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Latest TPSC AO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English and General Knowledge including Current affairs, Agriculture
Question Bank TPSC Agriculture Officer Exam - English
English and General Knowledge including Current affairs
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 7 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 8 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 9 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 10 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 21 :
What title did the kings of Tripura use in placeof the title 'Fa' ?
A.Tripura
B.Rajarshi
C.Kirat
D.Manikya
Q 22 :
The name of the husband of the queen of Tripura, Hirabati Debi was -
A.King Tripura
B.King Jadu
C.King Pradumna
D.King Ratnafa
Q 23 :
The play which Rabindranath wrote on theconflict among the sons of Amarmanikya is -
A.Bisarjan
B.Dakghar
C.Mukut
D.Raktakarabi
Q 24 :
When did King Krishnamanikya transfer hiskingdom from Rangamati to ancient Agartala ?
A.1741
B.1761
C.1832
D.1650
Q 25 :
In ancient times the highly powerful king of Tripura was -
A.Dharmanikya
B.Gobindamanikya
C.Raghabmanikya
D.Dhanyamanikya
Q 26 :
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B.Purchase of Rafale jets
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
Q 27 :
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A.GSAT-31
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.INSAT-4CR
D.GSAT-32
Q 28 :
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A.A new defence missile system
B.Green hydrogen mission
C.AI Tutoring initiative
D.Digital payment platform
Q 29 :
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A.1 May 2026
B.1 January 2026
C.1 July 2026
D.31 December 2026
Q 30 :
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A.At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B.8
C.25
D.12
Agriculture
Q 31 :
In anemophylous plants, pollen are disseminated by means of_______
A.Insects
B.Water
C.Wind
D.Gravity
Q 32 :
Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as______
A.Parthenocarpy
B.Parthenogenesis
C.Gametogenesis
D.All of the above
Q 33 :
Removal of off type plants from a seed field is termed as_________
A.Weeding
B.Rouging
C.Hoeing
D.Clearing
Q 34 :
Hormones which control apical dominance are______
A.Auxins
B.Cytokinins
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.Gibberellins
Q 35 :
Turmeric is propagated by _____
A.Corms
B.Seed
C.Rhizome
D.Bulbs
Q 36 :
Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time is called as_______
A.Homogamy
B.Chasmogamy
C.Cleistogamy
D.Dichogamy
Q 37 :
The cause of pungency in chillies is______
A.Cucurbitacin
B.Capsaicin
C.Allicin
D.Solanin
Q 38 :
Regular consumption of garlic will reduce the level of_____
in human beings.
A.Cholesterol
B.Sugar
C.Uric acid
D.None of above
Q 39 :
Which of the flower type cannot produce seed and/or
fruit ?
A.Pistillate
B.Perfect
C.Hermaphrodite
D.Staminate
Q 40 :
Truck gardening means vegetable production for________
A.Home consumption
B.Distant markets
C.For local market
D.At commercial level
Q 41 :
The true fruits develop from_______
A.Ovary
B.Thalamus
C.Pericarp
D.All of above
Q 42 :
Fertigation refers to the application of fertilizers with_________
A.Water
B.Rain
C.Both of (a) and (b)
D.None of (a) and (b)
Q 43 :
Early blight and late blight diseases of potato are
A.Fungal
B.Viral
C.Bacterial
D.Physiological
Q 44 :
Auxins have effective role in_____
A.Rooting
B.Cell division
C.Reduction in pre-harvest fruit drop
D.All of above
Q 45 :
______is monocot dioecious fruit tree.
A.Banana
B.Pomegranate
C.Date palm
D.Pineapple
Q 46 :
Both mango and pistachio belong to one family __
A.Anacardiaceae
B.Mangiferae
C.Sapotaceae
D.None of above
Q 47 :
Guava is a rich source of_______
A.Vitamin C
B.Pectin
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.Vitamin A and Vitamin B
Q 48 :
Bearing habit of mango is_______
A.Terminal
B.Lateral
C.Axillary
D.Basal
Q 49 :
Edible part of pomegranate is
A.Seed
B.Vesicles
C.Mesocarp
D.Arils
Q 50 :
Apples and pears are classified as_______
A.Drupe
B.Pome
C.Berry
D.Hesperidium
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TPSC Agriculture Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English
Physiological activity in which plants tissue degenerate
and ultimately die is called as_______
A.Senescence
B.Juvenility
C.Climacteric
D.Degeneration
Q 54 :
Plant response to the relative length of daylight or
darkness is known as_______
A.Long day
B.Short day
C.Geotropism
D.Phototropism
Q 55 :
Spongy tissue in mango is due to_______
A.Fungus
B.Virus
C.Bacteria
D.Physiological disorder
Q 56 :
A plant which is able to live under very dry conditions
is called_____
A.Xerophyte
B.Halophyte
C.Mesophyte
D.None of above
Q 57 :
Which state has highest grape productivity?
