
Spread of communicable and vector- borne diseases such as cholera, malaria and kala-azar
B
Poor agricultural production and rice crop diseases
C
Forced indigo plantations on most of the net sown area of Bengal
D
Debt bondage and land grabbing of Peasants
Question 570Single Answer
Cripps Mission was sent to India by the British because
A
They wanted Indian support to defeat Japan in the World War II
B
After the failure of Third Round Table Conference, British PM promised Indian leaders so
C
British wanted to negotiate the two- nation' theory with Indian leaders
D
British wanted the support of the Princely state armies to defeat Burma
Question 571Single Answer
The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the World War II
A
India should be granted complete Independence
B
India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
C
India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
D
India should be given Dominion status
Question 572Single Answer
Which of the following characterize Dandi march?
1. March covering 1000 miles
2. Over 1000 volunteers marching together
3. Spanned over 500 hours
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
None of the above
Question 573Single Answer
Which of the following statements about the Song "Amar Sonar Bangla' is INCORRECT?
A
It was written during the Quit India Movement.
B
It was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh.
C
It inspired the Liberation Struggle of Bangladesh.
D
Rabindranath Tagore wrote the song.
Question 574Single Answer
The decision to launch the Quit India movement
A
Was taken by Mahatma Gandhi alone
B
Was ratified by the Indian National Congress (INC)
C
Was not taken officially as the movement was spontaneous and sporadic in nature
D
Taken by the Forward Bloc
Question 575Single Answer
'Sankalp Se Sidhi program is being organized across the country to commemorate the 75th Anniversary of
A
Swadeshi movement
B
Komagata Maru incident
C
Quit India Movement
D
Founding of Communist Party of India
Question 576Single Answer
Which of the following events/incidents were precursors to the Quit India movement?
1. Failure of the Cripps' Mission
2. British evacuation (leaving their non- white subjects) from Malaya and Burma because of Japanese invasion of Burma
3. British raising import duty on various Indian manufactured items
Choose the correct answer from the codes.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 577Single Answer
The legendary struggle which also became famous by the name of the ‘August Revolution’ in India was
A
Quit India Movement
B
Civil Disobedience Movement
C
Non-Cooperation Movement
D
Swadeshi Movement
Question 578Single Answer
The Quit India movement
1. Was not ratified by Indian National Congress
2. Was spearheaded by Gandhi
3. Started from Bombay.
4. Was aimed at getting dominion status for India
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 579Single Answer
Which of the following official appeals were made by the leadership of the Quit India movement before launching the struggle?
1. Government servants to resign from their posts.
2. Soldiers to leave their companies.
3. Princely states to declare that they have withdrawn from the suzerainty of the British.
4. Peasants to refuse paying the land revenue.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
All of the above
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
4 only
Question 580Single Answer
Parallel government during Quit India Movement could be found in
1. Ballia in east UP
2. Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal
3. Satara in Maharashtra
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 581Single Answer
The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny was triggered by the issue of
A
General service conditions in the Navy
B
British occupation of India
C
Proposals of the Cabinet Mission
D
Forced participation of India in World War II
Question 582Single Answer
The Indian National Army (INA) agitation in 1945 was against the
1. Killing of large number of Indian soldiers employed by the British in the World War II
2. Repatriation of Indian currency for funding British army abroad
3. Indian National Army (INA) trials who were captured by the British
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 2 only
Question 583Single Answer
The failure of the 'Imphal campaign' quashed any hopes of the INA liberating the nation. The 'Imphal campaign' was
A
Japanese armies' attempt to destroy the Allied forces at Imphal and invade India
B
INA's secret operation to invade India with the help of Burmese army
C
British armies' attempt to destroy the Axis forces at Imphal and invade Imphal
D
None of the above
Question 584Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the pre-Independence Indian National Army (INA).
1. It was formed after the failure of Quit India movement.
2. The idea of the INA was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh.
3. The INA was raised by the Japanese Army and supported by them till our Independence.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 only
Question 585Single Answer
The recommendations of the Cabinet Mission 1946 included
1. Partition of India
2. Constitution of a Unitary government with centralized powers
3. A nominated Constituent Assembly
4. All the members of the Interim cabinet would be Indians
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
2 and 4 only
B
4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
Question 586Single Answer
The Wavell Plan arrived at the Shimla Conference 1945 provided for which of the following?
1. Indianization of the Viceroy's Executive Council
2. Removing any caste and religion based quota in the Executive Council
3. Partition of India
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
I only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 587Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the famous Royal Indian Navy mutiny:
1. It started as a strike in the Indian navy.
2. It was clandestinely orchestrated by the INC leaders.
3. The objective behind the mutiny was to get complete freedom for India.
Which of these is/are true?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
Only 1
D
None of the above
Question 588Single Answer
With reference to the Royal Indian Navy mutiny of 1946, consider the following statements:
1. The Congress leadership not only dissociated itself from the Royal Indian Navy uprising but also opposed it on the ground of indiscipline
2. The committee formed to lead the mutiny demanded the release of all the political prisoners, including the Indian National Army prisoners, and the withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia and Egypt.
3. The mutiny was supported by the Communist parties.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
None of the above
Question 589Single Answer
Communalism in its higher aspect, then, is indispensable to the formation of a harmonious whole in a country like India. The units of Indian society are not territorial as in European countries ... The principle of European democracy cannot be applied to India without recognizing the fact of communal groups. The Muslim demand for the creation of a Muslim India within India is, therefore, perfectly justified...' Who said these words?
A
Muhammad Ali Jinnah
B
Liaqat Ali Khan
C
Muhammad Iqbal
D
Syed Ahmad Khan
Question 590Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The name Pakistan or Pak-stan was coined by Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal.
2. The Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal spoke of the need for a 'North-West Indian Muslim state' as an autonomous unit within a single, loose Indian federation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 591Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. Jinnah called for a-Direct Action Day to press the League's demand for Pakistan after Cabinet Mission initiated dialogue between the Congress and the League failed.
2. In 1945, a Conservative government came to power in Britain and committed itself to granting independence to India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both
B
None
C
2 only
D
I only
Question 592Single Answer
Consider the following statements about the Cabinet Mission plan:
1. It proposed the partition of India with autonomous provinces.
2. It proposed stronger states and a weak centre.
3. The constituent assembly was to be formed on democratic lines.
Choose the correct answer using the given codes.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
I and 3
D
All of the above
Question 593Single Answer
What were the grounds on which the Indian National Congress rejected the Cabinet Mission plan?
1. Weak centre
2. Dominion status for India
3. Disproportionate reservation for Muslims
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
All of the above
Question 594Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Jinnah called for a 'Direct Action Day' to press the League's demand for Pakistan after the failure of Cabinet Mission talks
2. The Cabinet Mission plan envisaged creation of Muslim-majority provinces grouped as-Sindh, Punjab and North- West Frontier Province into one group, and Bengal and Assam into another
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 595Single Answer
Which of the following were NOT the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission 1946?
