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Question for TRB Tamilnadu Assistant Professor Exam - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 60 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150

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To boost your performance in TRB Tamilnadu Assistant Professor Exam exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in TRB Tamilnadu Assistant Professor Exam exams.

Latest TRB Tamilnadu Assistant Professor Exam Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, Electrical Engineer, Civil Engineer, Mechanical, Computer Science, Electronics, General English, Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics

Question Bank TRB Tamilnadu Assistant Professor Exam - English

General Knowledge

Q 1 :
Who built Kallanai acrossthe river Kaveri?
  1. A.Raja Raja Chola 
  2. B.Karikala Chola
  3. C.Rajendra Chola 
  4. D.Senguttuvan
Q 2 :
Mahabalipulram wasestablished by the
  1. A.Pandyas
  2. B.Pallavas
  3. C.Cholas
  4. D.Chzilukyas
Q 3 :
In Tamil Nadu Petroleum Refinery is located at
  1. A.Neyveli 
  2. B.Velage
  3. C.Manali 
  4. D.Avadi
Q 4 :
Than javur district, the place Where a rice research station is In
  1. A.Kumbakonam
  2. B.Aduthurai
  3. C.Thanjavur
  4. D.Papanasam
Q 5 :
The Gateway of Tamilnaduis
  1. A.Chennai 
  2. B.Tuticorin
  3. C.Kainiyakumari
  4. D.Trichy
Q 6 :
The death rate inTamilnadu during 2002 was
  1. A.44/1000 
  2. B.46/1000
  3. C.47/1000  
  4. D.51/1000
Q 7 :
According to the censusestimafte of 2001 the rate of literacy in Tamilnadu is
  1. A.72.5%
  2. B.71.5%
  3. C.73.5% 
  4. D.70.5%
Q 8 :
Tamilnadu gets maximumrain fall during
  1. A.North-East monsoonseason
  2. B.South-West monsoonseason
  3. C.Summer season
  4. D.Winter season
Q 9 :
Subramaniya I Bharathiedited the Tamil Newspaper?
  1. A.New India
  2. B.Young India
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.India
Q 10 :
The smallest district in areain Tamil nadu is
  1. A.Chennai
  2. B.Kanyakumari
  3. C.Tiruchirapally
  4. D.Madurai

Electrical Engineer

Q 11 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

                 
  1. A.0.8 Ω
  2. B.1.4 Ω
  3. C.2 Ω
  4. D.2.8 Ω
Q 12 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
  1. A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
  2. B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
  3. C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
  4. D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 13 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
  1. A.9.2 × 105/m3
  2. B.2.77 × 103/m3
  3. C.2.43 × 1019/m3
  4. D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 14 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
  1. A.By the mobility of the carriers
  2. B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
  3. C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
  4. D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 15 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
  1. A.Parallel polarized
  2. B.Perpendicularly polarized
  3. C.Normally polarized
  4. D.None of the above
Q 16 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
  1. A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
  2. B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
  3. C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
  4. D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 17 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
  1. A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
  2. B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
  3. C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
  4. D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 18 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
  1. A.High stiffness and strengths
  2. B.Low densities
  3. C.Unusual electrical property
  4. D.Non-ductile
Q 19 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
  1. A.Meissner effect
  2. B.Josephson effect
  3. C.Isotope effect
  4. D.x quantization experiments
Q 20 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
  1. A.Phenol formaldehyde
  2. B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
  3. C.Polyvinyl chloride
  4. D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 21 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
  1. A.Ferrite
  2. B.Piezoelectric
  3. C.Pyroelectric
  4. D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 22 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
  1. A.Peak temperature
  2. B.Neel temperatur
  3. C.Critical temperature
  4. D.Weiss temperature
Q 23 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
  1. A.Seeback effect
  2. B.Thomson effect
  3. C.Hall effect
  4. D.Joule effect
Q 24 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
  1. A.Soft magnetic materials
  2. B.Hard magnetic materials
  3. C.High eddy current loss materials
  4. D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 25 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.Neither 1 nor 2
  3. C.1 only
  4. D.2 only
Q 26 :
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
  1. A.Radiative recombination
  2. B.Auger recombination
  3. C.Surface recombination
  4. D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Q 27 :
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
  1. A.GeO2
  2. B.B2O3
  3. C.P2O5x
  4. D.Al2O3
Q 28 :
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
  1. A.Become twice
  2. B.Become half
  3. C.ecome four times
  4. D.Remain unchanged
Q 29 :
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux. 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 30 :
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of  luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
  1. A.MCHTX
  2. B.MXHTC
  3. C.XMHCT
  4. D.XMHTC
Q 31 :
Consider  the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.3, 4 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 32 :
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
  1. A.Transistor
  2. B.Varistor
  3. C.Thyristor
  4. D.Thermistor
Q 33 :
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
  1. A.The carrier concentration increases
  2. B.The mobility of carrier increases
  3. C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
  4. D.The band gap decreases
Q 34 :
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
  1. A.2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 2 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 35 :
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
  1. A.An ellipse
  2. B.A parabola
  3. C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
  4. D.A circle

Civil Engineer

Q 36 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
  1. A.30 l 
  2. B.35 l
  3. C.40 l
  4. D.45 l
Q 37 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
  1. A.1 : 1 : 1
  2. B.1 : 2 : 3
  3. C.1 : 2 : 4
  4. D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 38 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 5
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 4 and 5
Q 39 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
  1. A.10
  2. B.20
  3. C.25
  4. D.30
Q 40 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
  1. A.11.8
  2. B.12.4
  3. C.14.2 
  4. D.14.8
Q 41 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water 
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
Q 42 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
Q 43 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
  1. A.1, 2 and  3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and  4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and  4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 44 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
Q 45 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
  1. A.165 l
  2. B.205 l
  3. C.245 l
  4. D.285 l 
Q 46 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
  1. A.IS : 4970-1973
  2. B.IS : 1708-1969
  3. C.IS : 1141-1958
  4. D.IS : 399-1963 
Q 47 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 48 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
  1. A.Parallel to each other
  2. B.At right angle to one another
  3. C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
  4. D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 49 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
  1. A.It must be free from lumps of lime
  2. B.It should not be mixed with salty water
  3. C.It must be non-homogeneous
  4. D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter 
Q 50 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
  1. A.440 kg/cm2
  2. B.175 kg/cm2
  3. C.100kg/cm2
  4. D.75kg/cm2 

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