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Latest TSPSC AEE Electrical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & General Abilities
Question Bank TSPSC AEE Electrical Exam Paper 1 - English
General Studies & General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 14 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 15 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 16 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 17 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 18 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 19 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 20 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 21 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 22 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 23 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 24 :
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnis
Q 25 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 26 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 27 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 28 :
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-Ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 29 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 30 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 31 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 32 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 33 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 34 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 35 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 36 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 37 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 38 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 39 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 40 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 41 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 42 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 43 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 44 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 45 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 46 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 47 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 48 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
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General Studies & General Abilities
Q 51 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 52 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 53 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 54 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 55 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 57 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 58 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 59 :
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 60 :
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A.Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B.Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C.Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D.Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Q 61 :
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A.Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B.Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C.Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D.Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Q 62 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 63 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 64 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 65 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 66 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 67 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 68 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 69 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 70 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 71 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 72 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 73 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 74 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 75 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 76 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 77 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 78 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 79 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 80 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 81 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 82 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 83 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 84 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 85 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 86 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 87 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 88 :
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnisa
Q 89 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 90 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 91 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 92 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 93 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 94 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 95 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 96 :
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
B.Raskhan
C.Rich Khusrow
D.Rich Hasan
Q 97 :
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A.Muhammad Hasan
B.Muhammad Hussain
C.Muhammad Khusrow
D.Muhammad Mine
Q 98 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 99 :
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A.water polo
B.Rugby
C.Polo
D.baseball
Q 100 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 101 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 102 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 103 :
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A.Economic behavior
B.Human values and moral principles
C.Physical health
D.Political systems
Q 104 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 105 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 106 :
The process of soil formation is called :
A.Erosion
B.Weathering
C.Deposition
D.Lithification
Q 107 :
Which is the thinnest layer of the Earth ?
A.Crust
B.Mantle
C.Outer Core
D.Inner Core
Q 108 :
Which type of rocks are formed from magma ?
A.Sedimentary rocks
B.Metamorphic rocks
C.Igneous rocks
D.Fossil rocks
Q 109 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 110 :
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A.BARC
B.ISRO
C.DRDO
D.HAL
Q 111 :
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A.1975
B.1965
C.1980
D.1990
Q 112 :
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A.INSAT-1A
B.Aryabhata
C.Rohini
D.Bhaskara
Q 113 :
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A.Dhruva
B.Kamini
C.Apsara
D.Kalpakkam
Q 114 :
In a centrally planned economy, what is the primary mechanism for resource allocation?
A.Market prices
B.Government directives
C.Consumer preferences
D.Private enterprise
Q 115 :
Which of the following is a key disadvantage of a traditional economic system compared to a mixed economy?
A.High economic growth potential
B.Resistance to technological innovation
C.Flexible resource allocation
D.Strong government intervention
Q 116 :
In a mixed economy, how does the government typically address market failures?
A.Through subsidies, taxes, and regulations
B.By fully controlling all industries
C.By eliminating private property
D.By enforcing a barter system
Q 117 :
Which economic system is most likely to prioritize equity over efficiency?
A.Market economy
B.Mixed economy
C.Traditional economy
D.Command economy
Q 118 :
What is a defining characteristic of a market economy?
A.Centralized price controls
B.Reliance on customary practices
C.Production decisions by government agencies
D.Resource allocation based on supply and demand
Q 119 :
Which dynasty ruled the Telangana region during the early centuries of the Common Era and is known for its contributions to trade and Buddhism?
A.Satavahanas
B.Kakatiyas
C.Qutb Shahis
D.Asaf Jahis
Q 120 :
The capital city of the Satavahana dynasty was mostly located in which present-day Telangana region?
A.Golconda
B.Warangal
C.Hyderabad
D.Paithan / Pratishthan
Q 121 :
The famous Amaravati stupa, an important Buddhist site, was built during the rule of which dynasty that controlled parts of Telangana?
A.Ikshvakus
B.Satavahanas
C.Kakatiyas
D.Chalukyas
Q 122 :
Which Kakatiya ruler shifted the capital to Warangal (Orugallu) and made it a major political centre?
A.Ganapatideva
B.Prataparudra
C.Rudradeva
D.Recharla Rudra
Q 123 :
The Thousand Pillar Temple at Hanamkonda was constructed during the reign of which Kakatiya ruler?
A.Rudradeva
B.Ganapatideva
C.Prataparudra
D.Rani Rudrama Devi
Q 124 :
Who was the only female ruler of the Kakatiya dynasty?
A.Chalukya princess
B.Akkana Devi
C.Mailama Devi
D.Rani Rudrama Devi
Q 125 :
The Kakatiya dynasty was finally defeated by the forces of which Delhi Sultanate ruler in 1323 AD?
A.Firoz Shah Tughlaq
B.Alauddin Khilji
C.Muhammad bin Tughlaq
D.Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Q 126 :
Which dynasty established Hyderabad as its capital after the fall of Golconda in 1687?
A.Bahmani
B.Qutb Shahi
C.Asaf Jahi (Nizams)
D.Adil Shahi
Q 127 :
The Qutb Shahi dynasty was founded by whom in 1518?
A.Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah
B.Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk
C.Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
D.Abdullah Qutb Shah
Q 128 :
Who among the Qutb Shahi rulers founded the city of Hyderabad in 1591?
A.Tana Shah
B.Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah
C.Abdullah Qutb Shah
D.Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
Q 129 :
The famous Charminar was built by which Qutb Shahi ruler?
A.Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk
B.Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
C.Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah
D.Tana Shah
Q 130 :
Golconda Fort was originally strengthened and made famous by which dynasty before the Qutb Shahis?
A.Kakatiyas
B.Chalukyas
C.Satavahanas
D.Bahmanis
Q 131 :
The Telangana Rebellion (1946-1951) was mainly directed against whom?
A.Indian National Congress
B.British colonial rule
C.Andhra landlords
D.Nizam's feudal system & Razakars
Q 132 :
The Telangana Rebellion is also known as?
A.Vetti Chakiri Movement / Peasant Armed Struggle
B.Non-Cooperation Movement
C.Quit India Movement
D.Salt Satyagraha
Q 133 :
Who was the prominent leader of the Telangana Armed Struggle from the Communist Party?
A.K. Chandrashekar Rao
B.Ravi Narayana Reddy
C.Marri Chenna Reddy
D.P. V. Narasimha Rao
Q 134 :
When was the Telangana state officially formed by separating from Andhra Pradesh?
A.9 December 2009
B.1 November 1956
C.2 June 2014
D.15 August 1947
Q 135 :
Who was the first Chief Minister of the separate Telangana state?
A.N. T. Rama Rao
B.N. Kiran Kumar Reddy
C.Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy
D.K. Chandrashekar Rao
Q 136 :
The Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) party was founded in which year?
A.2004
B.1996
C.2001
D.2010
Q 137 :
Who founded the Telangana Rashtra Samithi (now Bharat Rashtra Samithi)?
A.T. Devendar Goud
B.K. Keshava Rao
C.K. Chandrashekar Rao
D.Nagam Janardhan Reddy
Q 138 :
The famous "Telangana Garjana" public meeting that gave momentum to the statehood movement was held in?
A.Karimnagar - 2008
B.Hyderabad - 2009
C.Warangal - 2001
D.Nizamabad - 2010
Q 139 :
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B.Purchase of Rafale jets
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
Q 140 :
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A.GSAT-31
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.INSAT-4CR
D.GSAT-32
Q 141 :
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A.A new defence missile system
B.Green hydrogen mission
C.AI Tutoring initiative
D.Digital payment platform
Q 142 :
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A.1 May 2026
B.1 January 2026
C.1 July 2026
D.31 December 2026
Q 143 :
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A.At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B.8
C.25
D.12
Q 144 :
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A.Bengaluru, Karnataka
B.Mumbai
C.Hyderabad
D.Chennai
Q 145 :
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A.Pilot shortage
B.High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C.New DGCA regulations
D.Airport congestion
Q 146 :
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A.6.5%
B.6.0%
C.4.75%
D.5.25%
Q 147 :
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A.Swachh Bharat
B.Namami Gange
C.Digital India
D.Gyan Bharatam Mission
Q 148 :
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A.Germany
B.South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C.USA
D.Australia
Q 149 :
Disaster management is best defined as?
A.Only response after disaster
B.Relief distribution only
C.Systematic process of planning, organizing and managing disasters