A
Division of India in two nations based on referendum
B
Recognition of Indian right to cede from the Commonwealth
C
Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, with greater autonomy to states
D
Constituent Assembly to be formed of the representatives of the Provincial Assemblies and the princely states
Question 596Single Answer
The Radcliffe Line was
A
The boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan
B
The agreed line on the partition of Bengal
C
The frontier between East Pakistan and West-Pakistan
D
The line between Indo-China border as historically demarcated by the British
Question 597Single Answer
The Mountbatten Plan logically culminated in
A
The August offer extended by Clement Atlee
B
Indian Independence Act, 1947
C
Wavell Plan of partition of India
D
Royal Indian Naval mutiny
Question 598Single Answer
Consider the following about the events 1946 onwards in Modern India.
1. A Cabinet Mission was sent that proposed convening of a Constituent Assembly comprising members elected by the provincial legislatures and nominees of the Indian states.
2. An interim government was formed headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
3. The Muslim League refused to participate in the deliberations of the Constituent Assembly and pressed for the separate state for Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 599Single Answer
When did the Indian National Congress Working Committee adopt a resolution for the abolition of landlordism?
A
In 1885 with the constitution of INC
B
In 1945, based on a resolution by the Congress Working Committee
C
Karachi Session, 1931
D
The advent of Non-cooperation Movement
Question 600Single Answer
The main point(s) outlined in the British Prime Minister Clement Attlee's statement, 1947 was/were
1. The British would relinquish power only to a Central government and rejected the idea of autonomous provincial governments.
2. Even after India's independence, the princely states would continue to remain a part of British Empire.
3. The British would not transfer power to Indians if the modalities of the framing of constitution are not arrived at by consensus.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
None of the above
Question 601Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 602Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 603Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 604Single Answer
Education has given consciousness.
A
Devotion of
B
Knowledge of
C
recidivism of
D
Sufi Don't of
Question 605Single Answer
The name of the sitar magician is known all over the world for his music.
A
Thyagaraja
B
Tansen
C
Rahim Sen
D
Purandar Slave
Question 606Single Answer
What was the real name of Gautam Buddha?
A
Siddhartha
B
Narendra
C
Devdutt
D
Vishal Dutt
Question 607Single Answer
What was the real name of the famous Urdu poet Mirza Ghalib?
A
Mushtaq Ali
B
Asadullah Khan
C
Saifullah Khan
D
Yusuf Khan
Question 608Single Answer
Path of action Mother Faleshu misfortune,What Religion Granthas of quote Is
A
Shrimad Bhagwat Geeta
B
Ramcharitmanas
C
Ramayana
D
Jayadratha Kill
Question 609Single Answer
Whose disciple was Saint Kabir?
A
Ramanujacharya
B
Vallabhacharya
C
Narharidas
D
Ramanand
Question 610Single Answer
What is the birthplace of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth and last Sikh Guru?
A
Nanded
B
Talbandi
C
Amritsar
D
Patna Sahib
Question 611Single Answer
Where was Adi Shankaracharya born?
A
Kashi
B
Kaladi
C
kanchipuram
D
Madurai
Question 612Single Answer
Where was Jesus Christ born?
A
Beirut In
B
bethlehem In
C
Bevillon In
D
Ebrey In
Question 613Single Answer
Where did Mahatma Buddha's Mahaparinirvana take place?
A
Lumbini
B
Bodh Gaya
C
Kushinagar
D
Kapilavastu
Question 614Single Answer
What was the most important event in the life of Buddha?
A
their Mahaparinirvana
B
their Birth
C
their renunciation of house
D
their Enlightenment
Question 615Single Answer
The famous Urdu poet Mirza Ghalib was originally a resident of which place?
A
Agra
B
Lucknow
C
Delhi
D
Lahore
Question 616Single Answer
Who promoted the Bhakti Movement in Bengal?
A
Consciousness
B
Ramanand
C
Namdev
D
Ramanuja
Question 617Single Answer
Who represented India at the famous World's Parliament of Religions in Chicago?"
A
Owner Shraddhanand has
B
Owner vivekananda has
C
Gopal Krishna Gokhale has
D
Hair Gangadhar Tilak has
Question 618Single Answer
Who gave Tansen, the musicologist and Dhrupad vocalist, the title 'Kanthabharan Vani Vilas'?"
A
Babar
B
Akbar
C
Bairam Mine
D
Jahangir
Question 619Single Answer
"Saint Kabir was born in which place?
A
Delhi
B
Varanasi
C
Mathura
D
Hyderabad
Question 620Single Answer
From whom did Mahavir receive knowledge?
A
Present
B
Anshuman
C
Sudhakar
D
Somdatt
Question 621Single Answer
Whose match are you following?
A
Namdev,Maharashtra
B
Consciousness,Bengal
C
Narasimha Mehta,Gujarat
D
Vallabhacharya,Gujarat
Question 622Single Answer
Sikh Guru Arjun Dev was in whose reign?
A
humayun
B
Akbar
C
Shah Jahan
D
Jahangir
Question 623Single Answer
Who was Mahavir's mother?
A
Yashoda
B
Trishala
C
Jameli
D
Mahamaya
Question 624Single Answer
Who founded the Arya Samaj?
A
Dayanand Saraswati
B
King Ram Mohan Opinion
C
Owner vivekananda
D
Annie Besant
Question 625Single Answer
Which organization was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
A
Prayer Society
B
Brahma Society
C
Ramakrishna Mission
D
Arya Society
Question 626Single Answer
Which of the following is a North Indian dance ?
A
Kathak
B
Manipuri
C
Odyssey
D
Kathakali
Question 627Single Answer
'Kuchipudi' is the dance style of which state ?
A
Kerala
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Karnataka
Question 628Single Answer
Who among the following founded the institution called 'Kalashram' to provide training in dance and related subjects ?
A
Shambhu Maharaj
B
Lachu Maharaj
C
Sitara Devi
D
Birju Maharaj
Question 629Single Answer
In which of the following states did the Mohiniyattam dance form develop ?
A
Odisha
B
Karnataka
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Kerala
Question 630Single Answer
The most popular classical dance in Kerala is -
A
Kuchipudi
B
Kathakali
C
Mohiniyattam
D
Bharatanatyam
Question 631Single Answer
In which state did Bharatnatyam originate ?
A
Gujarat
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Kerala
D
Odisha
Question 632Single Answer
Where is Kathak a dance style from ?
