Question for Tripura PSC 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest TPSC Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies, General Science, Science, Technology, Environment, Agriculture, and Forestry, English, GK, Reasoning, Aptitude

Question Bank Tripura PSC Prelims Exam - English

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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 7Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 8Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 9Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 12Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 13Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 14Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 15Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 16Single Answer

Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather

A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages

Question 17Single Answer

Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India

A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee

Question 18Single Answer

In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles

A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000

Question 19Single Answer

Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct

A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

When was first human development report of India issued

A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002

Question 21Single Answer

How many censuses have been carried out since independence

Question 22Single Answer

For which year the latest census is being conducted in India

A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011

Question 23Single Answer

Which of the following are the features of 12^th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period

A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3

Question 24Single Answer

The period of 12^th Five Year Plan

A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17

Question 25Single Answer

A closed economy is an economy in which

A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place

Question 26Single Answer

Consider the following statements
            1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
            2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
            3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
            4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
            Which of the above are correct

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1,2,3 and 4

Question 27Single Answer

In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
            Term                                                                 Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down                                                     Fall in stock prices
2. Recession                                                     Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down                                                    Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched

A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1,2 and 3

Question 28Single Answer

Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the

A
IMF
B
RBI
C
Local bodies
D
Big Businessmen

Question 29Single Answer

In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in

A
4^th plan
B
6^th plan
C
8^th plan
D
10^th plan

Question 30Single Answer

Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year

A
only 1
B
only 2
C
only 3
D
1,2 and 3

Question 31Single Answer

Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission

A
Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B
it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C
Members do not require any minimum education
D
all of these

Question 32Single Answer

__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council

A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 33Single Answer

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India

A
services Industry- Agriculture
B
Services- Agriculture-Industry
C
Industry-Services-Agriculture
D
Industry-Agriculture-Services

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India

A
Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B
formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
C
public cooperation in national development
D
preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan

Question 35Single Answer

Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison

A
Rajendra Prasad
B
Jawahar Lal Nehru
C
Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D
J.B.Kriplani

Question 36Single Answer

Which of the statements given below is/are correct
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10^th Five Year Plan
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 37Single Answer

The 11^th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following
            1. Greater attention to land reforms
            2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
            3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
            4. interest free credit to the farmers
            Select the correct answer

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1,2 and 3
D
2 and 4

Question 38Single Answer

What is the period of 11^th Five Year Plan

A
2006-11
B
2007-12
C
2008-13
D
2009-14

Question 39Single Answer

In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set

A
6^th Five Year Plan
B
7^th Five Year Plan
C
8^th Five Year Plan
D
9^th Five Year Plan

Question 40Single Answer

Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned development' for the 3^rd Five Year Plan

A
Morarji Desai
B
C.D.Deshmukh
C
Jawahar Lal Nehru
D
Lal Bahadur Shashtri

Question 41Single Answer

During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest

A
1^st five year plan
B
2^nd five year plan
C
3^rd five year plan
D
4^th five year plan

Question 42Single Answer

What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year plan in India
1. balanced growth 2. Rehabilitation of the economy
3. industrial development

A
1,3,2
B
2,1,3
C
2,3,1
D
3,2,1

Question 43Single Answer

The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the period of

A
1^st five year plan
B
2^nd five year plan
C
3^rd five year plan
D
4^th five year plan

Question 44Single Answer

The second five year plan laid more stress upon

A
agriculture
B
industrialization
C
removing poverty
D
self reliance

Question 45Single Answer

In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of the society

A
2^nd
B
3^rd
C
4^th
D
5^th

Question 46Single Answer

Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts

A
the 3^rd five year plan
B
the 5^th five year plan
C
the 6^th five year plan
D
the 8^th five year plan

Question 47Single Answer

The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in the

A
first plan
B
second plan
C
third plan
D
fourth plan

Question 48Single Answer

The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that

A
major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
B
revision of the achievements of previous year
C
annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing targets
D
no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged

Question 49Single Answer

A rolling plan was a plan for

A
one year
B
three year
C
five year
D
year to year basis

Question 50Single Answer

The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of

A
Lal Bahadur Shastri
B
Indira Gandhi
C
Morarji Desai
D
Rajiv Gandhi

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General Studies

Question 51Single Answer

Rolling plan was designed for the period

A
1978-83
B
1980-85
C
1985-90
D
1974-97

Question 52Single Answer

Consider the following
1. Launching of 4^th year plan was postponed and three annual plans had to be resorted to between 1966-1969
            2. 5^th year plan was terminated a year earlier
            3. 8^th five year plan commenced in 1996 instead of 1990
            Which of these statements are correct

A
2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2 and 3

Question 53Single Answer

What is the correct duration of revised by

A
1975-80
B
1977-82
C
1979-84
D
1980-85

Question 54Single Answer

Success of 4^th plan was obstructed by

A
Poor monsoon
B
war with Pakistan
C
problem of Bagaldesh refugees
D
All of the above

Question 55Single Answer

Match the following
List-I List-II

Year of the Great Divide 1. 1950
Industrial Policy Resolution 2. 1921
Setting up of planning commission 3. 1969
Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks 4. 1956

A
2 4 1 3
B
4 3 1 2
C
2 1 3 4
D
1 3 4 2

Question 56Single Answer

In India, the concepts of minimum heeds and directed anti poverty programmes were the innovation of

A
4^th Five Yar Plan
B
5^th Five Yar Plan
C
6^th Five Yar Plan
D
7^th Five Yar Plan

Question 57Single Answer

Put in chronological order the following special features of differenct Five Year Plan as they were first formulated
1. Mahalanobis Strategy 2.Modernisation
3. Removal of Poverty 4. Emphasis on employment generation

A
1,2,3,4
B
2,1,3,4
C
1,3,2,4
D
3,4,1,2

Question 58Single Answer

In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded

A
first
B
Fifth
C
Sixth
D
None of these

Question 59Single Answer

India had a plan holiday

A
after the China India war of 1962
B
after the drought of 1966
C
after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
D
after the India Pakistan war in 1965

Question 60Single Answer

Community Development Programme was launched during

A
First Five Year Plan
B
Second Five Year Paln
C
Fourth Five Year Plan
D
Fifth Five Year Plan

Question 61Single Answer

The main objective of First Five Year Paln was

A
industrial growth
B
economic growth
C
development of agriculture including irrigation and power project
D
self reliance

Question 62Single Answer

Mathc the following
            A. First Plan 1. Rapid industrialization
            B. Second Paln 2. Community development programme
            C. Third Plan 3. Expansion of basic industries
            D. Fourth Plan 4. Minimum needs programme
            E. Fifth Paln 5. Achievement of self reliance and growth with stability

A
1 2 3 4 5
B
2 1 3 5 4
C
2 1 3 4 5
D
2 1 4 5 3

Question 63Single Answer

The decentralization system was recommended by

A
C.Rajagopalachari
B
J.B.Kriplani
C
Balwant Rai Mehta
D
Ashok Mehta

Question 64Single Answer

The first attempt to initiate economic planning in India was made by

A
Dadabhai Naoroji
B
Balwantrai Mehta
C
Ramesh Chandra Dutt
D
M.Visvesvaraya

Question 65Single Answer

In Financial Language, Fixed to Floating and Floating to Floating are used in context with which among the following ?

A
Interest rates
B
Swaps
C
Foreign Exchange Rates
D
None of them

Question 66Single Answer

Which of the following gives an accurate measurement of economic development through Five Year Plan

A
development of edcucatin and health services
B
Development of railways and roadways
C
Rise in national income and per capita income
D
Deveopment of industrial towns and insudtrial estates

Question 67Single Answer

Self Reliance in the economic context implies that a country
            1. meets its demands for all goods and services from its domestic production
            2. exports some of its goods but does not need to import anything
            3. has sufficient foreign exchange reserves to but all its needs
            4. meets its demand for certain vital goods and services from its domestic production

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1,2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 68Single Answer

An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized by
1. low per capita income 2. Low rate of capital formation
3. low population growth 4. Working force largely in the tertiary sector

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 69Single Answer

The basic objectives of Indian Planning are
1. economic growth 2. Self reliance
3. employment generation 4. Population growth

A
1,2 and 4
B
1,2 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1,2,3 and 4

Question 70Single Answer

Consider the following statements
1. the highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secreatary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secreatary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A
1 and 2
B
2 only
C
2 and 3
D
3 only

