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Latest TNPSC Group 2 Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies, Aptitude and Mental Ability Test, General English
Question Bank TNPSC Group 2 Prelims Exam - English
General Studies
Q 1 :
निम्नलिखित में से किसने स्वयं को ‘हिन्दुस्तान का तोता’ कहा था ?
A. मलिक मुहम्मद जायसी
B. रसखान
C. अमीर खुसरो
D. अमीर हसन
Q 2 :
अमीर खुसरो का वास्तविक नाम क्या था ?
A. मुहम्मद हसन
B. मुहम्मद हुसैन
C. मुहम्मद खुसरो
D. मुहम्मद खान
Q 3 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 4 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 5 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 6 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 7 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 8 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 9 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 10 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 11 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 12 :
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Canada
D.Australia
Q 13 :
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 14 :
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A.USA
B.UK
C.Germany
D.Canada
Q 15 :
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.52nd Amendment
D.62nd Amendment
Q 16 :
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A.The Constitution of Canada
B.The Constitution of Ireland
C.The Constitution of Australia
D.The Constitution of USA
Q 17 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 18 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 19 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 20 :
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A.Ganges
B.Kosi
C.Son
D.Gandak
Q 21 :
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
A.Aravallis
B.Vindhyas
C.Eastern Ghats
D.Himalayas
Q 22 :
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
A.Himalayas and Western Ghats
B.Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
C.Vindhyas and Satpuras
D.Aravallis and Satpuras
Q 23 :
Which of the following was the main cause of the Carnatic Wars?
A.British vs. Marathas for control over the Deccan
B.French vs. British for control over the Carnatic region
C.Invasion by the Mughals
D.Disputes between the Marathas and Nizam of Hyderabad
Q 24 :
The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the British and:
A.Marathas
B.Nizam of Hyderabad
C.Mughals
D.Siraj-ud-Daula
Q 25 :
The Treaty of Paris (1763) ended which of the following conflicts?
A.First Anglo-Maratha War
B.First Carnatic War
C.Seven Years' War
D.Anglo-Mysore War
Q 26 :
Which British general played a key role in the victory at the Battle of Plassey?
A.Robert Clive
B.Warren Hastings
C.Richard Wellesley
D.Lord Cornwallis
Q 27 :
The Battle of Buxar (1764) was fought between the British and:
A.Marathas
B.Mughals
C.Nawab of Oudh, Mir Qasim, and Shuja-ud-Daula
D.Sikhs
Q 28 :
Which sector contributes the highest to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
A.Agriculture
B.Industry
C.Services
D.Manufacturing
Q 29 :
What type of economy does India have?
A.Capitalist
B.Socialist
C.Mixed
D.Communist
Q 30 :
The term 'Demographic Dividend' refers to:
A.Increase in agricultural production
B.Rise in the working-age population
C.Growth in foreign investments
D.Surge in industrial output
Q 31 :
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian economy?
A.Predominantly urban
B.High dependency on agriculture
C.Low population density
D.Export-oriented manufacturing
Q 32 :
The 'Informal Sector' in India refers to:
A.Organized and registered businesses
B.Unorganized and unregistered businesses
C.Government enterprises
D.Foreign direct investments
Q 33 :
Which organization is responsible for calculating India's GDP?
A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B.NITI Aayog
C.Ministry of Finance
D.Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Q 34 :
The term 'Inclusive Growth' in the Indian context means:
A.Growth that includes foreign investments
B.Growth that benefits all sections of society
C.Growth limited to urban areas
D.Growth focused only on industrial sectors
Q 35 :
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian economy?
A.Large population
B.Predominance of agriculture
C.High per capita income
D.Mixed economic system
Q 36 :
The 'Green Revolution' in India was associated with:
A.Industrial growth
B.Agricultural productivity
C.Information technology
D.Environmental conservation
Q 37 :
Which sector is known as the 'Primary Sector' in the Indian economy?
A.Agriculture and allied activities
B.Manufacturing
C.Services
D.Information Technology
Q 38 :
The First Five-Year Plan in India was launched in:
A.1947
B.1950
C.1951
D.1955
Q 39 :
The main focus of the Second Five-Year Plan was:
A.Agriculture
B.Heavy industries
C.Services
D.Information technology
Q 40 :
Which model was adopted during the Second Five-Year Plan?
A.Harrod-Domar Model
B.Mahalanobis Model
C.Solow Model
D.Keynesian Model
Q 41 :
The Third Five-Year Plan aimed at:
A.Self-reliance in food production
B.Rapid industrialization
C.Expansion of education
D.Development of the service sector
Q 42 :
The concept of 'Rolling Plan' was introduced during which period?