A
Manipur
B
Odisha
C
Kerala
D
Northern India
Question 633Single Answer
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
A
Bharatanatyam-Andhra Pradesh
B
Kuchipudi-Madhya Pradesh
C
Kathakali-Kerala
D
Kathak-Tamil Nadu
Question 634Single Answer
Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
A
Bharatnatyam-Tamil Nadu
B
Kathakali-Karnataka
C
Odissi-Odisha
D
Kuchipudi-Andhra Pradesh
Question 635Single Answer
Match the following -
List - I List - II
A Bharatanatyam 1. Odisha
B Kuchipudi 2. Kerala
C Kathakali 3. Andhra Pradesh
D Odissi 4. Tamil Nadu
Code :
A
4 3 2 1
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 2 3 4
Question 636Single Answer
Match List - I (Classical Dance Style) with List - II (Respective State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -
List - I List - II
A Bharatanatyam 1. Odisha
B Kathakali 2. Tamil Nadu
C Kuchipudi 3. Manipur
4. Seemandhra
5. Kerala
Code :
A
A B C
4 3 1
B
2 5 4
C
4 5 1
D
2 3 4
Question 637Single Answer
Which of the following classical dance styles is not a legacy of the Devdasi dance tradition ?
A
Manipuri
B
Odyssey
C
Kuchipudi
D
Bharatanatyam
Question 638Single Answer
To which dance style is mask dance related ?
A
Kathakali
B
Kuchipudi
C
Odyssey
D
Manipuri
Question 639Single Answer
Sadir is the ancient name of which dance style ?
A
Kathak
B
Odyssey
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Mohiniyattam
Question 640Single Answer
In which classical dance masks are used ?
A
Kathak
B
Kathakali
C
Odyssey
D
Bharatanatyam
Question 641Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 642Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 643Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 644Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 645Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 646Single Answer
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 647Single Answer
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 648Single Answer
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Germany
D
Canada
Question 649Single Answer
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
62nd Amendment
Question 650Single Answer
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A
The Constitution of Canada
B
The Constitution of Ireland
C
The Constitution of Australia
D
The Constitution of USA
Question 651Single Answer
The Constitution of India was drafted by:
A
200 members
B
298 members
C
250 members
D
310 members
Question 652Single Answer
The objective resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Sardar Patel
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
B.R. Ambedkar
Question 653Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
A
Part II
B
Part III
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 654Single Answer
The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
A
UK
B
USA
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 655Single Answer
The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains:
A
52 subjects
B
66 subjects
C
97 subjects
D
61 subjects
Question 656Single Answer
The concept of a 'Federation with a strong centre' is taken from the Constitution of:
A
Canada
B
USA
C
Australia
D
Germany
Question 657Single Answer
The President of the Constituent Assembly was:
A
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Patel
Question 658Single Answer
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
A
Article 14
B
Article 15
C
Article 17
D
Article 19
Question 659Single Answer
The Constitution of India was written in:
A
English only
B
Hindi only
C
Both English and Hindi
D
Regional languages
Question 660Single Answer
The concept of 'Fundamental Duties' was added to the Constitution by the:
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
46th Amendment
D
48th Amendment
Question 661Single Answer
The original Constitution of India contained:
A
395 Articles
B
400 Articles
C
440 Articles
D
460 Articles
Question 662Single Answer
The concept of 'Republic' in the Indian Constitution indicates that:
A
The head of state is elected
B
The head of state is nominated
C
The head of state is hereditary
D
The head of state is appointed
Question 663Single Answer
Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court?
A
Article 32
B
Article 124
C
Article 136
D
Article 148
Question 664Single Answer
The Indian Constitution is described as:
A
Rigid
B
Flexible
C
Rigid and Flexible
D
None of the above
Question 665Single Answer
The Indian Constitution has borrowed the concept of 'Fundamental Rights' from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Ireland
Question 666Single Answer
The power to amend the Constitution is vested in:
A
President
B
Parliament
C
Supreme Court
D
State Legislatures
Question 667Single Answer
Which of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
A
Sarkaria Commission
B
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
C
Swaran Singh Committee
D
Mandal Commission
Question 668Single Answer
The first amendment to the Indian Constitution was made in:
A
1949
B
1950
C
1951
D
1952
Question 669Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union Executive?
A
Part IV
B
Part V
C
Part VI
D
Part VII
Question 670Single Answer
The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship based on the model of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 671Single Answer
Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A
First Schedule
B
Second Schedule
C
Fourth Schedule
D
Sixth Schedule
Question 672Single Answer
The concept of 'Economic and Social Planning' is a feature borrowed from the Constitution of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
USSR
D
Germany
Question 673Single Answer
The Supreme Court of India came into being on:
A
26th January 1950
B
28th January 1950
C
15th August 1947
D
26th November 1949
Question 674Single Answer
The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities on the basis of:
A
Caste
B
Religion
C
Language
D
Region
Question 675Single Answer
The number of languages recognized by the Indian Constitution in the Eighth Schedule is:
A
14
B
15
C
22
D
25
Question 676Single Answer
The feature of 'Bicameralism' in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
France
Question 677Single Answer
The residuary powers of legislation under the Indian Constitution are vested in:
A
State Legislatures
B
Union Parliament
C
President
D
Supreme Court
Question 678Single Answer
Which amendment of the Indian Constitution is known as the 'Mini-Constitution'?
A
24th Amendment
B
39th Amendment
C
42nd Amendment
D
44th Amendment
Question 679Single Answer
Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Finance Commission?
A
Article 280
B
Article 300
C
Article 324
D
Article 368
Question 680Single Answer
The Indian Constitution provides for the concept of 'Equal Protection of Law' in:
A
Article 14
B
Article 19
C
Article 21
D
Article 22
Question 681Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 682Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 683Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
Question 684Single Answer
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B
Sarojini Naidu
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Subramania Bharati
Question 685Single Answer
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
A
Maharashtra
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Karnataka
Question 686Single Answer
What is the name of the traditional Indian art of hand-painting fabric with a pen ?
A
Bandhani
B
Madhubani
C
Kalamkari
D
Pattachitra
Question 687Single Answer
Which instrument is considered as the oldest musical instrument of India ?
A
Sitar
B
Veena
C
Tabla
D
Flute
Question 688Single Answer
Who among the following is known for his contribution to the Indian classical music as a sitar maestro ?
A
Zakir Hussain
B
L. Subramaniam
C
Ravi Shankar
D
Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
Question 689Single Answer
Which of the following is a classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh ?
A
Kathak
B
Bharatanatyam
C
Kuchipudi
D
Manipuri
Question 690Single Answer
The festival of lights, Diwali, is associated with which Hindu epic ?
A
Mahabharata
B
Ramayana
C
Bhagavad Gita
D
Rigveda
Question 691Single Answer
Who was the first Governor-General of independent India ?
A
Lord Mountbatten
B
C. Rajagopalachari
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 692Single Answer
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which year ?
A
1919
B
1920
C
1921
D
1918
Question 693Single Answer
Who among the following was the first to call Mahatma Gandhi as the "Father of the Nation" ?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Subhas Chandra Bose
C
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D
Bhagat Singh
Question 694Single Answer
The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in which year ?
A
1919
B
1920
C
1922
D
1925
Question 695Single Answer
Who was the Viceroy of India during the Quit India Movement ?
