Which Portuguese navigator's arrival at Calicut in 1498 opened the direct sea route between Europe and India?
A
Pedro Álvares Cabral
B
Afonso de Albuquerque
C
Vasco da Gama
D
Francisco de Almeida
Question 2Single Answer
Which European power was the first among the major maritime powers to establish a significant presence on the Coromandel Coast?
A
English
B
Danish
C
French
D
Portuguese
Question 3Single Answer
The Portuguese established an important settlement at San Thome in the vicinity of which present-day city?
A
Nagapattinam
B
Thoothukudi
C
Chennai
D
Cuddalore
Question 4Single Answer
Which European trading company established Pulicat as an important centre on the Coromandel Coast?
A
French East India Company
B
Danish East India Company
C
Dutch East India Company
D
English East India Company
Question 5Single Answer
Pulicat served for a considerable period as the principal Dutch establishment on which Indian coast?
A
Malabar Coast
B
Konkan Coast
C
Coromandel Coast
D
Kathiawar Coast
Question 6Single Answer
The English East India Company obtained Madraspatnam in 1639 through the efforts of Francis Day and whom?
A
Thomas Roe
B
Elihu Yale
C
Robert Clive
D
Andrew Cogan
Question 7Single Answer
Fort St. George was established by the English East India Company at Madras in which century?
A
Sixteenth century
B
Seventeenth century
C
Eighteenth century
D
Nineteenth century
Question 8Single Answer
Which European settlement in Tamil Nadu became the headquarters of the Danish in India?
A
Pulicat
B
Tranquebar
C
Karaikal
D
Sadras
Question 9Single Answer
Tranquebar, an important Danish settlement, is presently known by which name?
A
Thiruvaiyaru
B
Tharangambadi
C
Tiruchendur
D
Thirukadaiyur
Question 10Single Answer
Which French settlement became the chief centre of French political ambitions in South India?
A
Mahe
B
Chandernagore
C
Pondicherry
D
Yanam
Question 11Single Answer
Who transformed Pondicherry into an important centre of French power in India during the eighteenth century?
A
Count de Lally
B
Joseph François Dupleix
C
La Bourdonnais
D
François Martin
Question 12Single Answer
The Anglo-French rivalry in South India was closely connected with which European conflict during the First Carnatic War?
A
Seven Years' War
B
War of Austrian Succession
C
Crimean War
D
Napoleonic Wars
Question 13Single Answer
Which event directly triggered the First Carnatic War in India?
A
Outbreak of war between Britain and France in Europe
B
Death of Nizam-ul-Mulk
C
Death of Dost Ali
D
Accession of Tipu Sultan
Question 14Single Answer
Madras was captured from the English in 1746 by French forces under whom?
A
Bussy
B
Lally
C
La Bourdonnais
D
Dupleix personally
Question 15Single Answer
Which treaty ended the First Carnatic War and restored Madras to the English?
A
Treaty of Paris
B
Treaty of Pondicherry
C
Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle
D
Treaty of Madras
Question 16Single Answer
The Second Carnatic War was principally linked with succession disputes in Hyderabad and which other state?
A
Carnatic
B
Mysore
C
Travancore
D
Maratha Confederacy
Question 17Single Answer
In the struggle for the Nawabship of the Carnatic, the English supported whom?
A
Chanda Sahib
B
Muhammad Ali
C
Muzaffar Jung
D
Salabat Jung
Question 18Single Answer
Which French-supported claimant contested the Carnatic succession against Muhammad Ali?
A
Dost Ali
B
Anwaruddin Khan
C
Nasir Jung
D
Chanda Sahib
Question 19Single Answer
Robert Clive's capture and defence of which place in 1751 significantly weakened Chanda Sahib's position?
A
Gingee
B
Madurai
C
Vellore
D
Arcot
Question 20Single Answer
Which agreement effectively ended the Second Carnatic War in 1754?
