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Objective Questions

Latest TNPSC Technical Assistant Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Civil Engineering

Question Bank TNPSC Technical Assistant Civil Exam Paper 2 - English

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Civil Engineering

Question 1Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 2Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 3Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 4Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 5Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 6Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 7Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 9Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 10Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 11Single Answer

Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 12Single Answer

Sewage sickness relates to

A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land

Question 13Single Answer

The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10^–5.6 mmol of OH^– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is

A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5

Question 14Single Answer

Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NO_x in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO₂ in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?

A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 15Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 16Single Answer

Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 17Single Answer

For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is

A
0.5m
B
1.25m
C
2.75m
D
4.25m

Question 18Single Answer

A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is

A
7.5%
B
9.5%
C
13.5%
D
16.5%

Question 19Single Answer

Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42⁰36’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is

A
10 h 32 m 40 s AM
B
11h 32 m 39s PM
C
0 h 32 m 39s PM
D
11 h 32 m 39s AM

Question 20Single Answer

A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is

A
10 m
B
15 m
C
20 m
D
25 m

Question 21Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 22Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 23Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 24Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 25Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 26Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 28Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 29Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 30Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 31Single Answer

Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?

A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?

A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test

Question 33Single Answer

Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 34Single Answer

The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 35Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 36Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 37Single Answer

In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in

A
Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B
Pith and Heart Wood
C
Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D
Outer Bark and Sap Wood

Question 38Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 39Single Answer

Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?

A
Vertical displacements in a structure
B
Rotational displacements in a structure
C
System of forces in equilibrium
D
Stress-strain behavior of a material

Question 40Single Answer

Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm²and 40 N/mm², both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm². The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are

A
2.5 and 2.5
B
2.5 and 5
C
5 and 1.67
D
6 and 2.50

Question 41Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 42Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 43Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 44Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 45Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 46Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 47Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 48Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 49Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 50Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

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Civil Engineering

Question 51Single Answer

The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm⁴. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm². The safe concentrated load at the free end would be

A
100 N
B
200 N
C
300 N
D
400 N

Question 52Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 53Single Answer

Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 54Single Answer

A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is

A
49.27 mm
B
39.27 mm
C
30.27 mm
D
20.27 mm

Question 55Single Answer

The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 56Single Answer

A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly

A
0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B
0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C
4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D
0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec

Question 57Single Answer

A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly

A
136 N
B
131 N
C
131 N
D
121 N

Question 58Single Answer

The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 59Single Answer

A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM₁ and SM₂ as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively

A
SM₁ > SM₂
B
SM₁ < SM₂
C
SM₁ = SM₂
D
Cannot be ascertained

Question 60Single Answer

Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 61Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 62Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 63Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 64Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 65Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 66Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 67Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 68Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 69Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 70Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 71Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 72Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 73Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 74Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 75Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 76Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 77Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 78Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 79Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 80Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 81Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3

Question 83Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5

Question 84Single Answer

Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?

A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5

Question 85Single Answer

Consider the following statements:Presence of Na₂O and K₂O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 86Single Answer

The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is

A
625
B
480
C
330
D
250

Question 87Single Answer

Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between

A
A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B
A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate

Question 88Single Answer

Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 89Single Answer

Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl₂ in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 2

Question 90Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 91Single Answer

Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 92Single Answer

What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?

A
ASCU treatment
B
Abel’s process
C
Creosoting
D
Tarring

Question 93Single Answer

Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 94Single Answer

Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 95Single Answer

As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be

A
75 kg/cm³
B
100kg/cm³
C
125 kg/cm³
D
150 kg/cm³

Question 96Single Answer

When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as

A
English bond
B
Single Flemish bond
C
Double Flemish bond
D
Rat-trap bond

Question 97Single Answer

I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4

Question 98Single Answer

Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its

A
Alumina content
B
Iron oxide content
C
Free lime content
D
Durability under sea water

Question 99Single Answer

The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 100Single Answer

A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 10⁵ N/mm². The extension of the rod in mm would be:

A
3
2
B
2
3
C
3
D
1
3

Question 101Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 102Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 103Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 104Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 105Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 106Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 107Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 108Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 109Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 110Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 111Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 112Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 113Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 114Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 115Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 116Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 117Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 118Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 119Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 120Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 121Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 122Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 123Single Answer

The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as

A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive

Question 124Single Answer

Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?

A
C₄AF
B
C₃S
C
C₃A
D
C₂A

Question 125Single Answer

According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :

A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m

Question 126Single Answer

Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.

A
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy – Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
B
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide, Ozone, Photochemical smog
C
PP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
SP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
D
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides
SP : Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide

Question 127Single Answer

Saturated unit weight of soil is the ratio of :

A
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight

Question 128Single Answer

Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .

A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test

Question 129Single Answer

In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm² units) :

A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92

Question 130Single Answer

Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?

A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan

Question 131Single Answer

The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .

A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false

Question 132Single Answer

A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :

Question 133Single Answer

The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :

A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils

Question 134Single Answer

What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?

A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m

Question 135Single Answer

The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).

A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error

Question 136Single Answer

According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .

A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?

A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method

Question 138Single Answer

Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?

A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method

Question 139Single Answer

The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :

A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure

Question 140Single Answer

In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?

A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate

Question 141Single Answer

What is runoff in hydrology defined as?

A
Water that infiltrates into the ground
B
Water that flows over the surface into streams
C
Water stored in reservoirs
D
Water evaporated from the surface

Question 142Single Answer

Which factor most significantly affects runoff estimation?

A
Soil permeability
B
Air temperature
C
Wind speed
D
Cloud cover

Question 143Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in hydrology?

A
Determine groundwater recharge
B
Design hydraulic structures
C
Measure evaporation rates
D
Calculate soil moisture

Question 144Single Answer

Which method is commonly used for runoff estimation in small catchments?

A
Rational method
B
Unit hydrograph method
C
SCS curve number method
D
Muskingum method

Question 145Single Answer

What is the primary source of runoff in a catchment?

A
Groundwater flow
B
Precipitation
C
Evapotranspiration
D
Infiltration

Question 146Single Answer

Which soil type produces the highest runoff?

A
Sandy soil
B
Loamy soil
C
Clayey soil
D
Gravelly soil

Question 147Single Answer

What is the effect of urbanization on runoff?

A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration

Question 148Single Answer

Which parameter is critical for the Rational method of runoff estimation?

A
Time of concentration
B
Base flow
C
Evaporation rate
D
Groundwater storage

Question 149Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the SCS curve number method?

A
Estimate peak discharge
B
Calculate direct runoff
C
Measure base flow
D
Analyze evaporation

Question 150Single Answer

What is the effect of vegetation cover on runoff?

A
Increases runoff
B
Decreases runoff
C
No effect
D
Increases evaporation

Question 151Single Answer

Which factor is used to estimate runoff in the Rational method?

A
Runoff coefficient
B
Curve number
C
Base flow
D
Hydraulic conductivity

Question 152Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in flood control?

A
Design irrigation systems
B
Predict flood magnitude
C
Measure groundwater recharge
D
Calculate evaporation

Question 153Single Answer

Which method is used for runoff estimation in large catchments?

A
Rational method
B
SCS curve number method
C
Unit hydrograph method
D
Muskingum method

Question 154Single Answer

What is the effect of increasing rainfall intensity on runoff?

A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration

Question 155Single Answer

Which soil condition leads to the lowest runoff?

A
Saturated soil
B
Dry sandy soil
C
Compacted clay
D
Urban pavement

Question 156Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the runoff coefficient in the Rational method?

A
Quantify runoff proportion
B
Measure infiltration
C
Calculate base flow
D
Estimate evaporation

Question 157Single Answer

Which factor is critical for the SCS curve number method?

A
Time of concentration
B
Base flow
C
Curve number
D
Hydraulic gradient

Question 158Single Answer

What is the effect of increasing slope on runoff?

A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration

Question 159Single Answer

Which method is used for runoff estimation in ungauged catchments?

A
Rational method
B
Unit hydrograph method
C
SCS curve number method
D
Muskingum method

Question 160Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in reservoir design?

A
Calculate evaporation
B
Determine inflow volume
C
Measure groundwater recharge
D
Analyze soil moisture

Question 161Single Answer

What is a hydrograph defined as?

A
Graph of rainfall intensity over time
B
Graph of streamflow over time
C
Graph of infiltration rate over time
D
Graph of evaporation over time

Question 162Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of a unit hydrograph?

A
Estimate peak discharge from a unit rainfall
B
Calculate groundwater recharge
C
Measure evaporation rates
D
Analyze soil moisture

Question 163Single Answer

Which component of a hydrograph represents the initial flow before rainfall?

A
Peak discharge
B
Base flow
C
Direct runoff
D
Recession limb

Question 164Single Answer

What is the primary use of a hydrograph in flood forecasting?

A
Predict peak flood discharge
B
Calculate infiltration rates
C
Measure evaporation
D
Estimate soil moisture

Question 165Single Answer

Which parameter is critical for deriving a unit hydrograph?

A
Rainfall duration
B
Evaporation rate
C
Groundwater storage
D
Soil permeability

Question 166Single Answer

What is the effect of increasing catchment area on hydrograph peak discharge?

A
Decreases peak discharge
B
Increases peak discharge
C
No effect
D
Reduces base flow

Question 167Single Answer

Which type of hydrograph is used for a single storm event?

A
Unit hydrograph
B
Synthetic hydrograph
C
Storm hydrograph
D
Annual hydrograph

Question 168Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the recession limb in a hydrograph?

A
Indicate peak discharge
B
Show decreasing flow after peak
C
Represent base flow
D
Measure infiltration

Question 169Single Answer

Which method is used to derive a unit hydrograph from observed data?

A
Rational method
B
SCS curve number method
C
Convolution method
D
Muskingum method

Question 170Single Answer

What is the effect of urbanization on a hydrograph?

A
Increases time to peak
B
Decreases time to peak
C
No effect
D
Reduces base flow

Question 171Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?

Question 172Single Answer

What is the primary structural behavior of a frame under vertical loads?

A
Axial deformation
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation

Question 173Single Answer

How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a portal frame with fixed supports?

Question 174Single Answer

What is the effect of a point load at the crown of a three-hinged arch?

A
Increases horizontal thrust
B
Decreases horizontal thrust
C
No horizontal thrust
D
Causes shear failure

Question 175Single Answer

What is the purpose of special positional reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?

A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear failure
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal

Question 176Single Answer

What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?

Question 177Single Answer

What is the collapse mechanism in a fixed beam under uniform load?

A
One plastic hinge
B
Two plastic hinges
C
Three plastic hinges
D
Four plastic hinges

Question 178Single Answer

What is the primary force in the tie of a tied arch?

A
Compression
B
Tension
C
Shear
D
Bending

Question 179Single Answer

What is the purpose of providing stirrups in a reinforced concrete frame?

A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent cracking

Question 180Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?

Question 181Single Answer

What is the bending moment at the support of a fixed portal frame under uniform load?

A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to shear force
D
Indeterminate

Question 182Single Answer

What is the number of plastic hinges required for collapse in a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?

Question 183Single Answer

What is the effect of unsymmetrical loading on a three-hinged arch?

A
No horizontal thrust
B
Increases horizontal thrust
C
Decreases horizontal thrust
D
Causes torsional failure

Question 184Single Answer

What is the role of bent-up bars in a reinforced concrete frame?

A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent buckling

Question 185Single Answer

What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a planar frame with 3 members, 3 joints, and 6 reactions?

Question 186Single Answer

What is the primary load-carrying mechanism in a fixed arch?

A
Bending
B
Compression
C
Shear
D
Torsion

Question 187Single Answer

What is the collapse load of a propped cantilever beam compared to a simply supported beam?

A
Lower
B
Zero
C
Equal
D
Higher

Question 188Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a fixed beam with an internal hinge?

Question 189Single Answer

What is the horizontal thrust in a two-hinged arch under uniform load?

A
Zero
B
Maximum at supports
C
Equal to vertical load
D
Indeterminate

Question 190Single Answer

What is the purpose of shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near supports?

A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear cracks
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance ductility

Question 191Single Answer

What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?

Question 192Single Answer

What is the primary structural behavior of an arch under vertical loads?

A
Axial compression
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation

Question 193Single Answer

How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a two-hinged portal frame?

Question 194Single Answer

What is the effect of temperature drop on a two-hinged arch?

A
Increases vertical deflection
B
Increases horizontal thrust
C
Decreases horizontal thrust
D
No effect

Question 195Single Answer

What is the role of diagonal reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?

A
Resist torsional stresses
B
Resist shear stresses
C
Resist axial stresses
D
Resist bending stresses

Question 196Single Answer

What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a planar frame with 7 members, 7 joints, and 9 reactions?

Question 197Single Answer

What is the bending moment at the crown of a two-hinged parabolic arch under uniform load?

A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to shear force
D
Indeterminate

Question 198Single Answer

What is the number of plastic hinges required for collapse in a fixed portal frame?

Question 199Single Answer

What is the primary force in the members of a two-hinged arch?

A
Shear force
B
Axial force
C
Bending moment
D
Torsional force

Question 200Single Answer

What is the purpose of providing additional shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame?

A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear failure
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal

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