A
Lord Wavell
B
Lord Irwin
C
Lord Mountbatten
D
Lord Linlithgow
Question 696Single Answer
Who founded the Indian National Congress ?
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C
A.O. Hume
D
Subhas Chandra Bose
Question 697Single Answer
Which Indian leader gave the slogan "Inquilab Zindabad" ?
A
Bhagat Singh
B
Chandrashekhar Azad
C
Subhas Chandra Bose
D
Lala Lajpat Rai
Question 698Single Answer
The Simon Commission was boycotted by Indians because :
A
It did not include any Indian members
B
It was formed during World War I
C
It was formed to suppress Indian protests
D
It was formed by Lord Curzon
Question 699Single Answer
Which of the following was a revolutionary organization during the Indian freedom struggle ?
A
Indian National Congress
B
Swaraj Party
C
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)
D
Forward Bloc
Question 700Single Answer
Who among the following was the last Mughal emperor of India ?
A
Akbar II
B
Bahadur Shah II
C
Shah Alam II
D
Aurangzeb
Question 701Single Answer
The Dandi March is associated with which movement ?
A
Quit India Movement
B
Non-Cooperation Movement
C
Civil Disobedience Movement
D
Swadeshi Movement
Question 702Single Answer
The 'Ghadar Party' was founded in which country ?
A
India
B
United Kingdom
C
United States
D
Canada
Question 703Single Answer
Who among the following started the 'Home Rule Movement' in India ?
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Annie Besant
C
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D
Both b and c
Question 704Single Answer
In which year was the Rowlatt Act passed ?
A
1919
B
1920
C
1921
D
1918
Question 705Single Answer
Who was the leader of the 1857 Revolt in Kanpur ?
A
Rani Lakshmibai
B
Tantia Tope
C
Nana Saheb
D
Bahadur Shah Zafar
Question 706Single Answer
Which of the following newspapers was started by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa ?
A
Young India
B
Harijan
C
Indian Opinion
D
Navajivan
Question 707Single Answer
Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi ?
A
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C
Dadabhai Naoroji
D
Lala Lajpat Rai
Question 708Single Answer
In which session of the Indian National Congress was the resolution for 'Purna Swaraj' adopted ?
A
Bombay Session, 1915
B
Lucknow Session, 1916
C
Lahore Session, 1929
D
Karachi Session, 1931
Question 709Single Answer
Who among the following was not associated with the 'Aligarh Movement '?
A
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B
Nawab Salimullah Khan
C
Shibli Nomani
D
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Question 710Single Answer
Which Act was passed by the British Parliament in 1935 that introduced provincial autonomy in India ?
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
Indian Councils Act, 1909
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 711Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 712Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 713Single Answer
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A
Ganges
B
Kosi
C
Son
D
Gandak
Question 714Single Answer
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
A
Aravallis
B
Vindhyas
C
Eastern Ghats
D
Himalayas
Question 715Single Answer
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
A
Himalayas and Western Ghats
B
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
C
Vindhyas and Satpuras
D
Aravallis and Satpuras
Question 716Single Answer
Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
A
Gujarat
B
Maharashtra
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 717Single Answer
Which is the only active volcano in India?
A
Deccan Traps
B
Barren Island
C
Narcondam Island
D
Lakshadweep
Question 718Single Answer
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
A
5
B
7
C
8
D
10
Question 719Single Answer
The Western Coastal Plains of India are divided into which three sections?
A
Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel
B
Konkan, Kannad, Malabar
C
Malabar, Coromandel, Northern Circar
D
Konkan, Northern Circar, Malabar
Question 720Single Answer
In which state is the Thar Desert located?
A
Gujarat
B
Rajasthan
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Punjab
Question 721Single Answer
The Lakshadweep Islands are situated in which sea?
A
Arabian Sea
B
Bay of Bengal
C
Indian Ocean
D
Pacific Ocean
Question 722Single Answer
What is the highest peak in South India?
A
Anamudi
B
Doddabetta
C
Mullayanagiri
D
Agasthyamalai
Question 723Single Answer
The Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on which meridian?
A
82.5° E
B
75.5° E
C
90° E
D
70° E
Question 724Single Answer
Which Indian river forms the largest delta in the world?
A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Ganges
D
Narmada
Question 725Single Answer
Which is the largest saltwater lake in India?
A
Chilika Lake
B
Wular Lake
C
Sambhar Lake
D
Dal Lake
Question 726Single Answer
Which region in India is famous for black soil?
A
Rajasthan
B
Deccan Plateau
C
Himalayas
D
Western Ghats
Question 727Single Answer
The Narmada river flows through which range?
A
Vindhyas
B
Satpuras
C
Aravallis
D
Western Ghats
Question 728Single Answer
Which Indian state has the largest forest cover?
A
Madhya Pradesh
B
Chhattisgarh
C
Maharashtra
D
Arunachal Pradesh
Question 729Single Answer
What is the primary river flowing through Jammu & Kashmir?
A
Ganges
B
Chenab
C
Jhelum
D
Sutlej
Question 730Single Answer
Which mountain range is also called the 'Blue Mountains'?
A
Eastern Ghats
B
Nilgiri Hills
C
Western Ghats
D
Vindhyas
Question 731Single Answer
Which state in India is known as the ‘Land of Five Rivers’?
A
Haryana
B
Punjab
C
Bihar
D
Uttar Pradesh
Question 732Single Answer
Which is the largest river basin in India?
A
Godavari Basin
B
Ganges Basin
C
Krishna Basin
D
Brahmaputra Basin
Question 733Single Answer
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located in which water body?
A
Indian Ocean
B
Bay of Bengal
C
Arabian Sea
D
Pacific Ocean
Question 734Single Answer
Which river forms the boundary between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh?
A
Brahmaputra
B
Subansiri
C
Teesta
D
Barak
Question 735Single Answer
Which plateau is known as the 'Roof of India'?
A
Deccan Plateau
B
Chota Nagpur Plateau
C
Ladakh Plateau
D
Shillong Plateau
Question 736Single Answer
Which part of India receives the highest rainfall?
A
Assam
B
Meghalaya
C
Kerala
D
West Bengal
Question 737Single Answer
Which lake is known as the "Floating Lake"?
A
Dal Lake
B
Wular Lake
C
Loktak Lake
D
Chilika Lake
Question 738Single Answer
The Sunderbans forest is known for which animal?
A
Asiatic Lion
B
Royal Bengal Tiger
C
Indian Elephant
D
Indian Rhino
Question 739Single Answer
Which river is known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’ or ‘South Ganges’?
A
Krishna
B
Godavari
C
Kaveri
D
Narmada
Question 740Single Answer
Which mountain range forms the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau?
A
Vindhyas
B
Satpuras
C
Eastern Ghats
D
Aravallis
Question 741Single Answer
Which Indian city is located at the confluence of the Ganges, Yamuna, and mythical Saraswati rivers?