A
Treaty of Seringapatam
B
Treaty of Pondicherry
C
Treaty of Mangalore
D
Treaty of Salbai
Question 21Single Answer
Which battle of 1760 decisively weakened French political power in South India?
A
Battle of Ambur
B
Battle of Arcot
C
Battle of Wandiwash
D
Battle of Porto Novo
Question 22Single Answer
Who commanded the British forces at the Battle of Wandiwash?
A
Robert Clive
B
Hector Munro
C
Stringer Lawrence
D
Eyre Coote
Question 23Single Answer
The Third Carnatic War was the Indian extension of which wider European conflict?
A
Thirty Years' War
B
War of Spanish Succession
C
Crimean War
D
Seven Years' War
Question 24Single Answer
Which treaty formally ended the Third Carnatic War?
A
Treaty of Madras of 1769
B
Treaty of Paris of 1763
C
Treaty of Mangalore of 1784
D
Treaty of Seringapatam of 1792
Question 25Single Answer
What was the major political consequence of the Carnatic Wars in South India?
A
Establishment of Dutch supremacy
B
Restoration of Mughal control
C
Establishment of British predominance over the French
D
Establishment of Danish rule
Question 26Single Answer
The First Anglo-Mysore War was fought during whose rule in Mysore?
A
Tipu Sultan
B
Devaraja Wodeyar
C
Krishnaraja Wodeyar III
D
Hyder Ali
Question 27Single Answer
Which treaty ended the First Anglo-Mysore War in 1769?
A
Treaty of Mangalore
B
Treaty of Madras
C
Treaty of Seringapatam
D
Treaty of Salbai
Question 28Single Answer
During which Anglo-Mysore War did Hyder Ali die?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 29Single Answer
Who succeeded Hyder Ali during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
A
Nizam Ali
B
Tipu Sultan
C
Purnaiya
D
Krishnaraja Wodeyar
Question 30Single Answer
Which treaty concluded the Second Anglo-Mysore War in 1784?
A
Treaty of Madras
B
Treaty of Mangalore
C
Treaty of Seringapatam
D
Treaty of Bassein
Question 31Single Answer
Which expression in the Preamble most directly indicates that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India?
A
Sovereign Socialist
B
We, the People of India
C
Democratic Republic
D
Justice, Liberty and Equality
Question 32Single Answer
Which set of ideals was added to the Preamble by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976?
A
Justice, Liberty and Equality
B
Sovereign, Democratic and Republic
C
Socialist, Secular and Integrity
D
Fraternity, Dignity and Unity
Question 33Single Answer
The term “Republic” in the Preamble primarily signifies which constitutional principle?
A
Head of State is not a hereditary monarch
B
Parliament is legally sovereign
C
States possess a right to secede
D
Judiciary is subordinate to Parliament
Question 34Single Answer
Which Preamble ideal seeks to secure equality of status and opportunity?
A
Liberty
B
Equality
C
Fraternity
D
Sovereignty
Question 35Single Answer
Which Preamble concept is specifically linked with assuring the dignity of the individual?
A
Republic
B
Socialism
C
Sovereignty
D
Fraternity
Question 36Single Answer
Which judgment established that the Preamble forms part of the Constitution?
A
Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B
Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
C
A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Question 37Single Answer
In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court originally expressed which view regarding the Preamble?
A
It was independently enforceable
B
It was superior to constitutional provisions
C
It could override Fundamental Rights
D
It was not part of the Constitution
Question 38Single Answer
Which constitutional doctrine limits Parliament's power to amend even though the Preamble itself may be amended?
A
Doctrine of Eclipse
B
Doctrine of Severability
C
Basic Structure Doctrine
D
Doctrine of Pleasure
Question 39Single Answer
Which feature of the Indian Constitution was substantially influenced by the British constitutional system?
