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Latest TNPSC Assistant Jailor Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, General Studies, Aptitude & Mental Ability Test
Question Bank TNPSC Assistant Jailor (Paper-II) Exam-English
General English
Q 1 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 2 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 3 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 4 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 5 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 6 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 7 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 8 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 9 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 10 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The old women placed
B.kettle on fire
C.come back to the bedroom
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The singing is both
B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
C.source of joy and bread to me
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Snake we saw was
B.very deadly thought
C.it left the kitchen quietly
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Being M.A. only he
B.could not be appointed
C.to the post of a lecturer
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
B.but our second one
C.was even more interesting
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B.all the problems of future
C.but he did solve problems of
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Having finished his breakfast
B.he started working on the problem
C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The new railway line will
B.greatly improve transport and communication
C.in eastern part of the country
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It being rainy day most of
B.the people out on the street
C.were carrying umbrellas
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.More you
B.think of it
C.the worse it becomes
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I like to travel
B.by the air as
C.I am a very busy person
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.This is
B.most important
C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Hasan plays
B.both cricket and billiards
C.at the national level
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The USA has a strong army
B.that is capable of fighting
C.against any army of the world
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A man cannot be judged
B.by his external appearance
C.but by internal beauty
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I met the gentleman
B.today morning on my way
C.to the market
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It seems as the Sun
B.is coming much closer because
C.earth is greeting hotter
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I know student
B.who has stolen my book
C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Equator
B.divides the Earth
C.into two hemispheres
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In world of ours
B.one has to compete
C.for almost everything
D.No error
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TNPSC Assistant Jailor Exam Question Bank Book - English
A.It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers
B.who lived in the latter half of the 19th century,
C.were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy
D.No error
Q 65 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Never in the history
B.there has been
C.as shrewd a mentor as Chanakya
D.No error
Q 66 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Outright rejection
B.of my plea
C.disappointed me
D.No error
Q 67 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She did her job
B.as better as she
C.could do
D.No error
Q 68 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She does her
B.work good as she
C.is a trained nurse
D.No error
Q 69 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She had barely
B.nothing to wear
C.when she came to me for help
D.No error
Q 70 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She is either
B.dumb or deaf
C.if not both
D.No error
Q 71 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The article offers
B.good advice to
C.whomever must accept it
D.No error
Q 72 :
She………TV when her husband came .
A.watch
B.was watching
C.is watching
D.WA
Q 73 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.I refused
B.to accompany him
C.because I was so tired
D.No error
Q 74 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She did this
B.work as good as
C.she could do
D.No error
Q 75 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The fruit taster
B.more sweetly than
C.any other fruit
D.No error
Q 76 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy tried to
B.eradicate social evils
C.with tooth and nail
D.No error
Q 77 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.We seldom or ever go
B.to the movie these days because
C.we don’t like moving out
D.No error
Q 78 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Such books
B.which you reads
C.are not worth reading
D.No error
Q 79 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.I have inherited obesity from my parents
B.my son and dam are obese
C.and I am too
D.No error
Q 80 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.In the Marathon, even lame ran
B.very fast and
C.who are often very clever
D.No error
Q 81 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Jaichand was little sorrowful
B.after losing the Tarain battle
C.in 1991 against Prithviraj Chauhan because he was with Mohammad Gauri
D.No error
Q 82 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Raj and Vijay both are my friends
B.but only latter helped
C.me in my difficulties
D.No error
Q 83 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.I gave him two sums to solve
B.but he solved both
C.the sums quietly wrong
D.No error
Q 84 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Pooja is on a good term
B.with Priya because
C.latter is rather intelligent
D.No error
Q 85 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.A test like this one
B.is far too difficult
C.for weak people
D.No error
Q 86 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Sonika worked
B.very hardly
C.as she wanted to be a surgeon
D.No error
Q 87 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She sounded
B.very sadly after
C.the death of her pet
D.No error
Q 88 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Her speech was not clearly
B.but we understood
C.the underlying meaning
D.No error
Q 89 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.All the pupils
B.stood up respectively
C.as the Guru entered the room
D.No error
Q 90 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.I started early
B.for the station lest
C.I should not miss the train
D.No error
Q 91 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The teacher asked
B.the students to
C.talk loudly
D.No error
Q 92 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Though he was brave
B.he could not face the ups and downs
C.of life manly
D.No error
Q 93 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The situation is perilous
B.but if we are prepared promptly to act
C.there is still one chance of escape
D.No error
Q 94 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.She had
B.barely nothing to eat
C.when she came to me last month
D.No error
Q 95 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.The composition contained
B.even no less
C.than twenty mistakes
D.No error
Q 96 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Have you secured
B.first class
C.Yes, I have not secured it
D.No error
Q 97 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.No other man
B.in our country
C.is as richly as he is
D.No error
Q 98 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.He walked quick
B.so that he would
C.not be late
D.No error
Q 99 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Hardly, I had left home for Mumbai
B.when my son who is settled in Kolkata arrived
C.without any prior information
D.No error
Q 100 :
Spot the error part of the following sentences.
A.Meena was so tired
B.that she could not hardly
C.talk to the guests for a few minutes
D.No error
General Studies
Q 101 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 102 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 103 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 104 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 105 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 106 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 107 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 108 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 109 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 110 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 111 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 112 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 113 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 114 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 115 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 116 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 117 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 118 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 119 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 120 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 121 :
Who built Kallanai acrossthe river Kaveri?
A.Raja Raja Chola
B.Karikala Chola
C.Rajendra Chola
D.Senguttuvan
Q 122 :
Mahabalipulram wasestablished by the
A.Pandyas
B.Pallavas
C.Cholas
D.Chzilukyas
Q 123 :
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
A.Neyveli
B.Velage
C.Manali
D.Avadi
Q 124 :
Than javur district, the place Where a rice research station is In
A.Kumbakonam
B.Aduthurai
C.Thanjavur
D.Papanasam
Q 125 :
The Gateway of Tamilnaduis
A.Chennai
B.Tuticorin
C.Kainiyakumari
D.Trichy
Q 126 :
The death rate inTamilnadu during 2002 was
A.44/1000
B.46/1000
C.47/1000
D.51/1000
Q 127 :
According to the censusestimafte of 2001 the rate of literacy in Tamilnadu is
A.72.5%
B.71.5%
C.73.5%
D.70.5%
Q 128 :
Tamilnadu gets maximumrain fall during
A.North-East monsoonseason
B.South-West monsoonseason
C.Summer season
D.Winter season
Q 129 :
Subramaniya I Bharathiedited the Tamil Newspaper?
A.New India
B.Young India
C.Tamil Nadu
D.India
Q 130 :
The smallest district in areain Tamil nadu is
A.Chennai
B.Kanyakumari
C.Tiruchirapally
D.Madurai
Q 131 :
Pulikesin II was defeatedby
A.Harsha
B.Ashoka
C.Narasimha Varma
D.Mahendra Varma
Q 132 :
The Greece-Romanmerchants visiting Tamil-nadu during the SangamAge were referred to in the Tamil Literature is
A.Yavanas
B.Pahalvas
C.Kushans
D.None of these
Q 133 :
The single most important item of import to the Chola empiric was
A.dye stuff
B.horses
C.precious stones
D.metal wares
Q 134 :
The Mahabalipuram sea-shore temple in TamilNadu was built during the:reign of which of the following dynasties?
A.Chola dynasty
B.Chalukya dynasty
C.Pallava dynasty
D.Pandya dynasty
Q 135 :
The inscription which gives details about village administration by assemblies and committees during Pandy a period is
A.Uttaramerur inscription
B.Manur lnscription
C.Aihole lnscription
D.None of these
Q 136 :
Name the Tamil actress who acted with five Chief Ministers
A.S.N. Lakshmi
B.Bhanumathi
C.M.V. Rajamma
D.None of these
Q 137 :
Akilan was awarded Jnanpith award for
A.Pavai Vilakku
B.Chitirappavai
C.Gepuravasal
D.Ponmalar
Q 138 :
The Tamil recipient of Konark Samman Award instituted by” Orissa Gove rnment
A.M.L. Vasanihaiqlmari
B.D.K, pattammall
C.M.S. Subbulakshmi
D.Padma Subramanian
Q 139 :
Head quarters of Jeeva Transport corporation
A.Nagercoil
B.Veilore
C.Saiem
D.Erode
Q 140 :
The youngest university inTamilnadu
A.Bharathiyar
B.Annamalai
C.Manonmaniam Sundamnar
D.Dr. M.G.R.
Q 141 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 142 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 143 :
Dimensions of impulse are
A.[MLT –1]
B.[MLT²]
C.[MT–2]
D.[ML–1T–3]
Q 144 :
Potential is measured in
A.joule/coulomb
B.watt/coulomb
C.newton–second
D.None of these
Q 145 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 146 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A.Ca3Al2O6
B.Ca3SiO5
C.Ca2SiO4
D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 147 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A.It does not contain carbon
B.It does not contain silicon
C.It does not contain iron
D.It does not contain calcium
Q 148 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 149 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A.Cell membrane
B.Plasma membrane
C.Cell wall
D.Nucleus
Q 150 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A.Manganese
B.Potassium
C.Phosphorus
D.Calcium
Q 151 :
Which city is the host of the second edition of ‘The Africa-India Field Training Exercise’ AFINDEX-2023 ?
A.Pune
B.Panaji
C.Cairo
D.Nairobi
Q 152 :
‘New India Literacy Programme’ will be implemented as which type of scheme ?
A.Central Sector Scheme
B.Centrally sponsored Scheme
C.Core Scheme
D.Core of the Core Scheme
Q 153 :
Which state/UT recently released the ‘Lake Development Programme’ ?
A.Tamil Nadu
B.Telangana
C.Odisha
D.West Bengal
Q 154 :
A ‘Space System Design Lab’ has been recently inaugurated in which state/UT ?
A.Gujarat
B.Karnataka
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Kerala
Q 155 :
India recently signed a ‘Defence Cooperation Agreement’ with which European country ?
A.Malta
B.Romania
C.Finland
D.Denmark
Q 156 :
Which state’s ‘Gandhamardan Hill’ was recently (in March ’23) declared as India’s 37th biodiversity heritage site ?
A.Odisha
B.West Bengal
C.Gujarat
D.Jharkhand
Q 157 :
Which country has recently (in March ’23) committed Rs 7,084.5 crore to India for infrastructure projects in Patna (Bihar), West Bengal, and Rajasthan ?
A.France
B.Japan
C.Singapore
D.Germany
Q 158 :
Name the personality who was recently (in March ’23) awarded Abel Prize 2023 for Mathematics .
A.Luis Angel Caffarelli
B.Lawrence C. Evans
C.Dennis Sullivan
D.Luigi Ambrosio
Q 159 :
Who was recently (in March ’23) appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) ?
A.Vijay Kuradagi
B.Rajendra Kumar Gupta
C.Sanjay Kumar Panigrahi
D.Lalit Kumar Gupta
Q 160 :
Which organisation of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has recently (in March ’23) developed application “Maaptol Grievance” to facilitate registration & redressal of consumer grievances ?
A.Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
B.Digital India Corporation
C.National Informatics Centre
D.Controller of Certifying Authorities
Q 161 :
‘Proba-3 Mission’, which will be launched aboard ISRO’s PSLV, is associated with which space agency ?
A.NASA
B.ESA
C.JAXA
D.CNSA
Q 162 :
Which institution is to set up the ‘Corporate Debt Market Development Fund’ ?
A.RBI
B.SEBI
C.NSE
D.BSE
Q 163 :
‘National League for Democracy’ is a famous political party based in which country ?
A.India
B.Myanmar
C.Sri Lanka
D.Pakistan
Q 164 :
‘Lynx-U2 System’ is an indigenously developed naval gun fire control system, manufactured by which institution ?
A.HAL
B.DRDO
C.BEL
D.BHEL
Q 165 :
World Bank approved 100 million USD loan for implementation of State Capability and Resilient Growth Program of which state ?
A.Odisha
B.Kerala
C.Goa
D.Gujarat
Q 166 :
In which state, the Ministry of Electronics & Information technology (MeitY) has recently (in March’23) approved to set up Rs 180 crore worth Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) ?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Karnataka
C.Telangana
D.Gujarat
Q 167 :
In March 2023, PM Narendra Modi, inaugurated the 13.7 kilometres (km) metro stretch for the commercial operations from Whitefield (Kadugodi) to Krishnarajapuram in _____ .
A.Hyderabad, Telangana
B.Chennai, Tamil Nadu
C.Pune, Maharashtra
D.Bengaluru, Karnataka
Q 168 :
Which of the following countries were recently (in March ’23) certified as “malaria-free” by the World Health Organization (WHO) ?
A.Azerbaijan
B.Tajikistan
C.Kyrgyzstan
D.Both 1 & 2
Q 169 :
Which city has recently (in March’ 23) recognised in the ‘2022 Tree Cities of the World’ for the second consecutive year ?
A.Hyderabad, Telangana
B.Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
C.Chennai, Tamil Nadu
D.Mumbai, Maharashtra
Q 170 :
When was the United Nations (UN) first ever International Day of Zero Waste observed in 2023 ?
A.27th March 2023
B.28th March 2023
C.29th March 2023
D.30th March 2023
Q 171 :
In March 2023, Justice TS Sivagnanam has been appointed as the Acting Chief Justice of which of the following High Courts ?
A.Madras High Court
B.Delhi High Court
C.Calcutta High Court
D.Bombay High Court
Q 172 :
In March 2023, which of the following capital organizations signed an MoU with the state Bank of India (SBI) for providing various financial products and offerings ?
A.Binary Capital
B.Godrej Capital
C.Greylock Partners
D.Kleiner Perkins
Q 173 :
In March 2023, the World Bank approved a loan of USD 363 million to Karnataka for ____ .
A.Girls Education
B.Disaster Management
C.Clean Drinking Water Supply
D.Agriculture
Q 174 :
In March 2023, a 96-hour multi-domain air and land exercise was conducted between Indian Army and Indian Air Force. What is the name of this exercise ?
A.Vajra Prahar
B.Garuda Shakti
C.Vayu Prahar
D.Shakti Vajra
Q 175 :
In March 2023, the market regulator, SEBI approved a framework ASBA-like facility for secondary market trading. In this context, what is the full form of ASBA ?
A.Application Supported by Blocked Amount
B.Automated Stop Bill Amount
C.Adverse Social by Business Amount
D.Annual Solvency by a Blocked Amount
Aptitude & Mental Ability Test
Q 176 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 177 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 178 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 179 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 180 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 181 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 182 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 183 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 184 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 185 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 186 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 187 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 188 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 189 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 190 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 191 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 192 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 193 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 194 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 195 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 196 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 197 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