A.1978-1980
B.1985-1990
C.1992-1997
D.2002-2007
Q 43 :
The Eighth Five-Year Plan emphasized:
A.Liberalization and privatization
B.Green Revolution
C.Heavy industries
D.Rural development
Q 44 :
Which Five-Year Plan is also known as the 'Gadgil Yojana'?
A.Third
B.Fourth
C.Fifth
D.Sixth
Q 45 :
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan aimed for an average annual growth rate of:
A.7%
B.8%
C.9%
D.10%
Q 46 :
The term 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty) was popularized during which Five-Year Plan?
A.Third
B.Fourth
C.Fifth
D.Sixth
Q 47 :
The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
A.2012
B.2014
C.2015
D.2016
Q 48 :
Which period is considered the golden age of Tamil literature?
A.Sangam Age
B.Chola Period
C.Vijayanagara Empire
D.British Rule
Q 49 :
What is the main source of information about the Sangam period?
A.Rock Edicts
B.Sangam Literature
C.Inscriptions in Temples
D.Palm Leaf Manuscripts
Q 50 :
Which Sangam text is considered a comprehensive work on ethics and morality?
A.Tolkappiyam
B.Silappadikaram
C.Thirukkural
D.Manimekalai
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General Studies
Q 51 :
The Megalithic culture in Tamil Nadu is associated with which archaeological site?
A.Adichanallur
B.Keeladi
C.Poompuhar
D.Kodumanal
Q 52 :
Which major archaeological discovery in Tamil Nadu provided evidence of an advanced urban civilization similar to the Indus Valley?
A.Keeladi Excavation
B.Arikamedu
C.Adichanallur
D.Korkai
Q 53 :
Which Sangam-era port was an important trade center with Rome and Greece?
A.Kaveripoompattinam
B.Kanchipuram
C.Madurai
D.Thanjavur
Q 54 :
Who is considered the father of Tamil literature?
A.Avvaiyar
B.Thiruvalluvar
C.Tolkappiyar
D.Ilango Adigal
Q 55 :
The term 'Sangam' in Sangam Literature refers to:
A.A religious text
B.A literary academy
C.A political organization
D.A war council
Q 56 :
Which epic describes the story of Kovalan and Kannagi?
A.Silappadikaram
B.Manimekalai
C.Purananuru
D.Periya Puranam
Q 57 :
Who wrote the Tamil grammar book ‘Tolkappiyam’?
A.Ilango Adigal
B.Thiruvalluvar
C.Tolkappiyar
D.Kambar
Q 58 :
Which Tamil epic is known for its Buddhist influences?
A.Silappadikaram
B.Manimekalai
C.Purananuru
D.Thirukkural
Q 59 :
Which dynasty was prominent during the Sangam period?
A.Chola
B.Pallava
C.Chera
D.All of the above
Q 60 :
The famous Tamil poetess Avvaiyar was associated with which period?
A.Sangam Age
B.Pallava Period
C.Chola Period
D.Vijayanagara Period
Q 61 :
Which inscription provides information about Tamil-Brahmi script?
A.Keeladi Inscriptions
B.Korkai Inscriptions
C.Edakkal Inscriptions
D.Adichanallur Inscriptions
Q 62 :
Which ancient Tamil text discusses the ethics of kingship?
A.Purananuru
B.Agananuru
C.Tirukkural
D.Silappadikaram
Q 63 :
Who composed the Periya Puranam?
A.Sekkizhar
B.Kamban
C.Thiruvalluvar
D.Ilango Adigal
Q 64 :
What was the primary economic activity of the Sangam period?
A.Agriculture
B.Trade
C.Handicrafts
D.All of the above
Q 65 :
Which Chola king built the famous Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur?
A.Rajaraja Chola I
B.Rajendra Chola I
C.Aditya Chola I
D.Kulothunga Chola I
Q 66 :
Which river was significant to the civilization of the Sangam period?
A.Ganga
B.Yamuna
C.Kaveri
D.Narmada
Q 67 :
Who is regarded as the first poet of Tamil literature?
A.Kapilar
B.Avvaiyar
C.Tolkappiyar
D.Thiruvalluvar
Q 68 :
Which among the following is an archaeological source of Ancient Indian History?
A.Coins
B.Inscriptions
C.Pottery remains
D.Manuscripts
Q 69 :
Who was the head of the central administration under the Delhi Sultanate?