A.Karnataka
B.Andhra Pradesh
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Maharashtra
Q 58 :
Litchi is commonly propagated by______
A.Air layering
B.Cuttings
C.Grafting
D.Budding
Q 59 :
Cauliflorous fruiting is observed in__
A.Jackfruit
B.Mango
C.Papaya
D.Guava
Q 60 :
The nutrient element which is immobile in soil and
applied only as basal dose is_____
A.Mg
B.K
C.N
D.P
Q 61 :
Botanically Sapota fruit is______
A.Drupe
B.Berry
C.Nut
D.None of above
Q 62 :
Most commonly used thickness of UV stabilized sheet
for polyhouse_______
A.100 u
B.300
C.500 u
D.200 u
Q 63 :
Precooling means________
A.Removal of field heat
B.Fruit preservation
C.Cold storage
D.Refrigeration
Q 64 :
TSS is measured by______
A.Refractometer
B.Hydrometer
C.Lactometer
D.Peintrometer
Q 65 :
In Lye-peeling which chemical is commonly used ?
A.KOH
B.NaOH
C.K2SO4
D.All above
Q 66 :
Which of the following methods is commonly used for
rejuvenation of orchards?
A.Tongue grafting
B.Top working
C.Side grafting
D.Epicotyl grafting
Q 67 :
Which of the following varieties is a seedless type
mango variety ?
A.Sonpari
B.Dasheri
C.Sindhu
D.Amrapali
Q 68 :
Mallika is a hybrid between________
A.Amrapali - Neelum
B.Langda * Neelum
C.Neelum * Dashehari
D.Dashehari * Neelum
Q 69 :
Banana is propagated by means of______
A.Sucker
B.Runner
C.Stolon
D.Rhizome
Q 70 :
National Research Center (NRC) for Grapes is located
in________
A.Nagpur
B.Pune
C.Bangalore
D.Trichy
Q 71 :
Which of the following phytohormone is used for
regulating flowering in mango ?
A.NAA
B.2,4-D
C.Paclobutrazol
D.GA
Q 72 :
Gladiolus is generally propagated by_______
A.Bulb
B.Tuber
C.Bulbil
D.Corns
Q 73 :
Freesia is a______
A.Climber
B.Flowering tree
C.Cacti
D.Bulbous plant
Q 74 :
Which spice is called King of spices ?
A.Cardamom
B.Vanilla
C.Black pepper
D.None of above
Q 75 :
Which fruit is exported maximum quantity from India
now?
A.Banana
B.Mango
C.Grapes
D.Pomegranate
Q 76 :
What is the contribution of Horticulture to the GDP of
Agriculture in India ?
A.15%
B.28%
C.20%
D.40%
Q 77 :
Browning in cauliflower results from______
A.N deficiency
B.B deficiency
C.Mn toxicity
D.K deficiency
Q 78 :
Little leaf in brinjal is caused by_________
A.Fungus
B.Phytoplasma
C.Bacteria
D.Nematode
Q 79 :
Plants which do not set fruits with their own pollen are
called________
A.Cross pollinated
B.Unfruitful
C.Self incompatible
D.Cross fruitful
Q 80 :
A common pre-emergent herbicide is______
A.Atrazine
B.Paraquat
C.2,4-D
D.Glyphosate
Q 81 :
What is the difference between stock and supply
A.Stock is a flow concept whereas supply is no
B.Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C.Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D.None of the above
Q 82 :
What is the shape of supply curve
A.Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B.Downward sloping
C.Concave
D.Can be any of the
Q 83 :
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A.Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B.Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C.Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D.Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Q 84 :
Contraction and extension of supply means
A.Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B.Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 85 :
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A.Increased supply
B.Decreased supply
C.Constant supply
D.None of the above
Q 86 :
Decrease in supply means
A.Less supply at same price and same supply at higher price
B.Higher supply at same price and same supply at decreased price
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 87 :
Elasticity of supply is given by
A.% A quantity supplied / %A in demand
B.% A quantity demanded / % A in supply
C.% 4 in supply / % 4 in price
D.None of the above
Q 88 :
Pick the incorrect one out in terms of (es= elasticity of supply)
A) Perfectly inelastic - es = 0
B) Perfectly elastic - es = 0
C) Inelastic - es <1
D) Elastic - es = 1
E) Unitary elastic - es = 1
A.Only A
B.Only B
C.Only C
D.None of the above
Q 89 :
Market is in equilibrium when
A.Quantity demanded = quantity supplied
B.Quantity demanded > quantity supplied
