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Latest TSPSC AEE Mechanical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & General Abilities
Question Bank TSPSC AEE Mechanical Exam Paper I - English
General Studies & General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 17 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 18 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 19 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 20 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 21 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 22 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 23 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 24 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 25 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 26 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 27 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 28 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 29 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 30 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 31 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 33 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 34 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 35 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 36 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 37 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 38 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 39 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 41 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 42 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 43 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 44 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 45 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 46 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 47 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 48 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 49 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 50 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
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TSPSC AEE Mechanical Exam Question Bank Book Paper I - English
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 52 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 54 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 55 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
Q 56 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 57 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 58 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 59 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 60 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 61 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 62 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 63 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 64 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 65 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 66 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 67 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 68 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 69 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 70 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 71 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 72 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 73 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 74 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 75 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 76 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 77 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 78 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 79 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 80 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 81 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 82 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 83 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 84 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 85 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 86 :
Quantity I: On selling 17 balls at Rs720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball is :
Quantity II: A man buys a cycle for Rs 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. The selling price is :
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 87 :
Quantity I : A and B together can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can do the same work in 6 days, then B alone can do the same work in ?
Quantity II : A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ​ Quantity II
C.Quantity II Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 88 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : Train ‘A’ running at a speed of 25 m/sec crosses Train ‘Z’ coming from opposite direction running at a speed of 15 m/sec in 12 seonds. Length of Train ‘A’ is twice of train ‘B’. Length of train ‘A’ is ‘x’
Quantity II : 160 meters.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 89 :
Quantity I : ‘x’ : A pipe alone can fill a cistern in 60 minutes. But due to leakage pipe filled only 80% of the cistern in 1 hour. ‘x’ is the capacity of cistern in liters if due to leakage 60 liter can be leaked out in 1 hour.
Quantity II : 250 liters
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No Relation
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q 90 :
Average weight of four persons is 67 kg.These persons are A, B, C and D. When E is included in the group, average weight decreases by 2 kg. What is the weight of A? A’s weight is 4 kg more than B’s weight.
(I) When B is displaced by another person F, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 64 kg.
(II) When D is displaced by another person G, whose weight is 4 kg more than E, average weight becomes 65 kg.
A.Statement(I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 91 :
Is x an integer ?
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 92 :
Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll ?
(I) As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A.
​(II) As per the opinion poll team C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 93 :
A, B and C are positive integers. Is their product an even number ?
(I) A is an even number.
(II) The product of A and B is an even number and that of A and C is also an even number.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 94 :
What was Mr. Srinivasula’s combined income for the year 1994-1999 ? In 1994, he made Rs.10,00,000.
(I) His average yearly income for the years 1994-1999 was Rs.12,00,000.
​(II) In 1999, his income was Rs.20,00,000.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient , but statement(I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 95 :
A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation ?
(1) The first presentation was made on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
​(2) ‘A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 96 :
How many houses on the street are painted blue ?
(1) Houses on the east side with number 122 through 182 are painted blue.
(2) Houses on the west and east sides have consecutive odd and even number respectively.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 97 :
Is Mr. ‘Y’ entitled to get promotion in the month of September 2002 ?
(1) As per his office rules, the only condition for promotion is completion of 12 years of service in a particular grade on 31st December of every year.
(2) Mr. ‘Y’ has been working in this office for the last 12 years.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 98 :
What is the distance Between D1 and D2​ ? It is given that a man who can row x km/hr in still water, takes z hrs to row from D1 to D2 and back to D1, in a stream which flows at y km/hr.
(1) Value of (x2- y2) is known.
(2) (x ÷ z) is known.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 99 :
Is ababab divisible by 222 where a and b are two digits ?
(1) a + b = 5. (2) b is an even number
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 100 :
Is (X2 + Y2 + Z2) even? [X, Y, Z are integers]
(1) X, Y, Z are consecutive. (2) X2 + Z2 is even.
A.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient , but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
C.BOTH Statement TOGETHER are sufficient , but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statement (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 101 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 102 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 103 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 104 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 105 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 106 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 107 :
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnisa
Q 108 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 109 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 110 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 111 :
Who was the incharge of 'Port-Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 112 :
For the maintenance of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A.Aurangabad
B.Warangal
C.Mahaboobnagar
D.Berar
Q 113 :
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad ?
A.Salarjung-I
B.Salarjung-III
C.Salarjung-II
D.Osman Ali Khan
Q 114 :
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 115 :
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A.Kumaram Bheem
B.Khammam
C.Adilabad
D.Warangal
Q 116 :
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A.227 persons per sq. km.
B.306 persons per sq. km.
C.325 persons per sq. km.
D.350 persons per sq. km.
Q 117 :
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Nizamabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Warangal
Q 118 :
Second largest district in Telangana State, area-wise is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Nalgonda
C.Karimnagar
D.Khammam
Q 119 :
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Census is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Nalgonda
C.Adilabad
D.Medak
Q 120 :
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A.Khammam
B.Karimnagar
C.Nizamabad
D.Warangal
Q 121 :
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Warangal
D.Adilabad
Q 122 :
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A.Ellanna
B.Mallanna
C.Rajanna
D.Beeranna
Q 123 :
Name the village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A.Bellampalli
B.Bhupalpalli
C.Yellandu
D.Ramagundam
Q 124 :
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A.Sharad Pawar
B.Mir Osman Ali Khan
C.Azam Khan
D.N.T. Rama Rao
Q 125 :
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 126 :
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Hanmakonda
C.Medak
D.Karimnagar
Q 127 :
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A.Warangal
B.Khammam
C.Nalgonda
D.Nizamabad
Q 128 :
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Khammam
D.Medak
Q 129 :
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 130 :
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A.The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed struggle
B.The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement
C.The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt
D.The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement
Q 131 :
RBI projected India’s GDP growth for the ongoing period at what rate (April 2026 update)?
A.7.4%
B.6.8%
C.7.0%
D.8.0%
Q 132 :
Which state topped the medal tally in Khelo India Tribal Games 2026?
A.Karnataka
B.Odisha
C.Maharashtra
D.Jharkhand
Q 133 :
Kar Saathi AI-enabled taxpayer assistance platform was launched by which body?
A.CBIC
B.RBI
C.Income Tax Department
D.NITI Aayog
Q 134 :
INS Taragiri was commissioned at which location in April 2026?
A.Chennai
B.Mumbai
C.Kochi
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 135 :
Which state hosted the National Level Advanced Agriculture Festival 2026?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Gujarat
D.Karnataka
Q 136 :
The SAMPANN platform is a flagship initiative of which department?
A.Department of Pension
B.Ministry of Finance
C.Ministry of Labour
D.Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
Q 137 :
Newcastle Disease recently in news is caused by which agent?
A.Bacteria
B.Virus
C.Fungus
D.Protozoa
Q 138 :
Which organisation developed the Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System (MH-EWDSS)?
A.ISRO
B.India Meteorological Department
C.NDMA
D.DRDO
Q 139 :
What repo rate did the RBI MPC maintain in its latest review (April 2026 context)?
A.5.25% (neutral stance)
B.6.00%
C.5.50%
D.4.75%
Q 140 :
RBI extended the inflation targeting framework with 4% CPI target (±2% band) for which period?
A.2026-27 only
B.2025-26 only
C.1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031
D.2027-32
Q 141 :
What is the theme for the International Day for Mine Awareness 2026 observed on 4 April?
A.Peace Through Action
B.Global Safety First
C.Invest in Peace; Invest in Mine Action
D.Landmine-Free World
Q 142 :
India completed its first Iranian oil purchase in how many years without payment issues (April 2026)?
A.Three years
B.Five years
C.Ten years
D.Seven years
Q 143 :
What was India’s CASA ratio in the December 2025 quarter according to RBI data released in April 2026?
A.35.0%
B.40.1%
C.42.5%
D.37.9% (2-year low)
Q 144 :
RBI released the indicative borrowing calendar for Q1 FY27 (April–June 2026). What is the total amount states/UTs will raise?
A.₹2.00 lakh crore
B.₹1.50 lakh crore
C.₹3.00 lakh crore
D.₹2.54 lakh crore
Q 145 :
Union MoS Dr. Jitendra Singh launched the BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre at which institute in April 2026?
A.CSIR-IICT, Hyderabad
B.CSIR-CFTRI, Mysuru
C.IIT Delhi
D.NIFTEM
Q 146 :
Which two entities recently adopted DoT’s SAMPANN platform for pension management?
A.Government of Kerala and Chennai Port
B.Government of Karnataka and Mumbai Port
C.Government of Goa and Cochin Port Authority
D.Government of Maharashtra and Paradip Port
Q 147 :
A Rs 5 commemorative postage stamp was released in April 2026 to mark 75 years of which institution?
A.Speed Post
B.India Post Payments Bank
C.Postal Training Centre (PTc), Saharanpur
D.India Post Gramin Dak Sevak
Q 148 :
India and South Korea signed a Plan of Implementation (PoI) in April 2026 for skill development in which sector?
A.Shipbuilding and maritime
B.IT and software
C.Renewable energy
D.Automobile manufacturing
Q 149 :
The Ministry of Education recently declared NCERT as a ‘Deemed to be University’ under which Act?
A.UGC Act, 1956 (Section 3)
B.NEP 2020
C.AICTE Act
D.National Education Policy Act
Q 150 :
INS Aridhaman, recently commissioned by the Indian Navy, belongs to which class of submarines?
Quantity II
​ Quantity II