A.Barid-i-Mumalik
B.Diwan-i-Arz
C.Qazi-ul-Quzat
D.Wazir
Q 70 :
2
Q 71 :
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A.July 1, 2026
B.June 30, 2026
C.July 2, 2026
D.June 29, 2026
Q 72 :
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Q 73 :
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A.Gukesh D
B.Praggnanandhaa R
C.Harshavardhan G.B.
D.Arjun Erigaisi
Q 74 :
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A.Merger with SBI
B.Merger into a single power financing entity
C.Merger with NTPC
D.Merger with IREDA
Q 75 :
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A.Lakhpati Didi App
B.Digital India Rural Scheme
C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Aptitude and Mental Ability Test
Q 76 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 77 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 78 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 79 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 80 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 81 :
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A.(50,59,71)
B.(46, 56, 66)
C.(60, 69, 72)
D.(60, 69, 82)
E.None of these
Q 82 :
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A.(56, 52, 44)
B.(64, 61, 53)
C.(92, 88, 79)
D.(75, 71, 60)
E.None of these
Q 83 :
Kick : Football
A.Mop : Sweep
B.Dust : Rage
C.Wash : Dishes
D.Throw : Ring
E.None of these
Q 84 :
Rectangle : Pentagon
A.Triangle : Rectangle
B.Diagonal : Perimeter
C.Side : Angle
D.Circle : Square
E.None of the above
Q 85 :
Inherit : Acquire
A.Instinct : Habbit
B.Learn : Discover
C.Loss : Gain
D.Hierarchical : Succession
E.None of the above
Q 86 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 87 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 88 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 89 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 90 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 91 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 92 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 93 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 94 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 95 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 96 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 97 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 98 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 99 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 100 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
General English
Q 101 :
Which word is an adjective in the sentence “The diligent student completed the difficult task quickly”?
A.diligent
B.student
C.completed
D.quickly
Q 102 :
Which word functions as an adverb in the sentence “She spoke remarkably well”?
A.spoke
B.she
C.well-spoken
D.remarkably
Q 103 :
Which word is a conjunction in the sentence “He stayed at home because it was raining”?
A.because
B.stayed
C.home
D.raining
Q 104 :
Which word is a preposition in the sentence “The files are inside the cupboard”?
A.files
B.inside
C.are
D.cupboard
Q 105 :
Which word is a pronoun in the sentence “Those are the books that I borrowed”?
A.books
B.borrowed
C.are
D.those
Q 106 :
Which word is an interjection in the sentence “Alas! The old monument has collapsed”?
A.Alas
B.collapsed
C.monument
D.old
Q 107 :
Which word functions as a noun in the sentence “Swimming is excellent exercise”?
A.is
B.excellent
C.Swimming
D.exercise only
Q 108 :
Which sentence contains a demonstrative adjective?
A.This book is mine
B.This is mine
C.She bought mine
D.They arrived yesterday
Q 109 :
Which sentence contains a relative pronoun?
A.Who came first
B.Who are you
C.I know the man who came first
D.Who told you this
Q 110 :
Which word is a determiner in “Several candidates attended the interview”?
A.attended
B.interview
C.Several
D.candidates
Q 111 :
Which sentence uses an abstract noun?
A.Honesty is admirable
B.The chair is broken
C.The dog is barking
D.The river is deep
Q 112 :
Which sentence contains a collective noun?
A.The player scored a goal
B.The clerk opened the file
C.The committee has submitted its report
D.The river overflowed
Q 113 :
Which word is a finite verb in “Having completed the task, she left the office”?
A.Having
B.left
C.completed
D.task
Q 114 :
Which word functions as a participle in “The broken window was replaced”?
A.was
B.window
C.broken
D.replaced only
Q 115 :
Which sentence contains an adverb of frequency?
A.He visited Chennai yesterday
B.He often visits Chennai
C.He lives nearby
D.He spoke softly
Q 116 :
Which sentence contains a proper noun?
A.The river is flooded
B.The city is ancient
C.Chennai is crowded today
D.The village is quiet
Q 117 :
Which word is a possessive pronoun?
A.my
B.myself
C.me
D.mine
Q 118 :
Which sentence contains a reflexive pronoun?
A.She herself completed the task
B.She completed her task
C.Her task was completed
D.They helped her
Q 119 :
Which sentence contains a coordinating conjunction?
A.He came and sat down
B.I stayed because it rained
C.Though tired, he worked
D.Since you asked, I answered
Q 120 :
Which sentence contains a subordinating conjunction?
A.I waited until he arrived
B.He came but did not stay
C.She and I attended
D.Either Ravi or Mani will come
Q 121 :
Choose the correct concord in the sentence “Each of the players ___ given a certificate”?
