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TS LAWCET Exam - English

Duration: 90 Β· Questions: 120 Β· Max Marks: 120 Β· Language: 1

View TS LAWCET 2026 Exam Page

General Knowledge & Mental Ability

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
9
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
11
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
12
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
13
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
14
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
15
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
16
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
17
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
18
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
19
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
20
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
21
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
22
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
23
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
  1. A.0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
  2. B.0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
  3. C.0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
  4. D.0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
24
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
  1. A.~ 5 mg/l
  2. B.~ 25 mg/l
  3. C.~ 71.4 mg/l
  4. D.~75 mg/l
25
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SOΓ’β€šβ€š in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
  1. A.~ 0.04 µg/m³
  2. B.~ 1047 µg/m³
  3. C.~ 104.7 µg/m³
  4. D.~ 10.47 µg/m³
26
Telangana Grameena Bank is
  1. A.a Co-operative Bank
  2. B.a Government Scheduled Bank
  3. C.a Housing Bank
  4. D.an Investment Bank
27
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
  1. A.Urban development
  2. B.Rural development
  3. C.Health improvement
  4. D.Literacy improvement
28
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
  1. A.Adolescent girls
  2. B.Physically challenged girls
  3. C.Members of self help groups
  4. D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
29
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
  1. A.Ana
  2. B.Nizamia Ana
  3. C.Osmania Sikka
  4. D.Nizamia Sikka
30
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
  1. A.Kowdipally, Medak District
  2. B.Erravalli, Medak District
  3. C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
  4. D.Chevella, Rangareddy District

Current Affairs

1
What major disaster struck northwestern Venezuela in June 2026?
  1. A.Volcanic eruption
  2. B.Category 5 hurricane
  3. C.Pair of powerful earthquakes
  4. D.Massive tsunami
2
CBDT functions under which ministry?
  1. A.Ministry of Commerce
  2. B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  3. C.Ministry of Finance
  4. D.Ministry of Home Affairs
3
Who was reappointed as the Chairman of the CBDT for another six months?
  1. A.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
  2. B.Ravi Agrawal
  3. C.Sanjay Malhotra
  4. D.Rajiv Kumar
4
The FCRA 2.0 Portal primarily deals with:
  1. A.GST collection
  2. B.Foreign Contributions Regulation
  3. C.Income Tax Returns
  4. D.Passport Services
5
Which ministry launched the FCRA 2. 0 Portal and the e-OCI ecosystem?
  1. A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. B.Ministry of Finance
  3. C.Ministry of External Affairs
  4. D.Ministry of Electronics & IT
6
Aarogya Setu 2.0 is associated with which sector?
  1. A.Agriculture
  2. B.Education
  3. C.Defence
  4. D.Healthcare
7
Which Union Minister launched Aarogya Setu 2.0 along with several new digital health initiatives?
  1. A.J.P. Nadda
  2. B.Amit Shah
  3. C.Ashwini Vaishnaw
  4. D.Nitin Gadkari
8
What is the target number of Lakhpati Didis under DAY-NRLM by 2029?
  1. A.6 crore
  2. B.1 crore
  3. C.10 crore
  4. D.2 crore
9
What major merger aims to create a government NBFC with a massive loan book?
  1. A.PFC and REC Limited
  2. B.SBI and PNB
  3. C.ONGC and IOC
  4. D.BHEL and BEL
10
What upcoming election was scheduled for July 2, 2026?
  1. A.French Presidential
  2. B.Algeria People’s National Assembly
  3. C.UK General
  4. D.US Midterms
11
In the context of South Korea politics (July 1, 2026), who succeeded as Prime Minister?
  1. A.Yoon Suk-yeol
  2. B.Lee Jae-myung (as PM)
  3. C.Han Seong-sook
  4. D.Kim Min-seok (retaine
12
Which ongoing regional crisis involves the Strait of Hormuz?
  1. A.Red Sea shipping attacks
  2. B.South China Sea dispute
  3. C.Fuel and shipping disruptions linked to Iran-related tensions
  4. D.Panama Canal blockage
13
What does e-Sushrut@Clinic HMIS target?
  1. A.Pharmaceutical supply chain
  2. B.Large corporate hospitals only
  3. C.Veterinary services
  4. D.Small clinics and healthcare facilities
14
What chatbot was launched for PM-JAY services?
  1. A.Jan Aushadhi Bot
  2. B.Arogya Mitra App
  3. C.Health Connect Portal
  4. D.Ayushman Sarathi WhatsApp chatbot
15
What is Project BRAHMANK associated with?
  1. A.A new missile project
  2. B.Border Roads Organisation (BRO) raising day in Arunachal Pradesh
  3. C.A river-linking initiative
  4. D.A space mission
16
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
  1. A.July 1, 2026
  2. B.June 30, 2026
  3. C.July 2, 2026
  4. D.June 29, 2026
17
When and where did the FIFA World Cup 2026 begin?
  1. A.July 1, 2026, in Europe
  2. B.June 11, 2026, in North America
  3. C.May 2026, in South America
  4. D.August 2026, in Asia
18
What notable achievement did India record in the UN SDG Index around mid-2026?
  1. A.Dropped out of top 50
  2. B.Lowest rank in Asia
  3. C.No change in ranking
  4. D.Highest-ever rank
19
What is the primary purpose of the JANANI Digital Platform?
  1. A.E-commerce for SHGs
  2. B.Agricultural loan distribution
  3. C.Digital education for rural areas
  4. D.Maternal and Child Health tracking
20
In which state was a new natural gas reserve discovered, as highlighted in July 2026 current affairs compilations?
  1. A.Gujarat
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Rajasthan
  4. D.Andhra Pradesh
21
What was launched by MoSPI on Statistics Day (July 1, 2026)?
  1. A.New GDP series
  2. B.Four SDG progress reports
  3. C.Unemployment White Paper
  4. D.Census 2026 preliminary data
22
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
  1. A.Removal of all cesses
  2. B.Single 12% slab
  3. C.Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
  4. D.Only state-level taxation
23
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
  1. A.Universal Health Coverage
  2. B.Ayushman Bharat expansion only
  3. C.TB-free India 2030
  4. D.National Ambulance Services 2026
24
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
  1. A.Bengaluru
  2. B.New Delhi
  3. C.Mumbai
  4. D.Hyderabad
25
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
  1. A.20% below average
  2. B.39.8% below average
  3. C.15% above average
  4. D.Normal rainfall
26
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
  1. A.New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
  2. B.Presidential elections were held
  3. C.Parliament was dissolved
  4. D.King was crowned
27
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
  1. A.Lakhpati Didi App
  2. B.Digital India Rural Scheme
  3. C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
  4. D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
28
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
  1. A.Merger with SBI
  2. B.Merger into a single power financing entity
  3. C.Merger with NTPC
  4. D.Merger with IREDA
29
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
  1. A.Gukesh D
  2. B.Praggnanandhaa R
  3. C.Harshavardhan G.B.
  4. D.Arjun Erigaisi
30
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
  1. A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
  2. B.Chandrayaan-4
  3. C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
  4. D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2