A
Varanasi
B
Allahabad (Prayagraj)
C
Kanpur
D
Patna
Question 742Single Answer
Which river flows through the state of Kerala?
A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Narmada
D
Periyar
Question 743Single Answer
The Shivalik Hills are located in which part of India?
A
Northern India
B
Eastern India
C
Western India
D
Southern India
Question 744Single Answer
Which soil type is most suitable for growing cotton in India?
A
Red soil
B
Black soil
C
Alluvial soil
D
Laterite soil
Question 745Single Answer
Which desert forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan?
A
Gobi
B
Sahara
C
Thar
D
Kalahari
Question 746Single Answer
Which Indian state is famous for its tea plantations in Darjeeling?
A
Assam
B
Kerala
C
Tamil Nadu
D
West Bengal
Question 747Single Answer
The Jog Falls is located on which river?
A
Narmada
B
Sharavati
C
Godavari
D
Krishna
Question 748Single Answer
The capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is:
A
Nicobar
B
Port Blair
C
Kavaratti
D
Rangat
Question 749Single Answer
Which pass connects Kashmir Valley with Ladakh?
A
Zoji La
B
Nathu La
C
Rohtang Pass
D
Bara-Lacha La
Question 750Single Answer
Which Indian river is known for the origin of the Indian civilization?
A
Indus
B
Ganges
C
Yamuna
D
Krishna
Question 751Single Answer
Which sector contributes the highest to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
A
Agriculture
B
Industry
C
Services
D
Manufacturing
Question 752Single Answer
What type of economy does India have?
A
Capitalist
B
Socialist
C
Mixed
D
Communist
Question 753Single Answer
The term 'Demographic Dividend' refers to:
A
Increase in agricultural production
B
Rise in the working-age population
C
Growth in foreign investments
D
Surge in industrial output
Question 754Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian economy?
A
Predominantly urban
B
High dependency on agriculture
C
Low population density
D
Export-oriented manufacturing
Question 755Single Answer
The 'Informal Sector' in India refers to:
A
Organized and registered businesses
B
Unorganized and unregistered businesses
C
Government enterprises
D
Foreign direct investments
Question 756Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for calculating India's GDP?
A
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B
NITI Aayog
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Question 757Single Answer
The term 'Inclusive Growth' in the Indian context means:
A
Growth that includes foreign investments
B
Growth that benefits all sections of society
C
Growth limited to urban areas
D
Growth focused only on industrial sectors
Question 758Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian economy?
A
Large population
B
Predominance of agriculture
C
High per capita income
D
Mixed economic system
Question 759Single Answer
The 'Green Revolution' in India was associated with:
A
Industrial growth
B
Agricultural productivity
C
Information technology
D
Environmental conservation
Question 760Single Answer
Which sector is known as the 'Primary Sector' in the Indian economy?
A
Agriculture and allied activities
B
Manufacturing
C
Services
D
Information Technology
Question 761Single Answer
The First Five-Year Plan in India was launched in:
A
1947
B
1950
C
1951
D
1955
Question 762Single Answer
The main focus of the Second Five-Year Plan was:
A
Agriculture
B
Heavy industries
C
Services
D
Information technology
Question 763Single Answer
Which model was adopted during the Second Five-Year Plan?
A
Harrod-Domar Model
B
Mahalanobis Model
C
Solow Model
D
Keynesian Model
Question 764Single Answer
The Third Five-Year Plan aimed at:
A
Self-reliance in food production
B
Rapid industrialization
C
Expansion of education
D
Development of the service sector
Question 765Single Answer
The concept of 'Rolling Plan' was introduced during which period?
A
1978-1980
B
1985-1990
C
1992-1997
D
2002-2007
Question 766Single Answer
The Eighth Five-Year Plan emphasized:
A
Liberalization and privatization
B
Green Revolution
C
Heavy industries
D
Rural development
Question 767Single Answer
Which Five-Year Plan is also known as the 'Gadgil Yojana'?
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Sixth
Question 768Single Answer
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan aimed for an average annual growth rate of:
A
7%
B
8%
C
9%
D
10%
Question 769Single Answer
The term 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty) was popularized during which Five-Year Plan?
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Sixth
Question 770Single Answer
The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
A
2012
B
2014
C
2015
D
2016
Question 771Single Answer
The main objective of the Eleventh Five-Year Plan was:
A
Faster and more inclusive growth
B
Industrial development
C
Infrastructure expansion
D
Technological advancement
Question 772Single Answer
The Ninth Five-Year Plan focused primarily on:
A
IT sector development
B
Agriculture and rural development
C
Urbanization
D
Defense modernization
Question 773Single Answer
Which Five-Year Plan was terminated one year before its completion?
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Sixth
Question 774Single Answer
The concept of 'Indicative Planning' was adopted during which plan?
A
Seventh
B
Eighth
C
Ninth
D
Tenth
Question 775Single Answer
The approach paper for the Tenth Five-Year Plan emphasized:
A
Poverty alleviation
B
Environmental sustainability
C
Good governance
D
All of the above
Question 776Single Answer
The Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-85) is also known as:
A
Rolling Plan
B
Janata Plan
C
Garibi Hatao Plan
D
Infrastructure Plan
Question 777Single Answer
The main focus of the Seventh Five-Year Plan was:
A
Industrial growth
B
Food security
C
Energy production
D
Employment generation
Question 778Single Answer
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan period was:
A
2007-2012
B
2012-2017
C
2015-2020
D
2017-2022
Question 779Single Answer
The term ‘Human Capital Formation’ was emphasized in which Five-Year Plan?
A
Fifth
B
Sixth
C
Seventh
D
Eighth
Question 780Single Answer
The Eleventh Five-Year Plan was also known as:
A
Infrastructure Development Plan
B
Inclusive Growth Plan
C
Agricultural Growth Plan
D
Economic Reforms Plan
Question 781Single Answer
The Tenth Five-Year Plan aimed to double the per capita income by:
A
2010
B
2015
C
2020
D
2025
Question 782Single Answer
The First Five-Year Plan was based on which model?
A
Harrod-Domar Model
B
Mahalanobis Model
C
Keynesian Model
D
Solow Growth Model
Question 783Single Answer
The Second Five-Year Plan emphasized the development of:
A
Agriculture
B
Heavy industries
C
Small-scale industries
D
Infrastructure
Question 784Single Answer
Which Five-Year Plan is also known as the ‘Employment-Oriented Plan’?
A
Sixth
B
Seventh
C
Eighth
D
Ninth
Question 785Single Answer
The Planning Commission was established in which year?
A
1947
B
1950
C
1951
D
1952
Question 786Single Answer
The first chairman of the Planning Commission was:
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
Sardar Patel
Question 787Single Answer
NITI Aayog was established in which year?
A
2012
B
2014
C
2015
D
2016
Question 788Single Answer
Which body replaced the Planning Commission in India?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
NITI Aayog
C
Economic Advisory Council
D
Finance Commission
Question 789Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog?