Question 71Single Answer

Indiacative Planning being pursued in India since the 8^th plan aims at ensuring that
            1. Planning mechanism plays a facilitatory role
            2. Planning mechanism brings about a balance between need and supply
            3. Planning mechanism concerns itself with optimal utilization of resources
            4. Planning concerns itself with laying down broad directions in which of trhe economy should move
            Choose the correct answer from

A
1,2 and 4
B
1 and 2
C
2,3 and 4
D
1,2,3 and 4

Question 72Single Answer

Microeconomics is concerned with
            1. behavior of industrial decision makers
            2. determination of prices of goods and services
            3. changes in the general level of prices
            4. the level of employment

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4

Question 73Single Answer

Put in chronological order
1. constitution of National Planning Committee by the Indian National Congress under Jawahar Lal Nehru
            2. Planned Economy for India by Visvesvaraya published
            3. Bombay Plan
            4. Setting up of the National Development Council

A
1,2,3,4
B
3,2,4,1
C
2,3,1,4
D
2,1,3,4

Question 74Single Answer

The Planning Commission of India
1. was set up in 1950 2. Is a constitutional body
3. is an advisory body 4. Is agovernment department

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
3 only

Question 75Single Answer

Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India

A
Jawahar Lal Nehru
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
C.Rajgopalachari
D
V.T.Krishnamachari

Question 76Single Answer

The deputy chairman of the planning commission

A
is the prime minister
B
is the planning minister
C
holds the rank of a cabinet minister
D
is an economist of repute

Question 77Single Answer

Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission

A
Prime Minister
B
Finance Minister
C
Commerce Minister
D
None of them

Question 78Single Answer

Which of the following are not correct assessments of the decades of India’s Five Year Plans
            1. there has been veery low capital formation
            2. growth has favoured the better off
            3. production has increased substantitally though often falling short of targets
            4. the Public sector has contributed nothing to economic growth

A
1 and 4
B
2 and 3
C
1,2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 79Single Answer

Consider the following
            1. Economic Growth 2. Reduction of economic inequalities
            3. balanced regional development 4. Modernization
            5. reduction of unemployment
            Which of the above are the objectives of economic planning in India

A
1,2 and 3
B
1,3,4 and 5
C
1,2, 4 and 5
D
1,2,3,4,5

Question 80Single Answer

Which of the following may be termed as long term objectives of Indian Planning
1. self reliance 2. Productive employment generation
3. growth of 8% per annum 4. Growth in infrastructure

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
1,2 and 4
D
2,3 and 4

Science, Technology, Environment, Agriculture, and Forestry

Question 81Single Answer

Which of the following is/are tools and techniques of assessment in EVS at primary level?
   1. Project work
   2. Field trip
   3. Journal writing
   4. Concept mapping

A
Only 2 and 3
B
Only 4
C
1, 2, 3 and 4
D
Only 1 and 2

Question 82Single Answer

Study the following statements about the jhoom farming practised in Mizoram :
   1. After cutting one crop, the land is left as it is for some years.
   2. The bamboo or weeds which grow on that land are cut and burnt.
   3. The land is deeply ploughed before sowing the seeds.
4. In one farms three or four different types of crops are grown.
   5. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are also used as per need.
   The correct statements are

A
3, 4 and 5
B
1, 2 and 4
C
Only 1 and 2
D
Only 2 and 4

Question 83Single Answer

Teaching of EVS should encourage process skills, which are the core of inquiry-based, hands-on learning. Which one of the following is not such a skill?

A
Predicting
B
Determination
C
Inferring
D
Observation

Question 84Single Answer

Radha uses travel tickets of different types. Which of the following concepts could be effectively discussed by using such tickets?
   1. The cost of travel by different means is different.
   2. The cost of travel depends upon the fuel used by the vehicle..
   3. We need tickets to travel by public transport from one place to another.
   4. Understanding the reservation process.
   Choose the most appropriate option :

A
3 and 4
B
1 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 4

Question 85Single Answer

Which one of the following strategies seems most appropriate for teaching maps to primary graders?

A
Drawing of the map by the teacher on the blackboard and asking learners to locate different places
B
Instructing learners to bring the map of India from their home
C
Showing an atlas to learners and asking them to locate different places
D
Facilitating learners to construct maps of their immediate surroundings by using their own symbols and focusing on relative position and direction of things

Question 86Single Answer

Mahika, a teacher of class V, wants her students to observe the plants in the surroundings. For meaningful learning, what should she encourage the children to do?

A
Understanding that plants are living beings
B
Appreciating that plants are useful for us
C
Writing the names of maximum number of plants
D
Observing the difference in their heights, leaves, smell and place of growing

Question 87Single Answer

Which one of the following should be a most important aspect of EVS teaching at primary level?

A
Conducting activities and developing skills
B
Achieving success in assessment
C
Understanding the basic concepts of science
D
Connecting learners to the natural and sociocultural environment

Question 88Single Answer

‘Mapping’ at primary level promotes which of the following skills in learners?

A
Neat drawing
B
Calculations and Estimations
C
Drawing according to scale
D
Idea about relative positions and orientations

Question 89Single Answer

All of the following are indicative of the general approach to be followed for EVS in primary classes except from
   1. concrete to abstract
   2. simple to complex
   3. local to global
   4. abstract to concrete

A
Only 2
B
Only 4
C
Only 1 and 2
D
Only 2 and 3

Question 90Single Answer

NCF 2005 has not recommended any prescribed curriculum and text-books for EVS for classes I and II. The most appropriate reason for this;

A
To reduce the load of curriculum
B
EVS is only for class III onwards
C
Learners in class I and II cannot read and write
D
To provide contextual learning environment

Question 91Single Answer

A teacher has to teach about cultural diversity in food in our country to class IV students. Which of the following is the best way to teach this topic?

A
Show flash cards having pictures of various food items.
B
Give a project to students about different kinds of food taken by the people of various states in our country.
C
Ask students what they have eaten followed by a discussion.
D
Ask students to collect information about the kind of food taken in their family.

Question 92Single Answer

If we observe birds, we find that most of the birds often move their neck. It is because

A
in most of the birds, the eyes are fixed and cannot move.
B
their ears are covered and they can fly.
C
the birds have two eyes.
D
their eyes can focus on two different objects at a time.

General Science

Question 93Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 94Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 95Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 96Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 97Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 98Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 99Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 100Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 101Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 103Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 104Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 105Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

English

Question 106Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 107Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 108Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 109Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 110Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 111Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 112Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 113Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 114Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 115Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 116Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 117Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 118Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 119Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 120Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 121Single Answer

Preeti ran the race in record time.

A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time

Question 122Single Answer

I shall have written the full thesis by December

A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.

Question 123Single Answer

One must keep one’s promises.

A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.

Question 124Single Answer

I read the story in one night.

A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night

Question 125Single Answer

We must take care of the old.

A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.

Question 126Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 127Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 128Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 129Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 130Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 131Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 132Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 133Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 134Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 135Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

GK

Question 136Single Answer

Tripura attained full statehood on :

A
1970
B
1972
C
1975
D
1978

Question 137Single Answer

Rajmala which is a chronicle of the Kings of Tripura, was written under which King :

A
DurgaManikya
B
RamganaManikya
C
Dharma Manikya
D
Birendra Kishore

Question 138Single Answer

Which one is recognized as the state tree of Tripura ?

A
Banyan Tree
B
Agar Tree
C
Sal Tree
D
Coconut Tree

Question 139Single Answer

Who was the first Chief Minister of Tripura ?

A
Sachindra Lal Singh
B
Prafulla Kumar Das
C
Sukhamoy Sen Gupta
D
Samir Ranjan Barman

Question 140Single Answer

Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in Tripura ?

A
Sachindra Lal Singh
B
Dasarath Deb
C
Nripen Chakraborty
D
Manik Sarkar

Question 141Single Answer

Which one is the largest district by area wise in Tripura ?

A
South Tripura
B
Gomati
C
Dhalai
D
West Tripura

Question 142Single Answer

The Bhuvaneswari Temple situated on the bank of :

A
Khowai
B
Gomati
C
Manu
D
Muhuri

Question 143Single Answer

Total number of Wildlife Sanctuaries in Tripura ?

Question 144Single Answer

Garia Puja is performed in the month of :

A
Pous
B
Chaitra
C
Baisakh
D
None of the Above

Question 145Single Answer

Which one is the largest river of Tripura ?

A
Gomati
B
Juri
C
Manu
D
Muhuri

Question 146Single Answer

ONGC started drilling in Tripura from the year ?

A
1962
B
1965
C
1970
D
1972

Question 147Single Answer

Total number of elected members of Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC)

A
28
B
30
C
32
D
33

Question 148Single Answer

Which King built the Neermahal ?

A
Bir Chandra
B
Kashi Chandra
C
Radha Kishore
D
Bir Bikram Kishore

Question 149Single Answer

The first campaign for mass literacy in Tripura was initiated by ?

A
Maharaja Bir Bikram
B
Dasarath Deb
C
Nripen Chakraborty
D
None of the above

Question 150Single Answer

Who built Tripureswaritemple ?

A
Maharaja DhanyaManikya
B
Maharaja RatnaManikya
C
Maharaja GovindManikya
D
Maharaja Bir Bikram

Question 151Single Answer

‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP) is supported by which global institution ?

A
International Monetary Fund
B
World Bank
C
UNICEF
D
World Economic Forum

Question 152Single Answer

Which section of Railways has completed 100 per cent electrification across the Zone ?

A
Konkan Railway
B
North East Frontier Railway
C
East Coast Railway
D
South Central Railway

Question 153Single Answer

Kaziranga National Park is located along which Indian River ?

A
Ganga
B
Yamuna
C
Brahmaputra
D
Sutlej

Question 154Single Answer

Which bank acquired the Indian consumer banking business of City Bank ?

A
HDFC Bank
B
Axis Bank
C
ICICI Bank
D
Yes Bank

Question 155Single Answer

The Lok Sabha passed a bill to merge three municipal corporations of which city into a single entity ?

A
Mumbai
B
Delhi
C
Kolkata
D
Chennai

Question 156Single Answer

Who has been appointed as the new head coach of Afghanistan Cricket Board in March 2022 ?

A
Graham Thorpe
B
Ashley Giles
C
Michael Atherton
D
Andrew Caddick

Question 157Single Answer

Who has been appointed as the Non-Executive Non-independent Director of CASHe in March 2022 ?

A
Subhash Kumar
B
Alka Mittal
C
Naresh Karia
D
Shashi Shanker

Question 158Single Answer

The Centre has approved the procurement of how many indigenous light combat helicopters from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the Indian Air Force in March 2022 ?

A
7
B
10
C
12
D
15

Question 159Single Answer

Which of the following won the Khelo India Women’s Hockey League (U-21) on 30 March 2022 ?

A
Raja Karan Hockey Academy
B
Madhya Pradesh Hockey Academy
C
Pritam Siwach Hockey Academy
D
Har Hockey Academy

Question 160Single Answer

In the second edition of Most Trusted Brands of India, which of the following was recognized as one of the Most Trusted Brands of India 2022 in March 2022 ?

A
3rd Eye Techno Solutions
B
Cyforce
C
Pelorus
D
Pyramis Cyber

Question 161Single Answer

Who has launched ‘FASTER’ software to transmit court swiftly in March 2022 ?

A
Sharad Arvind Bobde
B
Ranjan Gogoi
C
N.V. Ramana
D
K.K. Venugopal

Question 162Single Answer

In March 2022, the National Quality & Services Leadership Awards were presented to how many winners at the National Levels ?

A
10
B
15
C
20
D
25

Question 163Single Answer

Which week is celebrated by the Government of India from 1st April to 7th of April 2022 ?

A
National Literacy Week
B
POSHAN Maah
C
Prevention of Blindness Week
D
National Health Week

Question 164Single Answer

In March 2022, Union Government has decided to reduce disturbed areas under Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) in which of the following states ?

A
West Bengal, Odisha and Manipur
B
Nagaland, Assam and Manipur
C
Manipur, Assam and Mizoram
D
Nagaland, West Bengal and Manipur

Question 165Single Answer

National Conclave on “Production of Bees Wax” was organized by which of the following in March 2022 ?

A
National Dairy Development Board
B
National Bee Board
C
NITI Aayog
D
Both 1 and 2

Reasoning

Question 166Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 167Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 168Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 169Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 170Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 171Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 172Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 173Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 174Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 175Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 176Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 177Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 178Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 179Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 180Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 181Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 182Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 183Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 184Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 185Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)

If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?

A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP

Aptitude

Question 186Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 187Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 188Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 189Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 190Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 191Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 192Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 193Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 194Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 195Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 196Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 197Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 198Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 199Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 200Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

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