A.were
B.have been
C.was
D.are
Q 122 :
Choose the correct verb in “Neither the manager nor the employees ___ willing to compromise”?
A.was
B.is
C.were
D.has been
Q 123 :
Choose the correct verb in “The quality of these products ___ improved considerably”?
A.have
B.were
C.are
D.has
Q 124 :
Choose the correct verb in “A number of students ___ absent today”?
A.is
B.was
C.are
D.has
Q 125 :
Choose the correct verb in “The number of applicants ___ increased this year”?
A.have
B.are
C.were
D.has
Q 126 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Abate”?
A.Intensify
B.Provoke
C.Accumulate
D.Diminish
Q 127 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Prudent”?
A.Reckless
B.Cautious
C.Arrogant
D.Impulsive
Q 128 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Lucid”?
A.Clear
B.Obscure
C.Ambiguous
D.Tedious
Q 129 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Benevolent”?
A.Charitable
B.Hostile
C.Indifferent
D.Deceptive
Q 130 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Meticulous”?
A.Thorough
B.Careless
C.Hasty
D.Casual
Q 131 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Obsolete”?
A.Outdated
B.Contemporary
C.Innovative
D.Durable
Q 132 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Impeccable”?
A.Ordinary
B.Questionable
C.Faultless
D.Incomplete
Q 133 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Candid”?
A.Secretive
B.Hesitant
C.Frank
D.Artificial
Q 134 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Audacious”?
A.Timid
B.Bold
C.Submissive
D.Cautious
Q 135 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Eloquent”?
A.Incoherent
B.Articulate
C.Taciturn
D.Confused
Q 136 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Resilient”?
A.Adaptable
B.Fragile
C.Rigid
D.Vulnerable
Q 137 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Vindicate”?
A.Exonerate
B.Condemn
C.Accuse
D.Suspect
Q 138 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Mitigate”?
A.Alleviate
B.Aggravate
C.Complicate
D.Initiate
Q 139 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Ubiquitous”?
A.Scarce
B.Unusual
C.Temporary
D.Omnipresent
Q 140 :
Which word is the closest synonym of “Tenacious”?
A.Flexible
B.Indecisive
C.Persistent
D.Negligent
Q 141 :
Which salutation is most appropriate in a formal letter when the recipient's name is unknown?
A.Dear Friend
B.Dear Sir or Madam
C.My Dear Sir
D.Hello Officer
Q 142 :
Which closing is most appropriate when a formal letter begins with “Dear Sir or Madam”?
A.Your loving friend
B.Yours affectionately
C.With love
D.Yours faithfully
Q 143 :
Which closing is conventionally appropriate when a formal letter begins with the recipient's name?
A.Your obedient friend
B.Yours lovingly
C.Yours sincerely
D.With affection
Q 144 :
Which feature is most essential in a formal complaint letter?
A.Emotional exaggeration
B.Clear description of the problem and desired action
C.Personal anecdotes unrelated to the issue
D.Humorous observations
Q 145 :
Which subject line is most appropriate for a formal letter regarding a defective product?
A.My Terrible Experience
B.Problem Happened Yesterday
C.You Must Read This
D.Complaint Regarding Defective Washing Machine
Q 146 :
Which opening is most appropriate for a formal application letter?
A.I just thought I should ask you for this job
B.I am writing to apply for the post advertised in your notification
C.Hope everything is great with you
D.You probably know why I am writing
Q 147 :
Which sentence is most suitable for a formal request letter?
A.Send me the details right now
B.I would be grateful if you could provide the required details
C.You had better send the information
D.Why haven't you sent the details
Q 148 :
Which characteristic distinguishes an informal letter from a formal letter?
A.Personal and conversational tone
B.Mandatory subject line
C.Technical vocabulary throughout
D.Impersonal language only
Q 149 :
A letter written to the editor of a newspaper is primarily classified as what?
A.Informal letter
B.Personal invitation
C.Formal letter
D.Friendly correspondence
Q 150 :
Which letter would normally be written to seek information about a course?
A.Letter of condolence
B.Letter of inquiry
C.Letter of appreciation
D.Informal invitation
Q 151 :
Which administrative term refers to a formal written order issued by a competent authority?
A.Memorandum
B.Notification
C.Sanction
D.Proceedings
Q 152 :
Which term is used for an official communication generally issued within a department or organization?
A.Tender
B.Gazette
C.Memorandum
D.Dossier
Q 153 :
Which term refers to official approval for expenditure or an administrative proposal?