A
The President of India
B
The Prime Minister of India
C
The Finance Minister of India
D
The RBI Governor
Question 790Single Answer
The NITI Aayog functions under the:
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Home Affairs
C
Ministry of Planning
D
Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
Question 791Single Answer
Which period is considered the golden age of Tamil literature?
A
Sangam Age
B
Chola Period
C
Vijayanagara Empire
D
British Rule
Question 792Single Answer
What is the main source of information about the Sangam period?
A
Rock Edicts
B
Sangam Literature
C
Inscriptions in Temples
D
Palm Leaf Manuscripts
Question 793Single Answer
Which Sangam text is considered a comprehensive work on ethics and morality?
A
Tolkappiyam
B
Silappadikaram
C
Thirukkural
D
Manimekalai
Question 794Single Answer
The Megalithic culture in Tamil Nadu is associated with which archaeological site?
A
Adichanallur
B
Keeladi
C
Poompuhar
D
Kodumanal
Question 795Single Answer
Which major archaeological discovery in Tamil Nadu provided evidence of an advanced urban civilization similar to the Indus Valley?
A
Keeladi Excavation
B
Arikamedu
C
Adichanallur
D
Korkai
Question 796Single Answer
Which Sangam-era port was an important trade center with Rome and Greece?
A
Kaveripoompattinam
B
Kanchipuram
C
Madurai
D
Thanjavur
Question 797Single Answer
Who is considered the father of Tamil literature?
A
Avvaiyar
B
Thiruvalluvar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Ilango Adigal
Question 798Single Answer
The term 'Sangam' in Sangam Literature refers to:
A
A religious text
B
A literary academy
C
A political organization
D
A war council
Question 799Single Answer
Which epic describes the story of Kovalan and Kannagi?
A
Silappadikaram
B
Manimekalai
C
Purananuru
D
Periya Puranam
Question 800Single Answer
Who wrote the Tamil grammar book ‘Tolkappiyam’?
A
Ilango Adigal
B
Thiruvalluvar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Kambar
Question 801Single Answer
Which Tamil epic is known for its Buddhist influences?
A
Silappadikaram
B
Manimekalai
C
Purananuru
D
Thirukkural
Question 802Single Answer
Which dynasty was prominent during the Sangam period?
A
Chola
B
Pallava
C
Chera
D
All of the above
Question 803Single Answer
The famous Tamil poetess Avvaiyar was associated with which period?
A
Sangam Age
B
Pallava Period
C
Chola Period
D
Vijayanagara Period
Question 804Single Answer
Which inscription provides information about Tamil-Brahmi script?
A
Keeladi Inscriptions
B
Korkai Inscriptions
C
Edakkal Inscriptions
D
Adichanallur Inscriptions
Question 805Single Answer
Which ancient Tamil text discusses the ethics of kingship?
A
Purananuru
B
Agananuru
C
Tirukkural
D
Silappadikaram
Question 806Single Answer
Who composed the Periya Puranam?
A
Sekkizhar
B
Kamban
C
Thiruvalluvar
D
Ilango Adigal
Question 807Single Answer
What was the primary economic activity of the Sangam period?
A
Agriculture
B
Trade
C
Handicrafts
D
All of the above
Question 808Single Answer
Which Chola king built the famous Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur?
A
Rajaraja Chola I
B
Rajendra Chola I
C
Aditya Chola I
D
Kulothunga Chola I
Question 809Single Answer
Which river was significant to the civilization of the Sangam period?
A
Ganga
B
Yamuna
C
Kaveri
D
Narmada
Question 810Single Answer
Who is regarded as the first poet of Tamil literature?
A
Kapilar
B
Avvaiyar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Thiruvalluvar
Question 811Single Answer
Which Tamil text provides details about the trade and economy of the Sangam period?
A
Pattinappalai
B
Silappadikaram
C
Manimekalai
D
Purananuru
Question 812Single Answer
Which ancient Tamil grammar book classifies Tamil poetry into Agam (love) and Puram (war)?
A
Tolkappiyam
B
Nannul
C
Periyapuranam
D
Kambaramayanam
Question 813Single Answer
Which Sangam literature collection contains 400 poems describing heroic deeds?
A
Agananuru
B
Purananuru
C
Natrinai
D
Kurunthogai
Question 814Single Answer
Which foreign traveler mentioned the Tamil society and its flourishing trade during the Sangam period?
A
Megasthenes
B
Ptolemy
C
Strabo
D
Fa-Hien
Question 815Single Answer
Keeladi excavation in Tamil Nadu provides evidence of which ancient civilization?
A
Indus Valley Civilization
B
Vedic Civilization
C
Sangam Age Civilization
D
Mauryan Civilization
Question 816Single Answer
Which ancient Tamil port town is believed to have been submerged under the sea?
A
Korkai
B
Poompuhar
C
Arikamedu
D
Uraiyur
Question 817Single Answer
Which Pandya king was a great patron of Tamil literature?
A
Nedunchezhiyan
B
Rajaraja Chola
C
Mahendravarman
D
Pulakesin II
Question 818Single Answer
Which Sangam poet praised Chera kings in his poems?
A
Kapilar
B
Ilango Adigal
C
Nakkirar
D
Avvaiyar
Question 819Single Answer
Which literary work is known as the ‘Bible of the Tamil land’?
A
Silappadikaram
B
Manimekalai
C
Thirukkural
D
Tolkappiyam
Question 820Single Answer
Who is credited with writing ‘Silappadikaram’?
A
Ilango Adigal
B
Thiruvalluvar
C
Avvaiyar
D
Kambar
Question 821Single Answer
The concept of ‘Aham’ and ‘Puram’ is prominent in which type of Tamil literature?
A
Bhakti Literature
B
Sangam Literature
C
Jain Literature
D
Chola Literature
Question 822Single Answer
Which dynasty was associated with the port town of Korkai?
A
Chera
B
Chola
C
Pandya
D
Pallava
Question 823Single Answer
Who is known as the ‘King of Tamil Poets’ (Kavichakravarti)?
A
Kamban
B
Subramania Bharathi
C
Ilango Adigal
D
Tolkappiyar
Question 824Single Answer
Which Tamil inscription provides information about the naval power of the Cholas?
A
Kanchipuram Inscriptions
B
Thanjavur Inscriptions
C
Anaimangalam Copper Plates
D
Keeladi Inscriptions
Question 825Single Answer
Who was the famous Tamil poet of the Bhakti movement known for his devotional hymns?
A
Thirugnana Sambandar
B
Tolkappiyar
C
Kapilar
D
Bharathidasan
Question 826Single Answer
Which Tamil poet wrote ‘Kambaramayanam’?
A
Kambar
B
Ilango Adigal
C
Thiruvalluvar
D
Sekkizhar
Question 827Single Answer
What is the primary theme of the epic ‘Manimekalai’?
