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Question for TNPSC Assistant Public Prosecutor - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English
Last Update on : October 10, 2026
Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200
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Latest TNPSC Assistant Public Prosecutor Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies, Aptitude & Mental Ability Test, Law
Question Bank TNPSC Assistant Public Prosecutor (Prelims) Exam - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
- A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
- B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
- C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
- D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
- A.1 and 3
- B.2 and 3
- C.1 and 2
- D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
- A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
- B.Indira Mahila Yojna
- C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
- D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
- A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
- B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
- C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
- D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
- A.net national product at market price
- B.net national product at factor cost
- C.net domestic product at market price
- D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
- A.financial system
- B.tax system
- C.patents and copyrights
- D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
- A.2nd plan
- B.3rd plan
- C.5th plan
- D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
- A.sales tax
- B.custom tax
- C.excise tax
- D.income tax
Q 11 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
- A.metastable state to any lower state
- B.any higher state of lower state
- C.metastable state to ground state
- D.any higher state to ground state
Q 12 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
- A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
- B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
- C.zero at any point inside the pipe
- D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 13 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
- A.0.45 m
- B.0.15 m
- C.0.30 m
- D.0.6 m
Q 14 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
- A.having a constant phase difference
- B.of equal wavelength
- C.of equal speed
- D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 15 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
- A.0.75 A
- B.1 A
- C.2 A
- D.1.5 A
Q 16 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
- A.between 7 and 8
- B.between 5 and 6
- C.between 6 and 7
- D.between 10 and 11
Q 17 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
- A.1.93 A
- B.9.65 A
- C.19.3 A
- D.0.965 A
Q 18 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
- A.molar conductance
- B.conductance
- C.specific conductance
- D.equivalent conductance
Q 19 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
- A.28 mm
- B.56 mm
- C.70 mm
- D.140 mm
Q 20 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
- A.1 M solution of glucose
- B.0.05 M solution of glucose
- C.6% solution of glucose
- D.25% solution of glucose
Q 21 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
- A.the nature of enzymes involved
- B.the nature of the substrate
- C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
- D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 22 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
- A.Water vapour
- B.Carbon monoxide
- C.Methane
- D.Oxygen
Q 23 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
- A.50%
- B.75%
- C.0%
- D.25%
Q 24 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
- A.fresh-water mussel
- B.tortoise
- C.frog
- D.jelly fish
Q 25 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
- A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
- B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
- C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
- D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 26 :
Who built Kallanai acrossthe river Kaveri?
- A.Raja Raja Chola
- B.Karikala Chola
- C.Rajendra Chola
- D.Senguttuvan
Q 27 :
Mahabalipulram wasestablished by the
- A.Pandyas
- B.Pallavas
- C.Cholas
- D.Chzilukyas
Q 28 :
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
- A.Neyveli
- B.Velage
- C.Manali
- D.Avadi
Q 29 :
Than javur district, the place Where a rice research station is In
- A.Kumbakonam
- B.Aduthurai
- C.Thanjavur
- D.Papanasam
Q 30 :
The Gateway of Tamilnaduis
- A.Chennai
- B.Tuticorin
- C.Kainiyakumari
- D.Trichy
Q 31 :
The death rate inTamilnadu during 2002 was
- A.44/1000
- B.46/1000
- C.47/1000
- D.51/1000
Q 32 :
According to the censusestimafte of 2001 the rate of literacy in Tamilnadu is
- A.72.5%
- B.71.5%
- C.73.5%
- D.70.5%
Q 33 :
Tamilnadu gets maximumrain fall during
- A.North-East monsoonseason
- B.South-West monsoonseason
- C.Summer season
- D.Winter season
Q 34 :
Subramaniya I Bharathiedited the Tamil Newspaper?
- A.New India
- B.Young India
- C.Tamil Nadu
- D.India
Q 35 :
The smallest district in areain Tamil nadu is
- A.Chennai
- B.Kanyakumari
- C.Tiruchirapally
- D.Madurai
Q 36 :
Pulikesin II was defeatedby
- A.Harsha
- B.Ashoka
- C.Narasimha Varma
- D.Mahendra Varma
Q 37 :
The Greece-Romanmerchants visiting Tamil-nadu during the SangamAge were referred to in the Tamil Literature is
- A.Yavanas
- B.Pahalvas
- C.Kushans
- D.None of these
Q 38 :
The single most important item of import to the Chola empiric was
- A.dye stuff
- B.horses
- C.precious stones
- D.metal wares
Q 39 :
The Mahabalipuram sea-shore temple in TamilNadu was built during the:reign of which of the following dynasties?
- A.Chola dynasty
- B.Chalukya dynasty
- C.Pallava dynasty
- D.Pandya dynasty
Q 40 :
The inscription which gives details about village administration by assemblies and committees during Pandy a period is
- A.Uttaramerur inscription
- B.Manur lnscription
- C.Aihole lnscription
- D.None of these
Q 41 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
- A.1946
- B.1947
- C.1948
- D.1950
Q 42 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- C.Jawaharlal Nehru
- D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 43 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
- A.Mahatma Gandhi
- B.M.N. Roy
- C.Jawaharlal Nehru
- D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 44 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
- A.1942
- B.1945
- C.1946
- D.1947
Q 45 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
- A.15th August 1947
- B.26th January 1950
- C.26th November 1949
- D.30th January 1948
Q 46 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
- A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
- B.Swami Vivekananda
- C.Rabindranath Tagore
- D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 47 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Kathak
- B.Kuchipudi
- C.Bharatanatyam
- D.Odissi
Q 48 :
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
- A.Pongal
- B.Onam
- C.Baisakhi
- D.Makar Sankranti
Q 49 :
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
- A.Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
- B.Sarojini Naidu
- C.Rabindranath Tagore
- D.Subramania Bharati
Q 50 :
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
- A.Maharashtra
- B.Madhya Pradesh
- C.Bihar
- D.Karnataka
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General Studies
Q 51 :
Which sector contributes the highest to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
- A.Agriculture
- B.Industry
- C.Services
- D.Manufacturing
Q 52 :
What type of economy does India have?
- A.Capitalist
- B.Socialist
- C.Mixed
- D.Communist
Q 53 :
The term 'Demographic Dividend' refers to:
- A.Increase in agricultural production
- B.Rise in the working-age population
- C.Growth in foreign investments
- D.Surge in industrial output
Q 54 :
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian economy?
- A.Predominantly urban
- B.High dependency on agriculture
- C.Low population density
- D.Export-oriented manufacturing
Q 55 :
The 'Informal Sector' in India refers to:
- A.Organized and registered businesses
- B.Unorganized and unregistered businesses
- C.Government enterprises
- D.Foreign direct investments
Q 56 :
Which period is considered the golden age of Tamil literature?
- A.Sangam Age
- B.Chola Period
- C.Vijayanagara Empire
- D.British Rule
Q 57 :
What is the main source of information about the Sangam period?
- A.Rock Edicts
- B.Sangam Literature
- C.Inscriptions in Temples
- D.Palm Leaf Manuscripts
Q 58 :
Which Sangam text is considered a comprehensive work on ethics and morality?
- A.Tolkappiyam
- B.Silappadikaram
- C.Thirukkural
- D.Manimekalai
Q 59 :
The Megalithic culture in Tamil Nadu is associated with which archaeological site?
- A.Adichanallur
- B.Keeladi
- C.Poompuhar
- D.Kodumanal
Q 60 :
Which major archaeological discovery in Tamil Nadu provided evidence of an advanced urban civilization similar to the Indus Valley?
- A.Keeladi Excavation
- B.Arikamedu
- C.Adichanallur
- D.Korkai
Q 61 :
Which bird sanctuary is located in Nagapattinam district?
- A.Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
- B.Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary
- C.Point Calimere Bird Sanctuary
- D.Karikili Bird Sanctuary
Q 62 :
Which soil type is found in the central regions of Tamil Nadu?
- A.Red soil
- B.Black soil
- C.Alluvial soil
- D.Laterite soil
Q 63 :
Which district is a major producer of oilseeds?
- A.Thanjavur
- B.Coimbatore
- C.Erode
- D.Salem
Q 64 :
Which port handles coal cargo in Tamil Nadu?
- A.Chennai Port
- B.Tuticorin Port
- C.Ennore Port
- D.Nagapattinam Port
Q 65 :
Which district is known for its limestone deposits?