A
Judicial review
B
Fundamental Rights
C
Directive Principles
D
Parliamentary government
Question 40Single Answer
The Directive Principles of State Policy were primarily inspired by the Constitution of which country?
A
Canada
B
Australia
C
Ireland
D
France
Question 41Single Answer
The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was substantially influenced by which constitutional system?
A
United States
B
Soviet Union
C
Ireland
D
Japan
Question 42Single Answer
The Concurrent List in the Indian constitutional scheme was influenced by which Constitution?
A
Canadian Constitution
B
Australian Constitution
C
Irish Constitution
D
French Constitution
Question 43Single Answer
The idea of Fundamental Duties was derived primarily from which former constitutional system?
A
USSR
B
United Kingdom
C
Canada
D
Switzerland
Question 44Single Answer
Which feature was substantially borrowed from the Canadian constitutional model?
A
Presidential system
B
Federation with a strong Centre
C
Fundamental Duties
D
Amendment by referendum
Question 45Single Answer
The expression “procedure established by law” in Article 21 was influenced by the Constitution of which country?
A
Japan
B
Germany
C
Ireland
D
South Africa
Question 46Single Answer
Which constitutional feature is correctly matched with its principal source?
A
Judicial review — Ireland
B
Directive Principles — United States
C
Fundamental Duties — Canada
D
Parliamentary government — Britain
Question 47Single Answer
Which feature makes the Indian Constitution partly rigid and partly flexible?
A
Single citizenship
B
Different procedures for constitutional amendment
C
Bicameral Parliament
D
Written Fundamental Rights
Question 48Single Answer
India is described in Article 1 as what?
A
Union of States
B
Federation of Provinces
C
Confederation of States
D
Union of Republics
Question 49Single Answer
Which Article empowers Parliament to admit into the Union or establish new States?
A
Article 1
B
Article 3
C
Article 2
D
Article 4
Question 50Single Answer
Which Article empowers Parliament to form new States or alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States?
A
Article 2
B
Article 3
C
Article 5
D
Article 10
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General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
A Bill altering the boundary of a State can be introduced in Parliament only on whose recommendation?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Chief Justice of India
D
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Question 52Single Answer
Before recommending introduction of a Bill under Article 3 affecting a State, the President must refer it to whom for expressing views?
A
State Legislature concerned
B
State High Court
C
Election Commission
D
Inter-State Council
Question 53Single Answer
Is Parliament constitutionally bound by the views expressed by a State Legislature on a proposal under Article 3?
A
Yes, in every case
B
Only when boundaries are altered
C
No
D
Only when the State opposes the proposal unanimously
Question 54Single Answer
A law made under Articles 2 and 3 is expressly excluded from being treated as a constitutional amendment under which Article?
A
Article 32
B
Article 13
C
Article 4
D
Article 368
Question 55Single Answer
Which Schedule contains the names of States and Union Territories and their territorial extent?
A
Seventh Schedule
B
Second Schedule
C
Fourth Schedule
D
First Schedule
Question 56Single Answer
Allocation of seats to States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha is specified in which Schedule?
A
Third Schedule
B
Sixth Schedule
C
Fifth Schedule
D
Fourth Schedule
Question 57Single Answer
Which feature distinguishes the Indian federation from the classical American model?
A
Single citizenship
B
Written Constitution
C
Independent judiciary
D
Division of powers
Question 58Single Answer
Citizenship provisions at the commencement of the Constitution are contained in which Part?
A
Part I
B
Part II
C
Part III
D
Part IV
Question 59Single Answer
Which Articles originally deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
A
Articles 5–11
B
Articles 1–4
C
Articles 12–35
D
Articles 36–51
Question 60Single Answer
Parliament's power to regulate citizenship by law is expressly recognized under which Article?
A
Article 9
B
Article 11
C
Article 10
D
Article 12
Question 61Single Answer
The principal legislation governing acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship is which Act?
A
Representation of the People Act, 1951
B
Citizenship Act, 1955
C
Foreigners Act, 1946
D
Passport Act, 1967
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following is a recognized mode of acquiring citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
A
Naturalisation
B
Judicial nomination
C
Parliamentary election
D
Governor's certification
Question 63Single Answer
Which term refers to voluntary surrender of Indian citizenship by a citizen?
A
Termination
B
Deprivation
C
Renunciation
D
Naturalisation
Question 64Single Answer
Which form of loss of citizenship may occur by an order of the Central Government under specified statutory conditions?
A
Deprivation
B
Registration
C
Incorporation
D
Naturalisation
Question 65Single Answer
Fundamental Rights are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
A
Part II
B
Part IVA
C
Part IV
D
Part III
Question 66Single Answer
Article 12 is important because it defines which expression for the purposes of Fundamental Rights?
A
State
B
Citizen
C
Public authority
D
Government servant
Question 67Single Answer
Which Article declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of inconsistency?
A
Article 12
B
Article 13
C
Article 14
D
Article 15
Question 68Single Answer
Equality before law and equal protection of laws are guaranteed under which Article?
A
Article 14
B
Article 15
C
Article 16
D
Article 17
Question 69Single Answer
The concept of “equality before law” is generally regarded as having a British origin, while “equal protection of laws” derives from which country?
A
Australia
B
Canada
C
France
D
United States
Question 70Single Answer
Article 15 prohibits discrimination primarily on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and what?
A
Place of birth
B
Language
C
Residence
D
Property
Question 71Single Answer
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is guaranteed by which Article?
A
Article 16
B
Article 15
C
Article 18
D
Article 19
Question 72Single Answer
Abolition of untouchability is mandated under which Article?
A
Article 16
B
Article 17
C
Article 18
D
Article 21
Question 73Single Answer
Which Article abolishes titles except military and academic distinctions?
A
Article 17
B
Article 20
C
Article 19
D
Article 18
Question 74Single Answer
Which Fundamental Right contains the six freedoms available under Article 19?
A
Right against Exploitation
B
Right to Freedom
C
Cultural and Educational Rights
D
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Question 75Single Answer
Article 19 rights are available primarily to whom?
A
Only government employees
B
Every person including foreigners
C
Corporations alone
D
Citizens
Question 76Single Answer
Which nuclear process is primarily responsible for the energy released in a conventional nuclear power reactor?
A
Nuclear fusion
B
Controlled nuclear fission
C
Radioactive fluorescence
D
Electron capture
Question 77Single Answer
Which isotope is commonly used as a fissile fuel in thermal nuclear reactors?
A
Uranium-235
B
Uranium-238
C
Carbon-14
D
Cobalt-60
Question 78Single Answer
What is the principal function of a moderator in a thermal nuclear reactor?
A
Absorb gamma rays
B
Increase fuel enrichment
C
Accelerate electrons
D
Slow down fast neutrons
Question 79Single Answer
Which material is commonly used as a moderator in certain nuclear reactors because of its low neutron absorption?
A
Boron carbide
B
Cadmium
C
Heavy water
D
Lead oxide
Question 80Single Answer
Which reactor component regulates the rate of the fission chain reaction by absorbing neutrons?
A
Turbine blades
B
Fuel cladding
C
Heat exchanger
D
Control rods
Question 81Single Answer
Which material is particularly suitable for control rods because of its high neutron-absorption cross-section?
A
Silicon
B
Aluminium
C
Graphite
D
Cadmium
Question 82Single Answer
What does the term critical mass refer to in nuclear physics?
A
Mass converted entirely into photons
B
Maximum mass of radioactive waste
C
Minimum fissile material needed to sustain a chain reaction
D
Mass of one mole of uranium
Question 83Single Answer
Which equation expresses the mass-energy equivalence fundamental to nuclear energy?
A
V = IR
B
F = ma
C
E = mc²
D
P = VI
Question 84Single Answer
Which radiation consists of helium nuclei?
A
Gamma radiation
B
Beta radiation
C
Alpha radiation
D
X-radiation
Question 85Single Answer
Which type of radioactive emission has the greatest penetrating power among alpha, beta and gamma radiation?
A
Gamma radiation
B
Alpha radiation
C
Beta radiation
D
Positron radiation
Question 86Single Answer
Which radioactive radiation has the highest ionising power among alpha, beta and gamma rays under comparable conditions?
A
Alpha particles
B
Gamma rays
C
Beta particles
D
X-rays
Question 87Single Answer
What does the half-life of a radioactive substance represent?
A
Time needed to double its atomic mass
B
Time required for half of its radioactive nuclei to decay
C
Time required to stop all radiation
D
Period required to produce one neutron
Question 88Single Answer
Which radioisotope is widely associated with treatment of certain thyroid disorders?
A
Carbon-14
B
Iodine-131
C
Uranium-238
D
Sodium-24
Question 89Single Answer
Which isotope is traditionally used for radiocarbon dating of archaeological organic materials?
A
Cobalt-60
B
Carbon-14
C
Iodine-131
D
Phosphorus-32
Question 90Single Answer
Which radioisotope has been widely used as a gamma source in radiotherapy and sterilisation applications?
A
Cobalt-60
B
Hydrogen-3
C
Carbon-12
D
Oxygen-16
Question 91Single Answer
Which nuclear reaction powers the Sun?
A
Alpha decay
B
Fission of uranium
C
Fusion of light nuclei
D
Beta decay
Question 92Single Answer
What is the primary physical challenge in achieving controlled thermonuclear fusion?
A
Eliminating magnetic fields
B
Producing chemical combustion
C
Preventing electron flow
D
Confining extremely hot plasma
Question 93Single Answer
Which device is designed to confine hot plasma using strong magnetic fields for fusion research?
A
Calorimeter
B
Cyclotron
C
Geiger counter
D
Tokamak
Question 94Single Answer
Which instrument is commonly used to detect ionising radiation?
A
Spectrophotometer
B
Potentiometer
C
Hydrometer
D
Geiger-Müller counter
Question 95Single Answer
Which quantity measures the number of nuclear disintegrations per second in SI units?
A
Tesla
B
Gray
C
Sievert
D
Becquerel
Question 96Single Answer
Which structural feature most clearly distinguishes Tamil Nadu's economy from predominantly agrarian state economies?
A
Strong contribution from manufacturing and services
B
Exclusive dependence on primary activities
C
Absence of organised industries
D
Dependence only on plantation crops
Question 97Single Answer
Gross State Domestic Product measures the value of which aggregate?
A
Income earned exclusively by the State Government
B
Only agricultural goods produced by state residents
C
Final goods and services produced within a state during a specified period
D
Total financial assets held by households
Question 98Single Answer
Which measure is obtained broadly by dividing state income by the state's population?
A
Fiscal deficit
B
Per capita income
C
Revenue deficit
D
Capital formation
Question 99Single Answer
Which sector includes agriculture, forestry and fishing while classifying state income by economic activity?
A
Secondary sector
B
Primary sector
C
Tertiary sector
D
Quaternary sector
Question 100Single Answer
Manufacturing is principally classified under which sector of the economy?
A
Household sector
B
Primary sector
C
Tertiary sector
D
Secondary sector
Question 101Single Answer
Which activity belongs predominantly to the tertiary sector?
A
Banking
B
Paddy cultivation
C
Mining
D
Manufacturing steel
Question 102Single Answer
At constant prices, GSDP is particularly useful for analysing what?
A
Nominal changes caused entirely by inflation
B
Current tax rates only
C
Real economic growth after removing price effects
D
Government borrowing alone
Question 103Single Answer
GSDP measured at current prices incorporates which element?
A
Prevailing prices of the relevant period
B
Prices of a permanently fixed base year only
C
Population growth but not price changes
D
Only wholesale agricultural prices
Question 104Single Answer
Which indicator is most appropriate for comparing average economic output per person across states?
A
Total population
B
Per capita NSDP
C
Gross cropped area
D
Revenue receipts
Question 105Single Answer
Net State Domestic Product differs from Gross State Domestic Product principally because NSDP makes an adjustment for what?
A
Consumption of fixed capital
B
Population density
C
Fiscal transfers
D
Food subsidies
Question 106Single Answer
Which characteristic has historically contributed significantly to Tamil Nadu's diversified industrial economy?
A
Exclusive dependence on mining
B
Complete absence of urbanisation
C
Presence of multiple manufacturing clusters
D
Prohibition of small-scale industries
Question 107Single Answer
Which Tamil Nadu city is especially recognised as a major automobile and automobile-component manufacturing centre?
A
Chennai
B
Thanjavur
C
Rameswaram
D
Udhagamandalam
Question 108Single Answer
Which Tamil Nadu city is widely associated with textile manufacturing and is often called the Manchester of South India?
A
Nagapattinam
B
Madurai
C
Vellore
D
Coimbatore
Question 109Single Answer
Tiruppur's economic importance is primarily associated with which industry?
A
Tea plantations
B
Shipbuilding
C
Knitwear and garment exports
D
Petroleum refining
Question 110Single Answer
Sivakasi has traditionally developed a specialised industrial cluster in which products?
A
Automobiles and aircraft
B
Fireworks, matches and printing
C
Tea and coffee
D
Leather tanning only
Question 111Single Answer
Which district-region of Tamil Nadu is especially associated with leather and leather-product industries?
A
Nilgiris plateau
B
Vellore-Ranipet belt
C
Ramanathapuram coast
D
Theni highlands
Question 112Single Answer
Which feature makes MSMEs particularly significant for Tamil Nadu's economy?
A
Their exemption from every market risk
B
Their exclusive control over monetary policy
C
Their ability to issue currency
D
Their role in employment, entrepreneurship and industrial supply chains
Question 113Single Answer
Which item is ordinarily classified as a revenue receipt of a State Government?
A
Recovery of loans
B
Market borrowing
C
State Goods and Services Tax collection
D
Sale of government land
Question 114Single Answer
Which receipt creates a liability for the State Government?
A
Borrowing
B
Tax revenue
C
Fee collection
D
Grant-in-aid
Question 115Single Answer
Which item is classified as a capital receipt?
A
State excise revenue
B
Market loans raised by the government
C
Stamp duty collection
D
Fees for public services
Question 116Single Answer
Which expenditure generally does not directly result in creation of government assets?
A
Revenue expenditure
B
Capital expenditure
C
Infrastructure investment
D
Acquisition of machinery
Question 117Single Answer
Construction of a new government irrigation project is generally classified as what?
A
Tax expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure
C
Capital expenditure
D
Revenue receipt
Question 118Single Answer
Payment of salaries to regular government employees is generally classified under which category?
A
Public debt receipt
B
Capital receipt
C
Capital expenditure
D
Revenue expenditure
Question 119Single Answer
Revenue deficit arises when which relationship exists?
A
Capital receipts exceed capital expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts
C
Tax revenue exceeds non-tax revenue
D
GSDP exceeds public debt
Question 120Single Answer
Fiscal deficit broadly indicates the government's requirement for what?
A
Borrowing to finance the gap between total expenditure and non-borrowed receipts
B
Agricultural subsidies alone
C
Currency printing by the state
D
Foreign exchange accumulation
Question 121Single Answer
Primary deficit is obtained by deducting which component from fiscal deficit?
A
Interest payments
B
Capital expenditure
C
Tax revenue
D
Grants
Question 122Single Answer
Which constitutional institution recommends the distribution of certain tax revenues between the Union and the States?