A
Hindu philosophy
B
Buddhist teachings
C
Jainism
D
Shaivism
Question 828Single Answer
Which classical Tamil text is considered a political and administrative guide?
A
Tolkappiyam
B
Silappadikaram
C
Tirukkural
D
Agananuru
Question 829Single Answer
What was the capital of the Sangam-era Pandyas?
A
Uraiyur
B
Madurai
C
Kanchipuram
D
Thanjavur
Question 830Single Answer
Which Tamil literary work belongs to the ‘Pathinenkilkanakku’ collection?
A
Tirukkural
B
Silappadikaram
C
Manimekalai
D
Kamba Ramayanam
Aptitude and Mental Ability
Question 831Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 832Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 833Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 834Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 835Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 836Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 837Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 838Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 839Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 840Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 841Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 842Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 843Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 844Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 845Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 846Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 847Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 848Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 849Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 850Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 851Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 852Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 853Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 854Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 855Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 856Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 857Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 858Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 859Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 860Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 861Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 862Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 863Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 864Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 865Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 866Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 867Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
T
B
X
C
A
D
E
E
K
Question 868Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 869Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 870Single Answer
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A
CAKNCA
B
CADMNO
C
CAKNIT
D
JAKINS
Question 871Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 872Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 873Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 874Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 875Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 876Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 877Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 878Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 879Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 880Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 881Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 882Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 883Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 884Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 885Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 886Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 887Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 888Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 889Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 890Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 891Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following letter are based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the following will be second from the left?
A
SAT
B
DEN
C
ROD
D
PIN
E
FUN
Question 892Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on the five three lettered words given below:
SHE AND TWO WIT GUM
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 893Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words each alphabet is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed have the consonants changed to vowels?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 894Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 895Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the first alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in English alphabetical series, how many meaningful English words will be formed?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 896Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the dictionary from left to right, which of the following would be fourth from the left?
A
RAT
B
ONE
C
BUT
D
AND
E
SAW
Question 897Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on five words given below:
RAT ONE BUT AND SAW
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, only the consonants are changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and the vowels are retained, in how many words thus formed will the vowels appear twice or more times? (same or different vowels)
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 898Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order within the word, how many words will NOT begin with a vowel?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 899Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between second letter of the word which is second from the right and the third letter of the word which is third from the left of given words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 900Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 901Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question are based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the last alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 902Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question are based on five words given below:
WIT BAR URN ELF TOP
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
WIT
B
BAR
C
URN
D
ELF
E
TOP
Question 903Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the second alphabet in each of the word is changed to the previous alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words-having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 904Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?
A
MET
B
ARK
C
MOB
D
SKI
E
URN
Question 905Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 906Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between third letter of the word which is fourth from the left and the third letter of the word which is fourth from the right of the given words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
Five
Question 907Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question are based on five words given below
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the position of the first and second letters of all the words are interchanged, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 908Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
None
E
More than three
Question 909Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
FAN HOP GET CUB MID
(Note: The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel? (Same or different vowel)
A
None
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
One
Question 910Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question are based on five words given below:
GUT TOY DEN PAL DAM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many such pairs of the letters are there in the word highlighted in bold, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 911Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 912Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 913Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 914Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 915Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 916Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 917Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 918Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 919Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 920Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 921Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 922Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 923Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 924Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 925Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 926Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 927Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 928Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 929Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 930Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 931Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 932Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 933Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 934Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 935Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 936Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 937Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 938Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 939Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 940Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 941Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 942Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 943Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 944Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 945Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Question 946Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244
B
174
C
186
D
none of these
Question 947Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 years
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 948Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A
2
B
-1
C
1
D
-2
Question 949Single Answer
How many factors does 100 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 950Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 951Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 952Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 953Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 954Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 955Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 956Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 957Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 958Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 959Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
Question 960Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi, is
A
30
B
45
C
50
D
60
Question 961Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
If the number of passengers is 180, then the number of passengers who like lassi only, is
A
10
B
18
C
27
D
36
Question 962Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
In a town three newspapers A, B and C are published. 42% of the people in that town read A, 68% read B, 51% read C, 30% read A and B, 28% read B and C, 36% A and C and 18% do not read any paper. Find the % of the population of town that reads all the three.
A
15%
B
25%
C
20%
D
35%
Question 963Single Answer
Passage :
In the adjoining figure, I and II are circles with ceners P and Q respectively. The two circle touch each other and have a common tangent that touches them at points R and S respectively. This common tangent meets the line joining P and Q at O. The diameters of I and II are in the ratio 4 : 3. It is also known that the length of PO is 28 cm.
What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
A
1 : 4
B
1 : 3
C
3 : 8
D
3 : 4
Question 964Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
The committee should consist of 2 Males, 2 Females and 1 child ?
A
450
B
225
C
55
D
90
Question 965Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
The committee should include all the 3 Childs?
A
90
B
180
C
21
D
55
Question 966Single Answer
Passage :
A committee of five members is to be formed out of 5 Males, 6 Females and 3 Children. In how many different ways can it be done if ?
In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all the boys stand together and all the girls stand together ?
A
75
B
576
C
288
D
24
Question 967Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If four marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are red ?
A
B
C
D
Question 968Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal number of marbles of each other ?
A
B
C
D
Question 969Single Answer
Passage :
An urn contains 4 green, 5 blue, 2 red and 3 yellow marbles.
If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 970Single Answer
Passage :
There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow, Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g. Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is
If x number of yellow balls from bag B are taken and placed into bag A and 20% of black balls from bag A are taken and placed into in bag B. If we pick one ball from bag B then the probability that the ball is of black color is . Then find the value of x ?
A
5
B
6
C
3
D
2
Question 971Single Answer
Passage :
There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow, Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g. Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is
If one ball picked at random from each of the bag A and bag B then find the probability that both of the balls are of the same color ?
A
B
C
D
Can’t be determined
Question 972Single Answer
Passage :
There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow, Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g. Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is
Difference between the number of green balls in bag A and bag C is how much percent more/less than the sum of the number of black balls in bag A and bag C together ?
A
100%
B
95%
C
97.5%
D
102.5%
Question 973Single Answer
Passage :
There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow, Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g. Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is
Panas has 15 yellow, pink and white balls in his bag. Number of each balls is different in the bag. Difference between yellow ball and pink ball is same as difference between pink ball and white ball. Probability of selecting one while ball from the bag is greater than 0.2, then number of while balls in the bag can be
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
(E) 9
A
Only B, C, D and E
B
Only B, D, E
C
All A, B, C, D and E
D
Only C, D, E
Question 974Single Answer
Passage :
There are three bags A, B and C. In each bag there are three types of colored balls Yellow, Green and Black. In bag A, no. of Yellow colored balls are y and no. of green colored balls are g. Number of green colored balls are 4 more than the number of yellow colored balls. When one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting black color ball is The value of y is less than g. In bag B, number of yellow colored balls is more than that of bag A. If two balls are picked at random from bag B then the probability of getting both green color ball is . Total number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green colored balls and number of black colored balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black colored balls is 36. If one ball is picked at random then the probability of getting one yellow ball is
In a bag which contains 60 pens, there are 27 blue pens and some black and red pens. If two pens are picked up from the bag without replacement, then the probability of the first pen being blue and second being black is 9/59. Find the number of red pens in the bag.