C.Quantity demanded < quantity supplied
D.All of the above
Q 90 :
Which one of the following is not correctly matched
A.Surplus when quantity supplied > quantity demanded
B.Deficit when quantity supplied < quantity demanded
C.Elastic supply curve has elasticity > 1
D.None of the above
Q 91 :
Supply curve shift towards right side if
A.Prices are expected to increase in future
B.Prices are expected to decrease in future
C.Prices of relative products decrease
D.All of the above
Q 92 :
Reduction in input prices leads to
A.Increase in supply
B.Decrease in supply
C.Constant supply
D.Can be any of the above
Q 93 :
Shift in supply curve can also be written as
A.Increase or decrease in supply
B.Extension or contraction of supply
C.Increase or decrease in supply due to factors other
D.Both a and c
Q 94 :
Cardinal utility analysis was given by
A.Alfred Marshall
B.Adam Smith
C.Lionel Robbins
D.None of the above
Q 95 :
Cardinal utility analysis comprises of
A.Law of diminishing marginal utility or law of life
B.Law of equi marginal utility
C.Indifference curve approach
D.Both a and b
Q 96 :
Law of life states
A.Marginal utility of a product decreases when the consumer has more and more of it
B.Each successive unit of a commodity brings in lesser and lesser utility
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 97 :
Which among the following are the assumptions of law of life
A.Cardinal measurability of utility meaning utility can be quantified an
Introspective method
B.Utilities are independent and marginal utility of money is constant
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 98 :
Total utility is
A.Sum of marginal utilities
B.Maximum when marginal utility is zero
C.Summation of satisfaction gained from consuming various units
D.All of the above
Q 99 :
Marginal utility and price is
A.Directly related
B.Inversely related
C.Unrelated
D.Both a and b
Q 100 :
Area under marginal utility curve represents
A.Total utility
B.Total disutility
C.Average utility
D.None of the above
Q 101 :
Condition for equilibrium under diminishing marginal utility
A.Total utility maximum and marginal utility is zero
B.Total utility zero and marginal utility maximum
C.Both total and marginal utility is maximum
D.Both total and marginal utility zero
Q 102 :
Law of equi marginal utility is also called as
A.Principle of proportion and law of maximum satisfaction
B.Law of opportunity cost and law of substitution and Gossen's second law
C.Both a and b
D.None of the above
Q 103 :
Which among the following is not correctly matched
A) Limited resource -law of equi marginal utility
B) Unlimited or given resource -law of diminishing marginal utility
C) Utility - measured in terms of degrees
D) Utility -measured in terms of utils
A.Both A and C
B.Both B and D
C.Only C
D.Only D
Q 104 :
Equilibrium under many commodities and same price for law of equi marginal utility is given by
A.Marginal utility of last unit consumed is nearly equal to first
B.Marginal utility of last unit consumed is exactly equal to first
C.Marginal utility of last unit consumed is greater than first
D.None of the above
Q 105 :
Equilibrium under two or more than two commodities under law of substitution is given by
A.MUx/Px= MUY/PY
B.MUX/Py= MUY/Px
C.MUX/Px= MUY.Py
D.MUX.Px= MUY/Py
Q 106 :
According to UPOV Act 1978, the period of protection for field crops is:
A.10 Years
B.12 Years
C.15 Years
D.18 Years
Q 107 :
Plant variety Protection Act was initially signed into law in the country
A.Russia
B.USA
C.Japan
D.Canada
Q 108 :
The genetic purity of seed is examined by:
A.Viability test
B.Seed health test
C.Grow out test
D.Moisture test
Q 109 :
Cuscuta is an objectionable weed in:
A.Lettuce
B.Cucurbits
C.Lucerne
D.Mustard
Q 110 :
In sunflower, production of foundation seed requires an isolation distance of:
A.200 metres
B.100 metres
C.400 metres
D.800 metres
Q 111 :
Froduction of breeder seed in cotton requires an isolation distance of:
A.20 metres
B.30 metres
C.50 metres
D.75 metres
Q 112 :
Certification is not required for:
A.Breeder seed
B.Foundation seed
C.Certified seed
D.All of these
Q 113 :
Which of the following are water soluble proteins ?
A.Albumins
B.Globulins
C.Prolamins
D.Glutenins
Q 114 :
PPB is known as:
A.Collaborative Plant Breeding (CPB)
B.Farmers Participatory Breeding (FPB)
C.Participatory Crop Improvement
D.All of these
Q 115 :
Which of the following species of Brassicn is tetraploid?
A.B. nigra
B.B. oleracea
C.B. juncea
D.​B. campestris
Q 116 :
Quasidiploid is represented as:
A.2n-1-1
B.2n+1+1
C.2n 1
D.2n+2+2
Q 117 :
Monoploids are represented by:
A.X
B.2x
C.n
D.​2n A
Q 118 :
A mutation which kills more than 50% of the individuals which carry the mutation is called
A.Lethal
B.Sub- Lethal
C.Sub- vital
D.Vital
Q 119 :
Which of the following mutagens is neutral ?
A.Alpha particles
B.Beta particles
C.Fast & thermal neutrons
D.All of these
Q 120 :
The term mutation was coined by:
A.Morgan
B.De Vries
C.Muller
D.Stadler
Q 121 :
An inbred-variety cross is known as:
A.Three way cross
B.Double cross
C.T​op cross
D.Polycross
Q 122 :
Which of the following types of epistasis contributes to heterosis?
A.Additive x additive
B.Additive x dominance
C.Dominance x dominance
D.All of these
Q 123 :
Recurrent selection for GCA is used when a character is governed by:
A.Additive genes
B.Non additive genes
C.(A) and (B) both
D.​Cytoplasmic genes
Q 124 :
Undesirable linkage can be broken by:
A.Pedigree method
B.Bulk method
C.Backcross method
D.​All of these
Q 125 :
Backcross method is useful for transfer of:
A.Oligogenic characters
B.​Disease resistance
C.Male sterility
D.All of these
Q 126 :
Clonal selection is practiced in
A.Sugarcane
B.Potato
C.Sweet potato
D.​All of these
Q 127 :
Gardner suggested the grid method of mass selection in
A.1942
B.1952
C.1962
D.1972
Q 128 :
Mass selected varieties have
A.Broad genetic base
B.Wide adaptation
C.Heritable variation
D.​All of these
Q 129 :
Pure lines are
A.Homozygous
B.Homogeneous
C.Highly uniform
D.​All of these
Q 130 :
The concept of pure line theory was developed with
A.Maize
B.Common bean
C.Garden pea
D.Wheat
Q 131 :
Fat contain
A.3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B.9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C.9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D.7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Q 132 :
The proteins found only in animal body are
A.Glutelins
B.Albumins
C.Scleroproteins
D.All of the above
Q 133 :
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A.Lysine
B.Alanine & valine
C.Arginine
D.Cysteine & methionine
Q 134 :
Zwitter ion contain
A.+ve charge
B.-ve charge
C.Little or no net charge
D.More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Q 135 :
The water soluble vitamins are
A.Vitamin A and D
B.Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C.Vitamin E and K
D.All of the above
Q 136 :
Gallic acid is chief components of
A.Condensed tannins
B.Hydrolysable tannins
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.None of the above
Q 137 :
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A.Mevaloni acid pathway
B.Malonic acid pathway
C.Shikmic acid pathway
D.Both (a) & (b)
Q 138 :
The correct general formula of the carbohydrate is
A.Cn (H2O)n
B.C2n (H2,O)n
C.Cn (H2,O)2n
D.None of the above
Q 139 :
Raffinose and gentianose are the example of
A.Disaccharides
B.Trisaccharides
C.Polysaccharides
D.Monosaccharides
Q 140 :
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to right side, it is called as.........................and is denote by...............
A.Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B.Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter l or - sigh
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 141 :
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to left side, it is called as................................and is denote by..................
