Which word is an adjective in the sentence “The diligent student completed the difficult task quickly”?
A
diligent
B
student
C
completed
D
quickly
Question 2Single Answer
Which word functions as an adverb in the sentence “She spoke remarkably well”?
A
spoke
B
she
C
well-spoken
D
remarkably
Question 3Single Answer
Which word is a conjunction in the sentence “He stayed at home because it was raining”?
A
because
B
stayed
C
home
D
raining
Question 4Single Answer
Which word is a preposition in the sentence “The files are inside the cupboard”?
A
files
B
inside
C
are
D
cupboard
Question 5Single Answer
Which word is a pronoun in the sentence “Those are the books that I borrowed”?
A
books
B
borrowed
C
are
D
those
Question 6Single Answer
Which word is an interjection in the sentence “Alas! The old monument has collapsed”?
A
Alas
B
collapsed
C
monument
D
old
Question 7Single Answer
Which word functions as a noun in the sentence “Swimming is excellent exercise”?
A
is
B
excellent
C
Swimming
D
exercise only
Question 8Single Answer
Which sentence contains a demonstrative adjective?
A
This book is mine
B
This is mine
C
She bought mine
D
They arrived yesterday
Question 9Single Answer
Which sentence contains a relative pronoun?
A
Who came first
B
Who are you
C
I know the man who came first
D
Who told you this
Question 10Single Answer
Which word is a determiner in “Several candidates attended the interview”?
A
attended
B
interview
C
Several
D
candidates
Question 11Single Answer
Which sentence uses an abstract noun?
A
Honesty is admirable
B
The chair is broken
C
The dog is barking
D
The river is deep
Question 12Single Answer
Which sentence contains a collective noun?
A
The player scored a goal
B
The clerk opened the file
C
The committee has submitted its report
D
The river overflowed
Question 13Single Answer
Which word is a finite verb in “Having completed the task, she left the office”?
A
Having
B
left
C
completed
D
task
Question 14Single Answer
Which word functions as a participle in “The broken window was replaced”?
A
was
B
window
C
broken
D
replaced only
Question 15Single Answer
Which sentence contains an adverb of frequency?
A
He visited Chennai yesterday
B
He often visits Chennai
C
He lives nearby
D
He spoke softly
Question 16Single Answer
Which sentence contains a proper noun?
A
The river is flooded
B
The city is ancient
C
Chennai is crowded today
D
The village is quiet
Question 17Single Answer
Which word is a possessive pronoun?
A
my
B
myself
C
me
D
mine
Question 18Single Answer
Which sentence contains a reflexive pronoun?
A
She herself completed the task
B
She completed her task
C
Her task was completed
D
They helped her
Question 19Single Answer
Which sentence contains a coordinating conjunction?
A
He came and sat down
B
I stayed because it rained
C
Though tired, he worked
D
Since you asked, I answered
Question 20Single Answer
Which sentence contains a subordinating conjunction?
A
I waited until he arrived
B
He came but did not stay
C
She and I attended
D
Either Ravi or Mani will come
Question 21Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Abate”?
A
Intensify
B
Provoke
C
Accumulate
D
Diminish
Question 22Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Prudent”?
A
Reckless
B
Cautious
C
Arrogant
D
Impulsive
Question 23Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Lucid”?
A
Clear
B
Obscure
C
Ambiguous
D
Tedious
Question 24Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Benevolent”?
A
Charitable
B
Hostile
C
Indifferent
D
Deceptive
Question 25Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Meticulous”?
A
Thorough
B
Careless
C
Hasty
D
Casual
Question 26Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Obsolete”?
A
Outdated
B
Contemporary
C
Innovative
D
Durable
Question 27Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Impeccable”?
A
Ordinary
B
Questionable
C
Faultless
D
Incomplete
Question 28Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Candid”?
A
Secretive
B
Hesitant
C
Frank
D
Artificial
Question 29Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Audacious”?
A
Timid
B
Bold
C
Submissive
D
Cautious
Question 30Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Eloquent”?
A
Incoherent
B
Articulate
C
Taciturn
D
Confused
Question 31Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Resilient”?
A
Adaptable
B
Fragile
C
Rigid
D
Vulnerable
Question 32Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Vindicate”?
A
Exonerate
B
Condemn
C
Accuse
D
Suspect
Question 33Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Mitigate”?
A
Alleviate
B
Aggravate
C
Complicate
D
Initiate
Question 34Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Ubiquitous”?
A
Scarce
B
Unusual
C
Temporary
D
Omnipresent
Question 35Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Tenacious”?
A
Flexible
B
Indecisive
C
Persistent
D
Negligent
Question 36Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Amicable”?
A
Hostile
B
Friendly
C
Bitter
D
Formal
Question 37Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Conspicuous”?
A
Noticeable
B
Hidden
C
Doubtful
D
Ordinary
Question 38Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Diligent”?
A
Negligent
B
Industrious
C
Indifferent
D
Reluctant
Question 39Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Transient”?
A
Temporary
B
Permanent
C
Stable
D
Endless
Question 40Single Answer
Which word is the closest synonym of “Magnanimous”?
A
Miserly
B
Vindictive
C
Selfish
D
Generous
Question 41Single Answer
Which salutation is most appropriate in a formal letter when the recipient's name is unknown?
A
Dear Friend
B
Dear Sir or Madam
C
My Dear Sir
D
Hello Officer
Question 42Single Answer
Which closing is most appropriate when a formal letter begins with “Dear Sir or Madam”?
A
Your loving friend
B
Yours affectionately
C
With love
D
Yours faithfully
Question 43Single Answer
Which closing is conventionally appropriate when a formal letter begins with the recipient's name?
A
Your obedient friend
B
Yours lovingly
C
Yours sincerely
D
With affection
Question 44Single Answer
Which feature is most essential in a formal complaint letter?
A
Emotional exaggeration
B
Clear description of the problem and desired action
C
Personal anecdotes unrelated to the issue
D
Humorous observations
Question 45Single Answer
Which subject line is most appropriate for a formal letter regarding a defective product?
A
My Terrible Experience
B
Problem Happened Yesterday
C
You Must Read This
D
Complaint Regarding Defective Washing Machine
Question 46Single Answer
Which opening is most appropriate for a formal application letter?
A
I just thought I should ask you for this job
B
I am writing to apply for the post advertised in your notification
C
Hope everything is great with you
D
You probably know why I am writing
Question 47Single Answer
Which sentence is most suitable for a formal request letter?
A
Send me the details right now
B
I would be grateful if you could provide the required details
C
You had better send the information
D
Why haven't you sent the details
Question 48Single Answer
Which characteristic distinguishes an informal letter from a formal letter?
A
Personal and conversational tone
B
Mandatory subject line
C
Technical vocabulary throughout
D
Impersonal language only
Question 49Single Answer
A letter written to the editor of a newspaper is primarily classified as what?
A
Informal letter
B
Personal invitation
C
Formal letter
D
Friendly correspondence
Question 50Single Answer
Which letter would normally be written to seek information about a course?
A
Letter of condolence
B
Letter of inquiry
C
Letter of appreciation
D
Informal invitation
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English
Question 51Single Answer
Which administrative term refers to a formal written order issued by a competent authority?
A
Memorandum
B
Notification
C
Sanction
D
Proceedings
Question 52Single Answer
Which term is used for an official communication generally issued within a department or organization?
A
Tender
B
Gazette
C
Memorandum
D
Dossier
Question 53Single Answer
Which term refers to official approval for expenditure or an administrative proposal?
A
Circular
B
Annexure
C
Sanction
D
Agenda
Question 54Single Answer
Which administrative term means transfer of an employee from one post or place to another?
A
Deputation
B
Confirmation
Correct
C
Promotion
D
Transfer
Question 55Single Answer
Which term refers to temporary assignment of an employee to another department or organization?
A
Termination
B
Suspension
C
Resignation
D
Deputation
Question 56Single Answer
Which term means advancement of an employee to a higher post or rank?
A
Promotion
B
Posting
C
Reversion
D
Transfer
Question 57Single Answer
Which term refers to assigning an employee to a specific office, station or position?
A
Delegation
B
Posting
C
Deputation
D
Reinstatement
Question 58Single Answer
Which administrative term means restoring an employee to service after suspension or removal, subject to orders?
A
Superannuation
B
Retrenchment
C
Reinstatement
D
Relinquishment
Question 59Single Answer
Which term refers to temporary removal of an employee from active duty pending inquiry or other proceedings?
A
Suspension
B
Deputation
C
Confirmation
D
Promotion
Question 60Single Answer
Which term means voluntary relinquishment of a post by an employee?
A
Removal
B
Retirement
C
Resignation
D
Reversion
Question 61Single Answer
What was the principal objective of introducing the dedicated bus lanes?
A
To increase private vehicle speed
B
To widen arterial roads
C
To reduce the number of buses
D
To improve the reliability of public transport
Question 62Single Answer
Why did buses previously tend to arrive in clusters?
A
Drivers deliberately waited for one another
B
Passenger numbers were too low
C
They were delayed in mixed traffic
D
Bus terminals were closed
Question 63Single Answer
What happened to average bus journey time during the first month?
A
It rose by 18 per cent
B
It fell by 18 per cent
C
It remained unchanged
D
It fell by 28 per cent
Question 64Single Answer
Which fact is explicitly stated in the passage?
A
Private car use fell sharply
B
All motorists supported the scheme
C
Daily bus passenger numbers rose moderately
D
The corporation immediately expanded the scheme
Question 65Single Answer
Which inference is best supported by the passage?
A
Bus fares were reduced before the project began
B
Officials intend to ban private vehicles completely
C
The corporation considers public transport capacity important in road planning
D
Congestion disappeared from the city
Question 66Single Answer
Which statement represents the motorists' main concern?
A
Remaining traffic lanes became crowded at peak periods
B
Bus journey times remained excessive
C
Too few buses were operating
D
Passenger safety declined dramatically
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following is the strongest question for evaluating the long-term success of the scheme?
A
Has the scheme improved person-throughput, reliability and safety over several months
B
What colour are the buses using the lanes
C
Which driver first used the bus lane
D
How many advertisements appear inside buses
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following is the weakest question for assessing transport performance?
A
How have passenger volumes changed
B
What is the favourite music of bus passengers
C
Has road safety improved
D
How have journey times changed
Question 69Single Answer
Complete the sentence appropriately: “The corporation will consider expanding the scheme only after ___”?
A
private motorists stop using the roads
B
six months of monitoring
C
all buses are replaced
D
every road is widened
Question 70Single Answer
Which title best suits the passage?
A
Private Cars Given Exclusive Road Access
B
Corporation Abandons Public Transport
C
City Tests Bus Lanes to Improve Public Transport Reliability
D
Bus Services Suspended on Arterial Roads
Question 71Single Answer
What prompted the district administration to launch the programme?
A
Rising river levels
B
Increasing urban rainfall
C
Five years of declining groundwater levels
D
Closure of irrigation canals
Question 72Single Answer
What are new government buildings required to install?
A
Desalination units
B
Solar pumps
C
Deep borewells
D
Rooftop rainwater collection systems
Question 73Single Answer
What additional measure is being considered for old water bodies?
A
Conversion into roads
B
Sale to private developers
C
Mapping and restoration of ponds
D
Filling them with construction waste
Question 74Single Answer
Why did environmental groups say rainwater harvesting alone may be insufficient?
A
Rainfall is always excessive
B
Pond restoration prevents infiltration
C
Recharge pits increase water consumption
D
Groundwater extraction may continue unchecked
Question 75Single Answer
Why did farmers seek support for micro-irrigation?
A
They no longer grow crops
B
They want to increase flood irrigation
C
They depend heavily on borewells
D
They oppose water conservation
Question 76Single Answer
Which is the most appropriate English translation of the Tamil word “பொறுப்பு”?
A
Permission
B
Opportunity
C
Sympathy
D
Responsibility
Question 77Single Answer
Which is the correct English translation of “விழிப்புணர்வு”?
A
Assistance
B
Achievement
C
Agreement
D
Awareness
Question 78Single Answer
Which word correctly translates “சுற்றுச்சூழல்”?
A
Agriculture
B
Environment
C
Administration
D
Economy
Question 79Single Answer
Which is the most suitable English equivalent of “நலத்திட்டம்”?
A
Welfare scheme
B
Judicial order
C
Financial penalty
D
Private contract
Question 80Single Answer
Which is the correct English translation of “வேலைவாய்ப்பு”?
A
Appointment
B
Employment
C
Education
D
Empowerment
Question 81Single Answer
Which English word best translates “சாதனை”?
A
Obligation
B
Permission
C
Achievement
D
Recommendation
Question 82Single Answer
Which is the correct translation of “முன்னேற்றம்”?
A
Progress
B
Protest
C
Protection
D
Provision
Question 83Single Answer
Which English word is closest in meaning to “பாதுகாப்பு”?
A
Production
B
Protection
C
Promotion
D
Prediction
Question 84Single Answer
Which is the most appropriate English translation of “சமத்துவம்”?
A
Justice
B
Liberty
C
Equality
D
Fraternity
Question 85Single Answer
Which is the correct English equivalent of “வறுமை”?
A
Prosperity
B
Poverty
C
Scarcity
D
Inflation
Question 86Single Answer
In Raj Arumugam's “I Dream of Spices,” what primarily drives the movement of the poem?
A
A scientific classification of plants
B
A child's imaginative association with spices
C
A merchant's calculation of profit
D
A historical account of maritime trade
Question 87Single Answer
In “I Dream of Spices,” the use of different spices primarily contributes to which poetic quality?
A
Epic narration
B
Political satire
C
Dramatic irony
D
Sensory imagery
Question 88Single Answer
Lewis Carroll's “The Crocodile” is best understood as a parody of what kind of poetry?
A
Pastoral elegy
B
Moralistic didactic verse
C
Romantic sonnet
D
Heroic epic
Question 89Single Answer
In “The Crocodile,” the crocodile's apparently cheerful behaviour chiefly creates what effect?
A
Nostalgia because it recalls childhood
B
Tragedy because it fears the fish
C
Realism because it behaves like a pet
D
Irony because its friendliness conceals predatory intent
Question 90Single Answer
In the phrase “How cheerfully he seems to grin” from “The Crocodile,” what is attributed to the animal?
A
A historical identity
B
A supernatural power
C
A human-like expression
D
An abstract mathematical quality
Question 91Single Answer
What central idea does Edgar Albert Guest emphasize in “Teamwork”?
A
Success depends entirely on physical strength
B
Individual competition is superior to cooperation
C
Collective effort makes difficult achievements possible
D
Leadership eliminates the need for cooperation
Question 92Single Answer
Which statement best reflects the philosophy of “Teamwork”?
A
Teams succeed only when one person does everything
B
Individual ability becomes more effective through cooperation
C
Cooperation weakens personal responsibility
D
Talent has no connection with success
Question 93Single Answer
In Robert Louis Stevenson's “From a Railway Carriage,” the rapid succession of images primarily imitates what?
A
The stillness of a station
B
The speed of a moving train
C
The rhythm of ocean waves
D
The slow passage of a pedestrian
Question 94Single Answer
Which technique is especially important in “From a Railway Carriage” for conveying speed?
A
Extended philosophical dialogue
B
Rapid enumeration of passing scenes
C
Static description of one object
D
Repeated rhetorical questions
Question 95Single Answer
What contrast is central to “From a Railway Carriage”?
A
War and peace
B
Urban poverty and royal luxury
C
Childhood and old age
D
The train's speed and the fleeting countryside scenes
Question 96Single Answer
William Makepeace Thackeray's “A Tragic Story” gains much of its humour from what device?
A
Historical realism
B
Solemn elegy
C
Absurdity and comic irony
D
Religious allegory
Question 97Single Answer
The sage's repeated effort to see his own pigtail in “A Tragic Story” mainly illustrates what?
A
The superiority of physical strength
B
The value of scientific experimentation
C
The absurdity of trying to escape one's own position
D
The importance of social status
Question 98Single Answer
What dominant desire motivates the speaker in John Masefield's “Sea Fever”?
A
A desire to avoid all travel
B
An irresistible longing to return to the sea
C
A wish to settle permanently in a city
D
A fear of natural landscapes
Question 99Single Answer
The repeated expression “I must go down to the seas again” chiefly emphasizes what?
A
The compelling nature of the speaker's longing
B
His uncertainty about travelling
C
His dislike of sailors
D
His obligation to earn money
Question 100Single Answer
Which combination of images is most characteristic of “Sea Fever”?
A
Classroom, books, examinations and bells
B
Factory, smoke, machinery and traffic
C
Wind, sea, ship and wandering life
D
Palace, throne, crown and army
General Studies
Question 101Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 102Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 103Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 104Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 106Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 107Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 108Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 109Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 110Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 111Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 112Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 113Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 114Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 116Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 117Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 118Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 119Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 120Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 121Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 122Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 123Single Answer
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 124Single Answer
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 125Single Answer
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Germany
D
Canada
Question 126Single Answer
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
62nd Amendment
Question 127Single Answer
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A
The Constitution of Canada
B
The Constitution of Ireland
C
The Constitution of Australia
D
The Constitution of USA
Question 128Single Answer
The Constitution of India was drafted by:
A
200 members
B
298 members
C
250 members
D
310 members
Question 129Single Answer
The objective resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Sardar Patel
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
B.R. Ambedkar
Question 130Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
A
Part II
B
Part III
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 131Single Answer
The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
A
UK
B
USA
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 132Single Answer
The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains:
A
52 subjects
B
66 subjects
C
97 subjects
D
61 subjects
Question 133Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 134Single Answer
Which sector contributes the highest to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
A
Agriculture
B
Industry
C
Services
D
Manufacturing
Question 135Single Answer
What type of economy does India have?
A
Capitalist
B
Socialist
C
Mixed
D
Communist
Question 136Single Answer
The term 'Demographic Dividend' refers to:
A
Increase in agricultural production
B
Rise in the working-age population
C
Growth in foreign investments
D
Surge in industrial output
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian economy?
A
Predominantly urban
B
High dependency on agriculture
C
Low population density
D
Export-oriented manufacturing
Question 138Single Answer
The 'Informal Sector' in India refers to:
A
Organized and registered businesses
B
Unorganized and unregistered businesses
C
Government enterprises
D
Foreign direct investments
Question 139Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for calculating India's GDP?
A
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B
NITI Aayog
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Question 140Single Answer
The term 'Inclusive Growth' in the Indian context means:
A
Growth that includes foreign investments
B
Growth that benefits all sections of society
C
Growth limited to urban areas
D
Growth focused only on industrial sectors
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian economy?
A
Large population
B
Predominance of agriculture
C
High per capita income
D
Mixed economic system
Question 142Single Answer
The 'Green Revolution' in India was associated with:
A
Industrial growth
B
Agricultural productivity
C
Information technology
D
Environmental conservation
Question 143Single Answer
Which sector is known as the 'Primary Sector' in the Indian economy?
A
Agriculture and allied activities
B
Manufacturing
C
Services
D
Information Technology
Question 144Single Answer
The First Five-Year Plan in India was launched in:
A
1947
B
1950
C
1951
D
1955
Question 145Single Answer
The main focus of the Second Five-Year Plan was:
A
Agriculture
B
Heavy industries
C
Services
D
Information technology
Question 146Single Answer
Which model was adopted during the Second Five-Year Plan?
A
Harrod-Domar Model
B
Mahalanobis Model
C
Solow Model
D
Keynesian Model
Question 147Single Answer
The Third Five-Year Plan aimed at:
A
Self-reliance in food production
B
Rapid industrialization
C
Expansion of education
D
Development of the service sector
Question 148Single Answer
The concept of 'Rolling Plan' was introduced during which period?
A
1978-1980
B
1985-1990
C
1992-1997
D
2002-2007
Question 149Single Answer
The Eighth Five-Year Plan emphasized:
A
Liberalization and privatization
B
Green Revolution
C
Heavy industries
D
Rural development
Question 150Single Answer
Which Five-Year Plan is also known as the 'Gadgil Yojana'?
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Sixth
Question 151Single Answer
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan aimed for an average annual growth rate of:
A
7%
B
8%
C
9%
D
10%
Question 152Single Answer
The term 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty) was popularized during which Five-Year Plan?
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Sixth
Question 153Single Answer
The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
A
2012
B
2014
C
2015
D
2016
Question 154Single Answer
Which period is considered the golden age of Tamil literature?
A
Sangam Age
B
Chola Period
C
Vijayanagara Empire
D
British Rule
Question 155Single Answer
What is the main source of information about the Sangam period?
A
Rock Edicts
B
Sangam Literature
C
Inscriptions in Temples
D
Palm Leaf Manuscripts
Question 156Single Answer
Which Sangam text is considered a comprehensive work on ethics and morality?
A
Tolkappiyam
B
Silappadikaram
C
Thirukkural
D
Manimekalai
Question 157Single Answer
The Megalithic culture in Tamil Nadu is associated with which archaeological site?
A
Adichanallur
B
Keeladi
C
Poompuhar
D
Kodumanal
Question 158Single Answer
Which major archaeological discovery in Tamil Nadu provided evidence of an advanced urban civilization similar to the Indus Valley?
A
Keeladi Excavation
B
Arikamedu
C
Adichanallur
D
Korkai
Question 159Single Answer
Which Sangam-era port was an important trade center with Rome and Greece?
A
Kaveripoompattinam
B
Kanchipuram
C
Madurai
D
Thanjavur
Question 160Single Answer
Who is considered the father of Tamil literature?
A
Avvaiyar
B
Thiruvalluvar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Ilango Adigal
Question 161Single Answer
The term 'Sangam' in Sangam Literature refers to:
A
A religious text
B
A literary academy
C
A political organization
D
A war council
Question 162Single Answer
Which epic describes the story of Kovalan and Kannagi?
A
Silappadikaram
B
Manimekalai
C
Purananuru
D
Periya Puranam
Question 163Single Answer
Who wrote the Tamil grammar book ‘Tolkappiyam’?
A
Ilango Adigal
B
Thiruvalluvar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Kambar
Question 164Single Answer
Which Tamil epic is known for its Buddhist influences?
A
Silappadikaram
B
Manimekalai
C
Purananuru
D
Thirukkural
Question 165Single Answer
Which dynasty was prominent during the Sangam period?
A
Chola
B
Pallava
C
Chera
D
All of the above
Question 166Single Answer
The famous Tamil poetess Avvaiyar was associated with which period?
A
Sangam Age
B
Pallava Period
C
Chola Period
D
Vijayanagara Period
Question 167Single Answer
Which inscription provides information about Tamil-Brahmi script?
A
Keeladi Inscriptions
B
Korkai Inscriptions
C
Edakkal Inscriptions
D
Adichanallur Inscriptions
Question 168Single Answer
Which ancient Tamil text discusses the ethics of kingship?
A
Purananuru
B
Agananuru
C
Tirukkural
D
Silappadikaram
Question 169Single Answer
Who composed the Periya Puranam?
A
Sekkizhar
B
Kamban
C
Thiruvalluvar
D
Ilango Adigal
Question 170Single Answer
What was the primary economic activity of the Sangam period?
A
Agriculture
B
Trade
C
Handicrafts
D
All of the above
Question 171Single Answer
Which Chola king built the famous Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur?
A
Rajaraja Chola I
B
Rajendra Chola I
C
Aditya Chola I
D
Kulothunga Chola I
Question 172Single Answer
Which river was significant to the civilization of the Sangam period?
A
Ganga
B
Yamuna
C
Kaveri
D
Narmada
Question 173Single Answer
Who is regarded as the first poet of Tamil literature?
A
Kapilar
B
Avvaiyar
C
Tolkappiyar
D
Thiruvalluvar
Question 174Single Answer
PM Modi urged citizens to promote which campaign related to weddings?
A
Make in India
B
Skill India
C
Digital India
D
Wed in India / Swadeshi Bharat
Question 175Single Answer
India’s real GVA growth in Q1 FY27 was:
A
7.8%
B
6.9%
C
10.3%
D
8.2%
Aptitude and Mental ability Test
Question 176Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A
(50,59,71)
B
(46, 56, 66)
C
(60, 69, 72)
D
(60, 69, 82)
E
None of these
Question 177Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set.
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A
(56, 52, 44)
B
(64, 61, 53)
C
(92, 88, 79)
D
(75, 71, 60)
E
None of these
Question 178Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Kick : Football
A
Mop : Sweep
B
Dust : Rage
C
Wash : Dishes
D
Throw : Ring
E
None of these
Question 179Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Rectangle : Pentagon
A
Triangle : Rectangle
B
Diagonal : Perimeter
C
Side : Angle
D
Circle : Square
E
None of the above
Question 180Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongst the alternatives
Inherit : Acquire
A
Instinct : Habbit
B
Learn : Discover
C
Loss : Gain
D
Hierarchical : Succession
E
None of the above
Question 181Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Court : Justic
A
Police : Crime
B
Teacher : Study
C
Doctor : Sickness
D
Auditor : Accuracy
E
None of these
Question 182Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.
Coal : Thermal
A
Power : Energy
B
Bulb : Light
C
Air : Atmosphere
D
Water : Hydel
E
None of the above
Question 183Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
A
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B
Either conclusion I or II is true
C
Only conclusion II is true
D
Only conclusion I is true
E
Both conclusions I and II are true
Question 184Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 185Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 186Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements S< L< I = P E> R : L > Q Conclusion
I. L> R
II.E> Q
A
Only conclusion II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Either conclusion I or II is true
E
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Question 187Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In these question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer
Statements C > W > E=R < B < S: H< R >D Conculsions
I. C > D
II.H < S
A
Either conclusion I or II is true
B
Only conclusion I is true
C
Both conclusions I and II are true
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E
Only conclusion II is true
Question 188Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 189Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 190Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 191Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 192Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 193Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 194Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 195Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 196Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 197Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 198Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 199Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.