A
16
B
13
C
10
D
14
Question 975Single Answer
Passage :
Percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six subjects
Subject (Max Marks I Students
Eng
(100)
His
(100)
Com
100
Maths
(100)
Science
(100)
Econ
(100)
Meera
100
80
50
90
90
60
Subodh
80
70
80
100
80
40
Kunal
90
70
60
90
70
70
Soni
60
60
65
80
80
80
Richu
50
90
62
80
85
95
Irne
40
60
64
70
65
85
Vijay
80
80
35
65
50
75
What is the total marks obtained by Meera in all the subject ?
A
448
B
580
C
470
D
74.67
E
None of these
Question 976Single Answer
Passage :
Percent profit earned by two companies over the given years.
If the income of Company A in 2002 was Rs. 600 crores, what was its expenditure?
A
Rs.360 crores
B
Rs. 480 crores
C
Rs. 375 crores
D
Cannot be deterrmined
E
None of these
Question 977Single Answer
Passage :
Crude oil Price (in RS) per given below :
Crude oil Price (in RS) per metric tonne
If in April the crude oil price had been lesser than the given by Rs 223 per metric tonne then, how much would have been the percentage increase in pricre over the earlier month?
A
10
B
12
C
14
D
16
E
None of these
Question 978Single Answer
Passage :
Production of a company (in lakh units) over the given years
The prodution in 2002 is what percent of production in 1996 ?
A
650%
B
550%
C
325%
D
320%
E
None of these
Question 979Single Answer
Passage :
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects is –
Faculty
Institution
Arts
Commerce
Science
Engineering
Management
A
125
187
216
98
74
B
96
152
198
157
147
C
144
235
110
164
127
D
165
138
245
66
36
E
215
196
287
86
66
F
184
212
195
112
97
G
225
206
182
138
89
Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Q in all the subjects ?
A
77
B
72
C
78
D
70
E
74
Question 980Single Answer
Passage :
Number of students studying in different faculties in seven institutions.
Faculty
Institution
Arts
Commerce
Science
Engineering
Management
A
125
187
216
98
74
B
96
152
198
157
147
C
144
235
110
164
127
D
165
138
245
66
36
E
215
196
287
86
66
F
184
212
195
112
97
G
225
206
182
138
89
What is the percentage of students studying science in the institue G with respect to the total number of students studying in the institute G?
A
17.20
B
12.70
C
D
E
None of these
Question 981Single Answer
Passage :
Production of two companies A & B over the years (Production in lakh units).
For Company A, in which year is the percentage increase/decrease in the production from the previous year the highest ?
A
2001
B
1995
C
1999
D
1996
E
None of these
Question 982Single Answer
Passage :
Centrewise and Postwise number of candidates
Post Specialist Center
Officer
Clerk
Filed Officer
Supervisor
Specialist Officer
Bangalore
2000
5000
50
2050
750
Delhi
15000
17000
160
11000
750
Mumbai
17000
19500
70
7000
900
Hyderabad
3500
20000
300
9000
1150
Kolkata
14900
17650
70
1300
1200
Lucknow
11360
15300
30
1500
650
Chennai
9000
11000
95
1650
500
Which centre has the highest number of candidates ?
A
Delhi
B
Kolkata
C
Hyderabad
D
Mumbai
E
None of these
Question 983Single Answer
Passage :
A factory was opened in 1994 with certain initial strengths in different untis as shown in the table. At the beginning of the subsequent years some of the workers left and some new workers were deployed. No worker left or joined in between. Details are given in the table given below. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
UNIT
Year
A
B
C
D
E
1994
156
132
98
76
125
(Initial Strength)
L
J
L
J
L
J
L
J
L
J
1995
12
15
23
32
12
36
6
26
11
13
1996
17
18
16
14
8
19
17
28
11
15
1997
9
20
12
12
17
14
9
16
19
16
1998
32
40
14
17
23
35
12
23
23
14
1999
22
35
11
15
18
25
14
24
32
38
2000
26
32
17
21
13
18
11
19
21
36
In 1999 the strength of workers was maxmium in which unit ?
A
E
B
D
C
C
D
B
E
A
Question 984Single Answer
Passage :
Percentage of students passed over appeared from six States over the years in an admission test.
State/Year
A
B
C
D
E
F
1996
32
35
37
41
39
29
1997
45
26
29
37
43
37
1998
28
38
22
27
36
42
1999
36
42
38
38
29
45
2000
40
34
26
26
35
30
2001
24
29
33
33
41
36
2002
35
43
40
38
39
28
If the average number of students qualified from State E for the given years was 532, what was the average number of students appeared ?
A
1420
B
1350
C
1422
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these
Question 985Single Answer
Passage :
Number of bales of wool processed by 5 woollen mills
Name Of Company
Month
Polar
Shephered
Kiwi
Warmwear
Comfy
Jan
900
850
350
1000
850
Feb
800
700
1050
1100
850
March
1050
800
1000
1100
950
April
800
850
850
1100
850
May
950
900
1050
1150
850
Total
4500
4100
4900
5450
4350
In the case of which mill is the processing of wool in March the highest percentage of the total processing by that mill during the five month period ?
A
Polar
B
Shephered
C
Kiwi
D
Warmwear
E
Comfy
Question 986Single Answer
Passage :
Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below
In the case of Cool–sip drink, what was the approximate percent increase in sale in 1992 over its sale in 1991?
A
Less than 20
B
20 –25
(a) Less than 20 (b) 20 –25
(c) 25 (d) 31 – 35
(e) 36 – 40
C
25
D
31 – 35
E
36 – 40
Question 987Single Answer
Passage :
In 6 educational years, number of studeunts taking admission and leaving from the 5 different schools which are founded in 1990 are given below.
School
A
B
C
D
E
AD
L
AD
L
AD
L
AD
L
AD
L
1990
1025
-
950
-
1100
-
1500
-
1450
-
1991
230
120
350
150
320
130
340
150
250
125
1992
190
110
225
115
300
150
300
160
280
130
1993
245
100
185
110
260
125
295
120
310
120
1994
280
150
200
90
240
140
320
125
340
110
1995
250
130
240
120
310
180
360
140
325
115
In th above table shown Ad = Admitted, L = Left
In which of the following schools, percentage increase in the number of students from the year 1990 to 1995 is maximum?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
Question 988Single Answer
Passage :
Production (in lakh tons) of six units of a company in 2001 and 2002
Average production of three A, B & C in 2001 is what percent of the average production of units D, E & F in 2002? (rounded off to two digits after decimal).
A
109.43
B
90.37
C
91.38
D
106.43
E
None of these
Question 989Single Answer
Passage :
Percentage profit earned by two companies over the given years.
If the total income of Company A in 1999 was equal to the expenditure of Company B in 2000, then what was the ratio of expenditure of Company A in 1999 to the income of Company B in 2000?