A
GST Council Secretariat alone
B
Election Commission
C
UPSC
D
Finance Commission
Question 123Single Answer
Tamil Nadu's share in divisible central taxes is classified in the State Budget principally as what?
A
Capital expenditure
B
Revenue receipt
C
Public debt
D
Contingent liability
Question 124Single Answer
Which tax is a major own-tax revenue source for Tamil Nadu after implementation of GST?
A
State GST
B
Corporation tax
C
Customs duty
D
Central income tax
Question 125Single Answer
Which of the following is principally a non-tax revenue source for a State Government?
A
State excise duty
B
SGST
C
Stamp duty
D
Fees and user charges
Question 126Single Answer
Tamil Nadu extends approximately between which latitudinal limits?
A
10°5′ N and 16°35′ N
B
8°5′ N and 13°35′ N
C
6°5′ N and 11°35′ N
D
12°5′ N and 18°35′ N
Question 127Single Answer
Tamil Nadu lies approximately between which longitudinal limits?
A
72°30′ E and 77°45′ E
B
70°10′ E and 76°15′ E
C
78°20′ E and 85°10′ E
D
74°15′ E and 80°20′ E
Question 128Single Answer
Which Indian state shares Tamil Nadu's western boundary for a considerable distance?
A
Goa
B
Telangana
C
Maharashtra
D
Kerala
Question 129Single Answer
Which water body lies predominantly to the east of Tamil Nadu?
A
Arabian Sea
B
Bay of Bengal
C
Gulf of Kutch
D
Lakshadweep Sea
Question 130Single Answer
The southernmost tip of mainland India located in Tamil Nadu is?
A
Point Calimere
B
Kanniyakumari
C
Rameswaram
D
Dhanushkodi
Question 131Single Answer
Tamil Nadu currently has how many districts?
A
32
B
38
C
36
D
40
Question 132Single Answer
Which Union Territory forms enclaves and coastal pockets adjoining Tamil Nadu?
A
Puducherry
B
Chandigarh
C
Lakshadweep
D
Ladakh
Question 133Single Answer
Which physiographic division occupies a major part of western Tamil Nadu?
A
Cauvery delta exclusively
B
Eastern Coastal Plains
C
Coromandel Coast only
D
Western Ghats
Question 134Single Answer
The Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet in which hill region of Tamil Nadu?
A
Kalrayan Hills
B
Palani Hills
C
Javadi Hills
D
Nilgiri Hills
Question 135Single Answer
Which is the highest peak in Tamil Nadu?
A
Agasthyamalai
B
Doddabetta
C
Servarayan
D
Velliangiri
Question 136Single Answer
Doddabetta is situated in which hill range?
A
Nilgiri Hills
B
Palani Hills
C
Anaimalai Hills
D
Kolli Hills
Question 137Single Answer
The Palghat Gap separates the Nilgiri Hills from which range?
A
Shevaroy Hills
B
Javadi Hills
C
Anaimalai Hills
D
Kalrayan Hills
Question 138Single Answer
Which mountain pass is an important natural corridor between Tamil Nadu and Kerala?
A
Bhor Ghat
B
Palghat Gap
C
Thal Ghat
D
Shipki La
Question 139Single Answer
The Anaimalai Hills are located predominantly in which part of Tamil Nadu?
A
Coromandel coast
B
Northeastern Tamil Nadu
C
Cauvery delta
D
Western Tamil Nadu
Question 140Single Answer
Kodaikanal is situated in which hill range?
A
Nilgiri Hills
B
Palani Hills
C
Javadi Hills
D
Kolli Hills
Question 141Single Answer
Yercaud is located in which hills?
A
Shevaroy Hills
B
Anaimalai Hills
C
Nilgiri Hills
D
Palani Hills
Question 142Single Answer
Kolli Hills form part of which major physiographic system?