A.Circular
B.Annexure
C.Sanction
D.Agenda
Q 154 :
Which administrative term means transfer of an employee from one post or place to another?
A.Deputation
B.Confirmation
Correct
C.Promotion
D.Transfer
Q 155 :
Which term refers to temporary assignment of an employee to another department or organization?
A.Termination
B.Suspension
C.Resignation
D.Deputation
Q 156 :
Which term means advancement of an employee to a higher post or rank?
A.Promotion
B.Posting
C.Reversion
D.Transfer
Q 157 :
Which term refers to assigning an employee to a specific office, station or position?
A.Delegation
B.Posting
C.Deputation
D.Reinstatement
Q 158 :
Which administrative term means restoring an employee to service after suspension or removal, subject to orders?
A.Superannuation
B.Retrenchment
C.Reinstatement
D.Relinquishment
Q 159 :
Which term refers to temporary removal of an employee from active duty pending inquiry or other proceedings?
A.Suspension
B.Deputation
C.Confirmation
D.Promotion
Q 160 :
Which term means voluntary relinquishment of a post by an employee?
A.Removal
B.Retirement
C.Resignation
D.Reversion
Q 161 :
What was the principal objective of introducing the dedicated bus lanes?
A.To increase private vehicle speed
B.To widen arterial roads
C.To reduce the number of buses
D.To improve the reliability of public transport
Q 162 :
Why did buses previously tend to arrive in clusters?
A.Drivers deliberately waited for one another
B.Passenger numbers were too low
C.They were delayed in mixed traffic
D.Bus terminals were closed
Q 163 :
What happened to average bus journey time during the first month?
A.It rose by 18 per cent
B.It fell by 18 per cent
C.It remained unchanged
D.It fell by 28 per cent
Q 164 :
Which fact is explicitly stated in the passage?
A.Private car use fell sharply
B.All motorists supported the scheme
C.Daily bus passenger numbers rose moderately
D.The corporation immediately expanded the scheme
Q 165 :
Which inference is best supported by the passage?
A.Bus fares were reduced before the project began
B.Officials intend to ban private vehicles completely
C.The corporation considers public transport capacity important in road planning
D.Congestion disappeared from the city
Q 166 :
Which statement represents the motorists' main concern?
A.Remaining traffic lanes became crowded at peak periods
B.Bus journey times remained excessive
C.Too few buses were operating
D.Passenger safety declined dramatically
Q 167 :
Which of the following is the strongest question for evaluating the long-term success of the scheme?
A.Has the scheme improved person-throughput, reliability and safety over several months
B.What colour are the buses using the lanes
C.Which driver first used the bus lane
D.How many advertisements appear inside buses
Q 168 :
Which of the following is the weakest question for assessing transport performance?
A.How have passenger volumes changed
B.What is the favourite music of bus passengers
C.Has road safety improved
D.How have journey times changed
Q 169 :
Complete the sentence appropriately: “The corporation will consider expanding the scheme only after ___”?
A.private motorists stop using the roads
B.six months of monitoring
C.all buses are replaced
D.every road is widened
Q 170 :
Which title best suits the passage?
A.Private Cars Given Exclusive Road Access
B.Corporation Abandons Public Transport
C.City Tests Bus Lanes to Improve Public Transport Reliability
D.Bus Services Suspended on Arterial Roads
Q 171 :
What prompted the district administration to launch the programme?
A.Rising river levels
B.Increasing urban rainfall
C.Five years of declining groundwater levels
D.Closure of irrigation canals
Q 172 :
What are new government buildings required to install?
A.Desalination units
B.Solar pumps
C.Deep borewells
D.Rooftop rainwater collection systems
Q 173 :
What additional measure is being considered for old water bodies?
A.Conversion into roads
B.Sale to private developers
C.Mapping and restoration of ponds
D.Filling them with construction waste
Q 174 :
Why did environmental groups say rainwater harvesting alone may be insufficient?
A.Rainfall is always excessive
B.Pond restoration prevents infiltration
C.Recharge pits increase water consumption
D.Groundwater extraction may continue unchecked
Q 175 :
Why did farmers seek support for micro-irrigation?
A.They no longer grow crops
B.They want to increase flood irrigation
C.They depend heavily on borewells
D.They oppose water conservation
Q 176 :
Which factor is not mentioned as influencing groundwater recharge?
A.Soil type
B.Land cover
C.Extraction rate
D.Stock-market performance
Q 177 :
Which inference is most reasonable?
A.The administration recognizes that both recharge and efficient water use matter