Aptitude for the Study of Law

1
A. Government of India Act 1858 control     1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861                          2.Non official members in executive council 
C. Indian Council                                         3.Separate representation of Muslim community                       Act1909
D. Government of                                         4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces    
  1. A.A       B      C        D
    2       3       1        4
  2. B.4       1       2        3
  3. C.3       4       1        2
  4. D.1        2       3        4
2
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
3
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
  1. A.1 and 2 are correct
  2. B.2 and 3 are correct
  3. C.1 and 3 are correct
  4. D.None of the above
4
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
5
Which one is not correctly matched?
  1. A.Freedom of speech  -  include freedom of  and expression press
  2. B.Freedom of    -   include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
  3. C.conscience
    Right to personal -  include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
  4. D.(d) Right to equality  -   includes principles of natural justice
6
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the 
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.Vice- President
  3. C.Chief Minister
  4. D.Chief Justice
7
 An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
 Arrange the protections in the order in which  they appear in the Indian constitution.
  1. A.Codes:
    1, 3, 2
  2. B.1, 2, 3
  3. C.3, 1, 2
  4. D.2, 1,3
8
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
  1. A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  2. B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  3. C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  4. D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
9
Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's  case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
  1. A.Codes:
     A      B      C     D
     2       4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
10
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
  1. A.Three months
  2. B.Six months
  3. C.Nine months
  4. D.Twelve months
11
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. A.Habeas corpus     - available against private individual as well.
  2. B.Quo warranto       - available against subordinate courts only
  3. C.Certiorari              - available against autonomous bodies only
  4. D.Prohibition           - directs a public authority to perform a task.
12
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad                 1. Bhim Singh's  case.
B. Prisoner's right                       2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty                         3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability           4. Sunil Batra's case.
  1. A.A      B      C     D
    2      4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
13
Match the following:
  1. A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
    from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
  2. B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
  3. C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
  4. D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
14
List-I                                                   List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore          1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights               
Maneka Gandhi                        2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus                          3. Right to life and  personal liberty
vs. State of MP           
Bashesher Nath                         4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr.                             5. Doctrine of severeability
  1. A.A      B      C      D
    4       2      3       1
  2. B.5       4      3       2
  3. C.4        3      2       1
  4. D.5        3     2        1
15
List-I                                  List-II
Independence of judiciary            1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation                     2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial  functions               3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility                4. Ordinance
  1. A.A     B     C    D
    2      1     4     3
  2. B.3      4     1     2
  3. C.2      4     1     3
  4. D.3      I     4      2
16
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.2
  4. D.1
17
 List-I                       List-II
Ò€‹A Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural  justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power  without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of  public duty.
  1. A.A       B     C    D
    2      4       3    1
  2. B.1      3       4    2
  3. C.2       3      4   1
  4. D.1       4    3    2
18
The fundamental duties provided in the  constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our  composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these  fundamental duties include:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
19
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
  1. A.First
  2. B.Second
  3. C.Third
  4. D.Fourth
20
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
  1. A.It lists the distribution of powers between  the union and the states.
  2. B.It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
  3. C.It contains the provision regarding the  administration of tribal areas.
  4. D.It allocates seats in the council of states.
21
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
  1. A.Article 14
  2. B.Article 32
  3. C.Article 226
  4. D.Article 227
22
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.I, II, III and IV
  2. B.II, III, IV and V
  3. C.I, III, IV and V
  4. D.I, II, III and V
23
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, III, IV and V
  2. B.II, III and IV
  3. C.I, II, III and V
  4. D.I, II and IV
24
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
  1. A.Only II
  2. B.Either I or II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only V
25
Given below are two statements .
Statement I  : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II  : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
  2. B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
26
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and III
  2. B.II and IV
  3. C.I, III and V
  4. D.Only V
27
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
  1. A.III, V, II, IV
  2. B.IV, II, I, III
  3. C.II, IV, I, III
  4. D.V, IV, I, II
28
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
  1. A.adoptive father of the child
  2. B.stepfather of the child
  3. C.natural father of the child
  4. D.Either 1 or 2
29
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Only I
  2. B.Only II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only IV
30
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
31
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
  1. A.Corfu Channel Case
  2. B.Asylum Case
  3. C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
  4. D.Reparations Case
32
Match List I with List II .
   List – I                                                                                  List – II
(a) Theory of Justice                                                              (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice                                                                  (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics                                                        (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals              (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (i)      (ii)      (iii)       (iv)       
  2. B.(ii)      (iii)      (i)       (iv)         
  3. C.(ii)      (iii)      (iv)      (i)     
  4. D.(ii)      (i)      (iii)       (iv)     
33
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
  1. A.NCLT
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.IBBI
  4. D.Director of a company
34
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and II
  2. B.I, II and IV
  3. C.I, III and IV
  4. D.II and V
35
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
  1. A.English law
  2. B.Indian law
  3. C.Jewish law
  4. D.Swedish law
36
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
37
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
  1. A.Defamation
  2. B.Decency and Morality
  3. C.Integrity of India
  4. D.Negligence
38
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, II and III
  2. B.I, III and IV
  3. C.II, III and IV
  4. D.III, IV and V
39
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
40
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
  1. A.Estrada Doctrine
  2. B.Hallestein Doctrine
  3. C.Franco Doctrine
  4. D.Stimson Doctrine
41
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1915
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.The Government of India Act, 1935
42
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
43
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
  1. A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.The Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Government of India Act, 1919
  4. D.None of the above
44
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
  1. A.Indian Councils Act, 1909
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1919
  3. C.Government of India Act, 1935
  4. D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
45
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
  1. A.Privy Council
  2. B.Supreme Court
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Federal Court
46
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
  1. A.Original jurisdiction only
  2. B.Appellate jurisdiction only
  3. C.Advisory jurisdiction only
  4. D.Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
47
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
  1. A.14 and 7
  2. B.11 and 7
  3. C.15 and 9
  4. D.None of the above
48
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
  1. A.Government of India Act, 1919
  2. B.Government of India Act, 1935
  3. C.The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  4. D.None of the above
49
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
  1. A.3 June, 1947
  2. B.4 July, 1947
  3. C.15 July, 1947
  4. D.18 July, 1947
50
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?
  1. A.Simon Commission
  2. B.Cripps Mission
  3. C.Cabinet Mission Plan
  4. D.The Mountbatten plan
51
In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
  1. A.1726
  2. B.1772
  3. C.1774
  4. D.1781
52
On whose recommendation amongst the following the Constituent Assembly was constituted ?
  1. A.Cripps Mission
  2. B.Webel Mission
  3. C.Lord Mountbatten
  4. D.Cabinet Mission Plan
53
Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constitutent Assembly ?
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
  3. C.Sr. B.N. Rau
  4. D.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
54
The first Constituent Assembly Meeting held on 9.12.46 was presided over by -
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Shri S.N. Sinha
  3. C.Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
  4. D.None of the above
55
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly ?
  1. A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.Sardar Patel
  3. C.Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
  4. D.Pt. J. Nehru
56
Who was the first Prsident of Constituent Assembly of India ?
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Dr. K. N. Katju
  3. C.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  4. D.C. Rajagopalachari
57
The number of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution were
  1. A.7
  2. B.8
  3. C.1
  4. D.5
58
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee ?
`
  1. A.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. B.Motilal Nehru
  3. C.M.K. Gandhi
  4. D.Sardar Patel
59
The members of the Constituent Assembly were -
  1. A.Elected directly by the people
  2. B.Nominated by the Indian National Congress
  3. C.Delegate of Indian princes
  4. D.Mainly elected by the provincial Asemblies
60
When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held ?
  1. A.8th December
  2. B.9th December
  3. C.10th December
  4. D.12th December
Question for TS LAWCET 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam