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Question for TS SET Law - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 200

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Latest TS SET Law Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : LAW

Question Bank TS SET Law (Paper 2) Exam - English

LAW

Q 1 :
'Test of control' deals with:
  1. A.master and servant relationship
  2. B.measures of damages
  3. C.course of employment
  4. D.implied authority
Q 2 :
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?"
  1. A.U.P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
  2. B.Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
  3. C.A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
  4. D.Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao Vs. APSRTC
Q 3 :
The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
  1. A.when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
  2. B.when the promisor performs his promise
  3. C.when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
  4. D.always at the discretion of the court
Q 4 :
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)  committed to provide:
(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable  and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland
  1. A.(a), (b) and (c) are true
  2. B.(a), (c) and (d) are true
  3. C.(b), (c) and (d) are true
  4. D.(a), (b) and (d) are true
Q 5 :
Which of the following statement/statements  is/are NOT correct?
(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed  by special majority.
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.
  1. A.Only (a)
  2. B.(a) and (d) both
  3. C.(b), (c) and (d)
  4. D.(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Q 6 :
Which of the following statement/statements  is/are correct?
(a) If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed, the President may summon a Joint Session of both the Houses.
(b) At the Joint Session of two Houses, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
(c) The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills.
(d) Money and Financial Bills can be only introduced in the Lok Sabha and with prior recommendations of the President.
  1. A.Only (a)
  2. B.(a), (b) and (c)
  3. C.(a), (c) and (d)
  4. D.(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Q 7 :
'Right to Environment discourse includes:
(a) Right to Health
(b) Right to Sanitation
(c) Right to Clean Technology
(d) Right to Free Speech
  1. A.(a), (b) and (c) are true
  2. B.(b), (c) and (d) are true
  3. C.(a), (c) and (d) are true
  4. D.(a) and (b) are true whereas (c) and (d) are false
Q 8 :
Every offence punishable under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is:
  1. A.compoundable
  2. B.non-compoundable
  3. C.cognizable
  4. D.Both (B) and (C) above
Q 9 :
UN Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by:
  1. A.General Assembly
  2. B.Security Council
  3. C.Secretary General
  4. D.Human Rights Council
Q 10 :
Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
  1. A.Legislation
  2. B.Customs
  3. C.Usage having no force of law
  4. D.Ordinance
Q 11 :
Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?
  1. A.Article 33
  2. B.Article 34
  3. C.Article 352
  4. D.Article 353
Q 12 :
Which of the following case is not related to "Theory of basic structure' under Article 368  of the Constitution?
  1. A.Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
  2. B.Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
  3. C.L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
  4. D.T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil  Nadu
Q 13 :
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by  the President under Article 360 of the constitution?
  1. A.A. It shall cease to operate at the expiration  of one month unless approved by both  Houses of Parliament
  2. B.Salary and allowances of persons serving  in connection with affairs of state may be reduced
  3. C.It may be revoked or varied by a  subsequent proclamation by President
  4. D.Salary and allowances of the Judges of  Supreme Court and High Courts may be  reduced
Q 14 :
In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
  1. A.Consent of two states
  2. B.Implementing international agreements
  3. C.Emergency is in operation
  4. D.In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
Q 15 :
Which of the following case is not related to  the Parliamentary previleges?
  1. A.M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
  2. B.State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
  3. C.Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan  Mukherjee
  4. D.State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
Q 16 :
Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between 'expositorial' jurisprudence (What the law is) and 'Censorial' jurisprudence (What the law ought to be)?
  1. A.John Austin
  2. B.Hans Kelsen
  3. C.Jeremy Benthem
  4. D.H.L.A. Hart
Q 17 :
'Now, natural law is not considered as absolute  but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.' This observation specifically relates to:
  1. A.Dabin
  2. B.Stammler
  3. C.Finnis
  4. D.Acquinas
Q 18 :
According to Professor Hart the meaning of  the term 'Positivism' includes:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct  from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established  or defended by rational argument, evidence or proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought  to be.
  1. A.Codes:
    Only (a) and (c) are correct
  2. B.Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  3. C.Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. D.(a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
Q 19 :
Match List-I with List-II and give the correct  answer by using the code given below:
        List-I                                      List-II
  (Theory)                                     (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social                     (i) Ehrlich
solidarity
 
(b) Theory of categorical             (ii) Duguit
Imperative
 
(c) Imperative Theory                  (iii) John Austin
of Law
 
(d) Theory of Living Law              (iv) Emanual   Kant
  1. A.Codes:
    (a)   (b)    (c)    (d)
    (iv)    (i)    (ii)    (ii)
  2. B.(ii)    (iv)   (i)     (iii)
  3. C.(ii)    (iv)  (iii)     (i)
  4. D.(i)     (ii)   (iv)    (iii)
Q 20 :
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
  1. A.Article 14
  2. B.Article 32
  3. C.Article 226
  4. D.Article 227
Q 21 :
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.I, II, III and IV
  2. B.II, III, IV and V
  3. C.I, III, IV and V
  4. D.I, II, III and V
Q 22 :
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, III, IV and V
  2. B.II, III and IV
  3. C.I, II, III and V
  4. D.I, II and IV
Q 23 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
  1. A.Only II
  2. B.Either I or II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only V
Q 24 :
Given below are two statements .
Statement I  : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II  : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both statement I and statement II are correct
  2. B.Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
  3. C.Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
  4. D.Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Q 25 :
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and III
  2. B.II and IV
  3. C.I, III and V
  4. D.Only V
Q 26 :
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
  1. A.III, V, II, IV
  2. B.IV, II, I, III
  3. C.II, IV, I, III
  4. D.V, IV, I, II
Q 27 :
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
  1. A.adoptive father of the child
  2. B.stepfather of the child
  3. C.natural father of the child
  4. D.Either 1 or 2
Q 28 :
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.Only I
  2. B.Only II
  3. C.Only III
  4. D.Only IV
Q 29 :
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
  4. D.Both (a) and (c)
Q 30 :
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
  1. A.Corfu Channel Case
  2. B.Asylum Case
  3. C.Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
  4. D.Reparations Case
Q 31 :
Match List I with List II .
   List – I                                                                                  List – II
(a) Theory of Justice                                                              (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice                                                                  (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics                                                        (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals              (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (i)      (ii)      (iii)       (iv)       
  2. B.(ii)      (iii)      (i)       (iv)         
  3. C.(ii)      (iii)      (iv)      (i)     
  4. D.(ii)      (i)      (iii)       (iv)     
Q 32 :
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
  1. A.NCLT
  2. B.SEBI
  3. C.IBBI
  4. D.Director of a company
Q 33 :
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and II
  2. B.I, II and IV
  3. C.I, III and IV
  4. D.II and V
Q 34 :
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
  1. A.English law
  2. B.Indian law
  3. C.Jewish law
  4. D.Swedish law
Q 35 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 36 :
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
  1. A.Defamation
  2. B.Decency and Morality
  3. C.Integrity of India
  4. D.Negligence
Q 37 :
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I, II and III
  2. B.I, III and IV
  3. C.II, III and IV
  4. D.III, IV and V
Q 38 :
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 39 :
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
  1. A.Estrada Doctrine
  2. B.Hallestein Doctrine
  3. C.Franco Doctrine
  4. D.Stimson Doctrine
Q 40 :
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
  1. A.by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
  2. B.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
  3. C.by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
  4. D.by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Q 41 :
Match List – I with List II
   List I                                                                         List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor                                    I.  statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill                    II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland                                           III.  Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather                                              IV.  Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (iv)      (v)      (ii)       (iii)                     
  2. B.(v)      (iv)      (i)       (ii)
  3. C.(i)      (iii)      (ii)       (v)
  4. D.(i)      (ii)      (iv)       (iii)       
Q 42 :
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
  1. A.Alka v/s Union of India
  2. B.Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
  3. C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
  4. D.Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Q 43 :
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
  1. A.India
  2. B.UK
  3. C.France
  4. D.Sweden
Q 44 :
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
  1. A.commercially valuable
  2. B.production methods
  3. C.business plans
  4. D.information discovered by reverse engineering
Q 45 :
Match List – I with List II :
     List I                                                                    List – II
(a) Post-modernism                                               I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law                                                  II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent             III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school                                               IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (iii)      (iv)      (ii)       (i)                      
  2. B.(iv)      (iii)      (ii)       (i)
  3. C.(ii)      (i)      (iii)        (iv)
  4. D.(i)      (ii)      (iv)       (iii) 
Q 46 :
Match List – I with List II :
   List I                                                                                                      List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid                                I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid                                II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment             III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking                                                                                              IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.(a)      (b)      (c)       (d)                                          
    (iv)      (ii)      (i)       (iii)               
  2. B.(iii)      (ii)      (iv)      (i)    
  3. C.(ii)      (iii)      (i)       (iv)  
  4. D.(iii)      (ii)      (i)       (iv)     
Q 47 :
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
  1. A.prospective effect only
  2. B.retrospective effect only
  3. C.Both propsective and retrospective effect
  4. D.effect as the court may decide
Q 48 :
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.I and IV
  2. B.II and III
  3. C.III and V
  4. D.II and V
Q 49 :
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
  1. A.When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
  2. B.When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
  3. C.When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
  4. D.when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Q 50 :
Match List – I with List II :
    List I                                                              List – II
  (Provision)                                                    (Section)
(a) Void marriage                                           I.  Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Divorce by mutual consent                       II.  Section 24, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) Maintenance pendente lite                       III. Section 13 B, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(d) Disposal of property                                 IV. Section 11, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
  1. A.(a)     (b)     (c)      (d)                                          
    (i)     (iii)     (iv)      (ii)                                            
  2. B.(iv)     (iii)     (ii)      (i)
  3. C.(iii)      (ii)      (i)     (iv)
  4. D.(ii)      (i)      (iii)     (iv)    

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