A.Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B.Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter 1 or - sigh
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 142 :
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on right-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A.L-sugar
B.D-sugar
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 143 :
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on left-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A.L-sugar
B.D-sugar
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 144 :
Starch, insulin and glycogen are the
A.Oligosaccharide
B.Storage polysaccharide
C.Structural polysaccharide
D.None of the above
Q 145 :
Which one of the following is not a reducing sugar
A.Glucose
B.Ribose
C.Maltose
D.Sucrose
Q 146 :
Term protein was first coined by
A.Berzelius in 1838
B.Bloor in 1943
C.W. Kuhne in 1929
D.None of the above
Q 147 :
The size of protein is depends upon the
A.Nature of solubility
B.No. of amino acids taking part in the synthesis
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 148 :
Which of the following is the smallest protein
A.Insulin
B.Globulin
C.Prolamins
D.None of the above
Q 149 :
Plant proteins differ from animal proteins in shortage of
A.Nitrogen
B.Oxygen
C.Carbon
D.Sulphur
Q 150 :
Ricin in castor & Leucosin in cereals are the water soluble ........ protein
A.Globulins
B.Albumins
C.Glutelins
D.Prolamins
Q 151 :
Which of the following proteins are soluble in 80% alcohol (ethanol) and not soluble in water or salt solutions
A.Prolamins
B.Gliadin in wheat & Zein in maize
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 152 :
Which of the following proteins are not soluble in water but soluble in salt solution
A.Tuberin & legumin
B.Globulins
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 153 :
The protein leucosin is found in
A.Most of the cereals
B.Mustard
C.Spices
D.None of the above
Q 154 :
Term lipid was coined by
A.Berzelius in 1838
B.Kuhne in 1929
C.German biochemist Bloor (1943)
D.None of the above
Q 155 :
Lipoprotein is the important gradient of
A.Cell membrane
B.Mitochondria
C.Golgi bodies
D.None of the above
Q 156 :
Fatty acids are
A.Saturated
B.Unsaturated
C.Either saturated or unsaturated
D.None of the above
Q 157 :
Majority of the fatty acids are synthesized by...........except linoleic acid, linolenic acid & arachidonic acid
A.Plant cell
B.Human body cell
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 158 :
Lauric acid found in laurel kennel oil having the.......... number of carbon atom in the their chemical formula
A.12
B.16
C.18
D.20
Q 159 :
Number of carbon atoms in Palmitic acid are
A.12
B.16
C.18
D.20
Q 160 :
Number of carbon atoms in stearic acid are
A.12
B.16
C.18
D.20
Q 161 :
Number of carbon atom in arachidic acid are
A.12
B.16
C.18
D.20
Q 162 :
Which of the following is the source of arachidic acid
A.Peanut oil
B.Cocoa & butter
C.Animal fat & palm oil
D.Laurel kenel oil
Q 163 :
Which of the following is the source of stearic acid
A.Peanut oil
B.Cocoa & butter
C.Animal fat & palm oil
D.Laurel kenel oil
Q 164 :
Which of the following is the source of palmitic acid
A.Peanut oil
B.Cocoa & butter
C.Animal fat & palm oil
D.Laurel kennel oil
Q 165 :
Which of the following is the source of lauric acid
A.Peanut oil
B.Cocoa & butter
C.Animal fat & palm oil
D.Laurel kennel oil
Q 166 :
Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is also known as
A.Warburg-Dickens pathway
B.Direct oxidation pathway
C.Hexose monophosphate shunt
D.All of the above
Q 167 :
Glycolysis is a
A.Greek word
B.Latin word
C.German world
D.None of the above
Q 168 :
Pyruvate is a
A.Triose sugar
B.Tetrose sugar
C.Pentose sugar
D.None of the above
Q 169 :
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as
A.Robinson's ester
B.Newberg's ester
C.Harden & Young's ester
D.None of the above
Q 170 :
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose-6-phosphate is also known as
A.Robinson's ester
B.Newberg's ester
C.Harden & Young's ester
D.None of the above
Q 171 :
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose 1, 6-bi-phosphate is also known as
A.Robinson's ester
B.Newberg's ester
C.Harden & Young's ester
D.None of the above
Q 172 :
Which one is not a reducing sugar
A.Glucose
B.Fructose
C.Maltose
D.Sucrose
Q 173 :
Which one is not an oligosaccharide
A.Insulin
B.Raffinose
C.Lactose
D.Sucrose
Q 174 :
Which one is a polysaccharide
A.Raffinose
B.Lactose
C.Sucrose
D.Insulin
Q 175 :
The aldose sugar (glucose) is optically active and
A.Dextrorotatory
B.Laevorotatory
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 176 :
The ketose sugar (Fructose) is optically active and
A.Dextrorotatory
B.Laevorotatory
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of the above
Q 177 :
Which one of the following is mucopolysaccharide
A.Chitin
B.Pectin
C.Lecithin
D.Cellulose
Q 178 :
The enzyme cellulose synthase are found in which part of the cell
A.Nucleoplasm
B.Cytoplasm
C.Golgi body
D.Plasma membrane
Q 179 :
In plants callose are found in
A.Sieve tubes of phloem
B.Parenchyma
C.Cambium ring
D.Xylem
Q 180 :
Water (H2O) is oxide of hydrogen in which the two hydrogen atoms are jointed to oxygen atom by covalent bond forming an angle of