A
Eastern Ghats
B
Western Ghats
C
Aravalli Range
D
Vindhyan Range
Question 143Single Answer
The coastal plain along northern and central Tamil Nadu is generally known as?
A
Konkan Coast
B
Coromandel Coast
C
Malabar Coast
D
Northern Circars
Question 144Single Answer
Which Tamil Nadu river forms an extensive and agriculturally important delta?
A
Cauvery
B
Palar
C
Vaigai
D
Tamiraparani
Question 145Single Answer
The Cauvery enters Tamil Nadu near which place?
A
Hogenakkal
B
Mettur
C
Srirangam
D
Poompuhar
Question 146Single Answer
The Mettur Dam has been constructed across which river?
A
Bhavani
B
Cauvery
C
Amaravati
D
Palar
Question 147Single Answer
Stanley Reservoir is another name for which reservoir?
A
Sathanur Reservoir
B
Vaigai Reservoir
C
Aliyar Reservoir
D
Mettur Reservoir
Question 148Single Answer
Which river is a major tributary of the Cauvery in Tamil Nadu?
A
Bhavani
B
Palar
C
Vaigai
D
Gundar
Question 149Single Answer
Bhavanisagar Dam is constructed across which river?
A
Noyyal
B
Amaravati
C
Bhavani
D
Ponnaiyar
Question 150Single Answer
Which river flows through Coimbatore and Tiruppur regions before joining the Cauvery system?
A
Vaigai
B
Noyyal
C
Palar
D
Vellar
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Question 151Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 152Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 153Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 155Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 156Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 158Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 159Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 160Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 161Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A
(50,59,71)
B
(46, 56, 66)
C
(60, 69, 72)
D
(60, 69, 82)
E
None of these
Question 162Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A
(56, 52, 44)
B
(64, 61, 53)
C
(92, 88, 79)
D
(75, 71, 60)
E
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Kick : Football
A
Mop : Sweep
B
Dust : Rage
C
Wash : Dishes
D
Throw : Ring
E
None of these
Question 164Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Rectangle : Pentagon
A
Triangle : Rectangle
B
Diagonal : Perimeter
C
Side : Angle
D
Circle : Square
E
None of the above
Question 165Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Inherit : Acquire
A
Instinct : Habbit
B
Learn : Discover
C
Loss : Gain
D
Hierarchical : Succession
E
None of the above
Question 166Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Court : Justic
A
Police : Crime
B
Teacher : Study
C
Doctor : Sickness
D
Auditor : Accuracy
E
None of these
Question 167Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Coal : Thermal
A
Power : Energy
B
Bulb : Light
C
Air : Atmosphere
D
Water : Hydel
E
None of the above
Question 168Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
A
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B
Either conclusion I or II is true
C
Only conclusion II is true
D
Only conclusion I is true
E
Both conclusions I and II are true
Question 169Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 170Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 171Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements S< L< I = P E> R : L > Q Conclusion
I. L> R
II.E> Q
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 172Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements C > W > E=R < B < S: H< R >D Conculsions
I. C > D
II.H < S
A
Either conclusion I or II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E
Only conclusion II is true
Question 173Single Answer
Passage :
DirectionIn these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements V= D < Y < A > G> E :P= R : A < V Conclusions
I. E > P
II. P > E
A
Either conclusion I or II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E
Only conclusion II is true
Question 174Single Answer
Passage :
Directions : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements S>J =T< O :T< P Conculsions
I. S O
II. P < S
A
Either conclusion I or II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E
Only conclusion II is true
Question 175Single Answer
Passage :
Directions : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
A
Either conclusion I or II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E
Only conclusion II is true
Question 176Single Answer
What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?
A
9
B
11
C
10
D
12
Question 177Single Answer
What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?
A
F
B
E
C
G
D
H
Question 178Single Answer
What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
A
20
B
36
C
30
D
25
Question 179Single Answer
What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
A
13
B
15
C
14
D
16
Question 180Single Answer
What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?