- A.Chennai
- B.Coimbatore
- C.Madurai
- D.Ariyalur
Q 66 :
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
- A.Syria
- B.Iraq
- C.Lebanon
- D.Iran
Q 67 :
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
- A.Nuclear disarmament only
- B.Border security
- C.Economic sanctions enforcement
- D.Regime change in Tehran
Q 68 :
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Tamil Nadu
- C.Jammu & Kashmir
- D.Karnataka
Q 69 :
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
- A.EUR 10 million
- B.EUR 100 million
- C.EUR 50 million
- D.EUR 20 million
Q 70 :
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
- A.Kerala
- B.Tamil Nadu
- C.Uttarakhand
- D.Himachal Pradesh
Aptitude & Mental Ability Test
Q 71 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
- A.Two
- B.Three
- C.Five
- D.Four
- E.None of these
Q 72 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.True
- B.False
- C.Uncertain
- D.None
Q 73 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
- A.A
- B.E
- C.T
- D.X
- E.Y
Q 74 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
- A.T
- B.L
- C.E
- D.Y
- E.X
Q 78 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 79 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 80 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
- A.V
- B.T
- C.E
- D.A
- E.B
Q 81 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
- A.51:52
- B.52:53
- C.51:53
- D.52:55
Q 82 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
- A.√49
- B.0.125
- C.√2
- D.22/7
Q 83 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
- A.35600
- B.34500
- C.9630
- D.93600
Q 84 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
- A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
- B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
- C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
- D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 85 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
- A.36
- B.38
- C.310
- D.96
Q 86 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
- A.4
- B.3
- C.2
- D.5
Q 87 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
- A.3/5
- B.2/3
- C.4/5
Q 88 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
- A.169
- B.36
- C.196
- D.Can not say
Q 89 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
- A.16
- B.25
- C.28
- D.30
Q 90 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
- A.93
- B.103
- C.60.5
- D.121
Q 91 :
Which is greater ?
- A.15/16
- B.17/18
- C.Equal
- D.Cannot compare
Q 92 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
- A.3
- B.4
- C.5
- D.7
Q 93 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
- A.XLI
- B.XLVI
- C.XLIV
- D.XLVIC
Q 94 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
- A.1/11
- B.9/11
- C.1/9
- D.9/10
Q 95 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
- A.9996
- B.10000
- C.10096
- D.10196
Law
Q 96 :
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 32
- C.Article 226
- D.Article 227
Q 97 :
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.I, II, III and IV
- B.II, III, IV and V
- C.I, III, IV and V
- D.I, II, III and V
Q 98 :
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.I, III, IV and V
- B.II, III and IV
- C.I, II, III and V
- D.I, II and IV
Q 99 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
- A.Only II
- B.Either I or II
- C.Only III
- D.Only V
Q 100 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
- A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
- B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
- C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
- D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 101 :
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.I and III
- B.II and IV
- C.I, III and V
- D.Only V
Q 102 :
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
- A.III, V, II, IV
- B.IV, II, I, III
- C.II, IV, I, III
- D.V, IV, I, II
Q 103 :
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
- A.adoptive father of the child
- B.stepfather of the child
- C.natural father of the child
- D.Either 1 or 2
Q 104 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Only I
- B.Only II
- C.Only III
- D.Only IV
Q 105 :
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
- A.True
- B.False
- C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
- D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 106 :
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
- A.Corfu Channel Case
- B.Asylum Case
- C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
- D.Reparations Case
Q 107 :
Match List I with List II .
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) - B.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
- C.(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
- D.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Q 108 :
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
- A.NCLT
- B.SEBI
- C.IBBI
- D.Director of a company
Q 109 :
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.I and II
- B.I, II and IV
- C.I, III and IV
- D.II and V
Q 110 :
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
- A.English law
- B.Indian law
- C.Jewish law
- D.Swedish law
Q 111 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 112 :
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
- A.Defamation
- B.Decency and Morality
- C.Integrity of India
- D.Negligence
Q 113 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.I, II and III
- B.I, III and IV
- C.II, III and IV
- D.III, IV and V
Q 114 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 115 :
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
- A.Estrada Doctrine
- B.Hallestein Doctrine
- C.Franco Doctrine
- D.Stimson Doctrine
Q 116 :
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
- A.by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
- B.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
- C.by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
- D.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Q 117 :
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii) - B.(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
- C.(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
- D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 118 :
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
- A.Alka v/s Union of India
- B.Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
- C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
- D.Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Q 119 :
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
- A.India
- B.UK
- C.France
- D.Sweden
Q 120 :
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
- A.commercially valuable
- B.production methods
- C.business plans
- D.information discovered by reverse engineering
Q 121 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i) - B.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
- C.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
- D.(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Q 122 :
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii) - B.(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
- C.(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
- D.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Q 123 :
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
- A.prospective effect only
- B.retrospective effect only
- C.Both propsective and retrospective effect
- D.effect as the court may decide
Q 124 :
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
- A.I and IV
- B.II and III
- C.III and V
- D.II and V
Q 125 :
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
- A.When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
- B.When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
- C.When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
- D.when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Q 126 :
What is the primary purpose of the Law of Evidence in civil cases?
- A.To regulate court procedures
- B.To determine guilt or innocence
- C.To ensure fair and just proceedings
- D.To define civil offenses
Q 127 :
Hearsay evidence is generally:
- A.Admissible
- B.Inadmissible
- C.Conditional
- D.Irrelevant
Q 128 :
What does the term "burden of proof" refer to in civil cases?
- A.Defendant's responsibility to prove innocence
- B.Plaintiff's responsibility to prove the case
- C.Both parties' equal responsibility
- D.Judge's responsibility to gather evidence
Q 129 :
Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence in civil cases?
- A.Testimonial evidence
- B.Documentary evidence
- C.Expert evidence
- D.Criminal evidence
Q 130 :
What is the best definition of circumstantial evidence?
- A.Direct evidence that proves a fact
- B.Evidence based on personal knowledge
- C.Indirect evidence that implies a fact
- D.Hearsay evidence
Q 131 :
What is the "best evidence rule"?
- A.The most convincing evidence should be presented
- B.Only original documents are admissible
- C.Hearsay evidence is always admissible
- D.Expert opinions are preferred over eyewitness accounts
Q 132 :
In civil cases, what is the purpose of the discovery process?
- A.To surprise the opposing party
- B.To gather evidence before trial
- C.To keep evidence confidential
- D.To speed up the trial process
Q 133 :
What is the role of a character witness in civil cases?
- A.To provide expert opinions
- B.To testify about the defendant's reputation
- C.To present scientific evidence
- D.To establish motive
Q 134 :
What is the difference between direct and cross-examination?
- A.Direct examination is conducted by the defense, while cross-examination is by the prosecution
- B.Direct examination is the initial questioning, while cross-examination follows
- C.Direct examination is for expert witnesses, while cross-examination is for lay witnesses
- D.Direct examination is only for the plaintiff, while cross-examination is for the defendant
Q 135 :
What does the parol evidence rule address in civil cases?
- A.The admissibility of oral statements
- B.The use of expert witnesses
- C.The credibility of witnesses
- D.The exclusion of written contracts
Q 136 :
Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the definition of arrest?
- A.Section 41
- B.Section 46
- C.Section 49
- D.Section 51
Q 137 :
In CrPC, what does FIR stand for?
- A.First Information Report
- B.Final Investigation Record
- C.Forensic Information Registry
- D.Formal Inquiry Request
Q 138 :
What is the maximum period a person can be detained in police custody without being produced before a magistrate, as per CrPC?
- A.12 hours
- B.24 hours
- C.48 hours
- D.72 hours
Q 139 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the conditions for the grant of bail?
- A.Section 41
- B.Section 437
- C.Section 173
- D.Section 306
Q 140 :
What is the primary purpose of a charge sheet in criminal proceedings?
- A.To arrest the accused
- B.To initiate investigation
- C.To record the evidence
- D.To accuse the person of an offense
Q 141 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the examination of a witness by the party producing him?
- A.Cross-examination
- B.Re-examination
- C.Direct examination
- D.Preliminary examination
Q 142 :
What is the maximum duration allowed for the investigation of an offense under Section 173 of CrPC?
- A.30 days
- B.45 days
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
Q 143 :
In CrPC, what is the term for the formal commencement of a trial in a court?
- A.Summons
- B.Warrant
- C.Charge
- D.Complaint
Q 144 :
Under CrPC, which section deals with the procedure for the examination of an accused by a medical practitioner?
- A.Section 160
- B.Section 164
- C.Section 174
- D.Section 175
Q 145 :
What is the term for the written statement of the substance of the evidence given by a witness in a judicial proceeding?
- A.Affidavit
- B.Deposition
- C.Statement
- D.Report
Q 146 :
What year was the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960 enacted ?
- A.1950
- B.1960
- C.1970
- D.1980
Q 147 :
Which Act regulates the rights and responsibilities of landlords and tenants in Tamil Nadu as of 2017 ?
- A.Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960
- B.Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017
- C.Tamil Nadu Tenancy Act, 2000
- D.Tamil Nadu Rental Property Law, 2015
Q 148 :
Under the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960, what is the maximum percentage by which a landlord can increase rent annually ?
- A.5%
- B.10%
- C.15%
- D.No limit
Q 149 :
Which act provides provisions for the regulation of security deposits between landlords and tenants in Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Indian Contract Act, 1872
- B.Transfer of Property Act,1882
- C.Specific Relief Act,1963
- D.Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017
Q 150 :
In case a tenant fails to pay rent on time under these acts, what action can a landlord take legally ?
- A.Eviction without notice
- B.File a police complaint immediately
- C.Serve a legal notice for eviction
- D.Increase the rent amount
Q 151 :
Under these acts, what is the maximum duration for which a lease agreement can be signed between a landlord and tenant in Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Five years
- B.Ten years
- C.Fifteen years
- D.Twenty years
Q 152 :
What is the procedure for terminating a lease agreement under these acts if both parties agree to end it before its term expires ?
- A.Mutual agreement in writing
- B.Verbal communication suffices
- C.Tenant’s decision alone is enough
- D.Landlord’s decision alone is enough
Q 153 :
Which authority has jurisdiction over disputes arising from these acts between landlords and tenants in Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Civil Court
- B.Police Station
- C.Revenue Department Office
- D.Local Panchayat
Q 154 :
What are the penalties for non-compliance with the provisions outlined in these acts by either landlords or tenants in Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Fine only
- B.Imprisonment only
- C.Both fine & imprisonment
- D.Warning letter
Q 155 :
The main objective of the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960 was to :
- A.Facilitate higher rental yields for landlords
- B.Regulate rent and prevent unreasonable eviction of tenants
- C.Promote commercial development of buildings
- D.Streamline property registration processes
Q 156 :
Under the 1960 Act, eviction of tenants was allowed if :
- A.Rent was not paid for a specific period
- B.The property was required for the landlord's immediate use
- C.The tenant made structural changes to the building without permission
- D.All of the above
Q 157 :
The 2017 Act replaced :
- A.The Tamil Nadu Urban Development Act
- B.The Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960
- C.The Tamil Nadu Housing Board Act
- D.The Tamil Nadu Slum Clearance Act
Q 158 :
The 2017 Act emphasizes :
- A.Standardized rent control mechanisms
- B.Importance of written tenancy agreements
- C.Government control over rental markets
- D.Priority for government housing projects
Q 159 :
Under the 2017 Act, the duration of a tenancy is determined by :
- A.The landlord's discretion
- B.A pre-defined period in the tenancy agreement
- C.Government regulations based on property type
- D.Mutual negotiation between landlord and tenant
Q 160 :
Under which act are rent control regulations governed in Tamil Nadu ?
- A.Tamil Nadu Tenancy Act, 1955
- B.Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960
- C.Tamil Nadu Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling on Land) Act, 1961
- D.Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017
Q 161 :
What is the purpose of the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.To regulate rent control
- B.To regulate rights and responsibilities of landlords and tenants
- C.To control property prices
- D.To govern agricultural land leasing
Q 162 :
Who is responsible for the maintenance of leased premises according to the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960 ?
- A.Landlord
- B.Tenant
- C.Both landlord and tenant jointly
- D.Local municipality
Q 163 :
What is the maximum limit for security deposit that a landlord can demand from a tenant under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.One month's rent
- B.Two month's rent
- C.Three month's rent
- D.Four month's rent
Q 164 :
As per the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960, what is the maximum percentage of rent increase permitted when renewing a lease ?
- A.5%
- B.7.5%
- C.10%
- D.15%
Q 165 :
Which authority has the power to decide disputes between landlords and tenants under the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960 ?
- A.Civil Court
- B.Rent Control Court
- C.Local Panchayat
- D.Municipal Corporation
Q 166 :
Under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017, what is the notice period required for eviction of a tenant by the landlord for non-payment of rent ?
- A.15 days
- B.30 days
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
Q 167 :
Which of the following is not considered as a ground for eviction under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.Subletting without permission
- B.Causing nuisance or annoyance
- C.Tenant's inability to pay rent due to financial distress
- D.Illegal use of premises
Q 168 :
What is the time limit for filing an appeal against an order of eviction passed under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.30 days
- B.60 days
- C.90 days
- D.120 days
Q 169 :
Under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017, what is the penalty for landlords who forcibly evict tenants without following due process ?
- A.Imprisonment up to 3 months
- B.Fine up to Rs. 50,000
- C.Both imprisonment and fine
- D.Cancellation of landlord's property ownership rights
Q 170 :
According to the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960, what is the maximum percentage of rent increase permitted for residential buildings ?
- A.5%
- B.7.5%
- C.10%
- D.15%
Q 171 :
What is the minimum notice period required by a landlord to terminate the tenancy of a residential building under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.15 days
- B.30 days
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
Q 172 :
Who is responsible for maintaining common areas and facilities in a rented building under the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017 ?
- A.Landlord
- B.Tenant
- C.Resident Welfare Association
- D.Local Municipality
Q 173 :
Under the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960, what is the procedure for increasing rent for non-residential buildings ?
- A.Landlord can increase rent at his discretion
- B.Landlord must apply to the Rent Control Court for permission to increase rent
- C.Rent can be increased by mutual agreement between landlord and tenant
- D.Rent increase is governed by market rates
Q 174 :
According to the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Rights and Responsibilities of Landlords and Tenants Act, 2017, what is the maximum limit for rent advances or security deposits that a landlord can demand ?
- A.One month's rent
- B.Two month's rent
- C.Three month's rent
- D.Four month's rent
Q 175 :
What is the tenure of the Tamil Nadu Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1960 ?
- A.10 years
- B.20 years
- C.30 years
- D.Indefinite
Q 176 :
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
- A.Lord Macaulay
- B.Sir James F. Stephen
- C.Huxley
- D.Sir Henery Maine
Q 177 :
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
- A.Lord Denning
- B.A.V. Dicey
- C.Lord Macaulay
- D.J. F. Stephen
Q 178 :
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
- A.Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
- B.Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
- C.The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
- D.None of the above
Q 179 :
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
- A.Substantive Law
- B.Procedural Law
- C.Substantive and Procedural Law
- D.None of the above
Q 180 :
Law of evidence is
- A.A substantive law
- B.an adjective law
- C.Both (A) and (B)
- D.Neither (A) nor (B)
Q 181 :
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
- A.Only civil proceedings
- B.Only criminal proceedings
- C.Civil and criminal Proceeding both
- D.None of the above
Q 182 :
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
- A.Not correct
- B.Correct
- C.Partly correct
- D.None of the above
Q 183 :
Law of Evidence :
- A.Retrospective
- B.Effect the fundamental right of person
- C.Always have prospective effect
- D.Not a procedural law
Q 184 :
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
Law of Evidence is
- A.Lex Talionis
- B.Lex Fori
- C.Lex Loci
- D.Lex Situ
Q 185 :
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
- A.Law of the Land is Supreme
- B.Law of Land
- C.Local Laws
- D.Law of England
Q 186 :
The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted in:
- A.1980
- B.1985
- C.1990
- D.1995
Q 187 :
The primary objective of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act is to:
- A.Promote drug usage
- B.Regulate and control operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
- C.Increase the production of drugs
- D.Provide healthcare
Q 188 :
The term "narcotic drugs" under the Act includes:
- A.Opium
- B.Cocaine
- C.Cannabis
- D.All of the above
Q 189 :
Which of the following is a psychotropic substance as per the Act?
- A.Heroin
- B.Cannabis
- C.LSD
- D.Opium
Q 190 :
The Act prohibits the manufacture, sale, and possession of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances except for:
- A.Personal use
- B.Medical purposes
- C.Educational purposes
- D.Research purposes
Q 191 :
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
- A.Only (i) is correct
- B.Only (ii) is correct
- C.Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
- D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Q 192 :
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
- A.Chapter VIII
- B.Chapter IX
- C.Chapter X
- D.Chapter XI
Q 193 :
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
- A.State of Tripura
- B.State of Assam
- C.State of Meghalya
- D.State of Nagaland
Q 194 :
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
- A.State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
- B.Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
- C.Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
- D.State of Nagaland v. Chung
Q 195 :
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
- A.Municipal area of Shilong
- B.Municipal area of Mizoram
- C.Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
- D.Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution