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Latest TSPSC Agriculture Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies and General Abilities
Question Bank TSPSC Agriculture Officer (Paper-I) Exam - English
General Studies and General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 12 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 13 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 14 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 15 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 16 :
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnis
Q 17 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 18 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 19 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 20 :
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-Ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 21 :
For the maintenace of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A.Aurangabad
B.Warangal
C.Mahaboobnagar
D.Berar
Q 22 :
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad?
A.Salarjung - I
B.Salarjung - II
C.Salarjung - III
D. Osman Ali Khan
Q 23 :
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) In Telangana State?
A.Nalgonda
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 24 :
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Adilabad
D.Warangal
Q 25 :
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A.227 persons per sq. Km.
B.307 persons per sq. Km.
C.325 persons per sq. Km.
D.350 persons per sq. Km.
Q 26 :
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Nizamabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Warangal
Q 27 :
Second largest district in Telangana State, area - wise is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Khammam
Q 28 :
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Cesus is
A.Adilabad
B.Nalgonda
C.Mahaboobnagar.
D.Medak
Q 29 :
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A.Khammam
B.Karimnagar
C.Nizamabad
D.Warangal
Q 30 :
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Warangal
D.Adilabad
Q 31 :
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A.Ellanna
B.Mallanna
C.Rajanna
D.Beeranna
Q 32 :
Name the Village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A.Bellampalli .
B.Bhupalpalli
C.Yellandu
D.Ramagundam
Q 33 :
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A.Sharad Pawar
B.Mir Osman Ali Khan
C.Azam Khan
D.N.T. Rama Rao
Q 34 :
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A.6.
B.7
C.8
D.9.
Q 35 :
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Hanmakonda
C.Medak
D.Karimnagar
Q 36 :
The Dandora Movement was launched for the purpose of
A.Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes
B.Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes
C.Sub-classification of the most Backward classes
D.Abolition of Caste based reservation
Q 37 :
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A.Warangal
B.Khammam
C.Nalgonda
D.Nizamabad.
Q 38 :
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Khammam
D.Medak
Q 39 :
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 40 :
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A.The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed stuggle.
B.The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement.
C.The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt.
D.The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement.
Q 41 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 42 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 43 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 44 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 45 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 46 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 47 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 48 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 49 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 50 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
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General Studies and General Abilities
Q 51 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 54 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 55 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 56 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 57 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 58 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 59 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 60 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 61 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 62 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 63 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 64 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 65 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 66 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 67 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 68 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 69 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 70 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 71 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 72 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 73 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 74 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 75 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 76 :
Identify the correct sequence of energy flow through various levels of an ecosystem
When environmental lapse rate is more than dry adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is said to be in
A.Stable state
B.
Unstable state
C.
Neutral state
D.
Conditionally stable state
Q 78 :
Which of the following accounts for nearly 75% of the available fresh water in the world?
A.
Groundwater
B.
Glaciers
C.
River water
D.
Lakes
Q 79 :
The summers in Taiga climatic zone are
A.
Hot, humid and long
B.
Warm and short
C.
Cool, rainy and short
D.
Hot and try
Q 80 :
Utilitarian conservation theory was established by
A.
Roosevelt and Pinchot
B.
John Muir
C.
Rachel Carson
D.
Brundtland
Q 81 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 82 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 83 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 84 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 85 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 86 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 87 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 88 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 89 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 90 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 91 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 92 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 93 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 94 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 95 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 96 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 97 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 98 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 99 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 100 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 101 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 102 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 103 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 104 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 105 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 106 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 107 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 108 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 109 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 110 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 111 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 112 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 113 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 114 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 115 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 116 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 117 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 118 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 119 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 120 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 121 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 122 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 123 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 124 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 125 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 126 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 127 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 128 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 129 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 130 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 131 :
The Rajasthan AI-ML Policy 2026 was launched during which conference?
A.Digital India Summit
B.AI Action Summit
C.Regional AI Impact Conference 2026
D.India AI Impact Summit
Q 132 :
Which ministry introduced the Swasth Bharat Portal?
A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
B.Ministry of Education
C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D.Ministry of AYUSH
Q 133 :
India's first green methanol project is located in which state?
A.Gujarat
B.Rajasthan
C.Maharashtra
D.Odisha
Q 134 :
Mission Mausam was launched by which ministry?
A.Ministry of Earth Sciences
B.Ministry of Environment
C.Ministry of Science and Technology
D.Ministry of Agriculture
Q 135 :
National Technology Day is observed in India on which date?
A.10 May
B.11 May
C.12 May
D.15 May
Q 136 :
Which organization publishes the World Economic Outlook report?
A.OECD
B.WTO
C.IMF
D.World Bank
Q 137 :
What was the theme of the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
A.Maritime Security First
B.Indo-Pacific Cooperation
C.Maritime Cooperation for Humanitarian Support
D.Blue Economy Growth
Q 138 :
Which city hosted the 9th IONS Conclave of Chiefs 2026?
A.Kochi
B.Mumbai
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Goa
Q 139 :
What was the theme of BioAsia International Summit 2026?
A.AI for Humanity
B.Future of Biotechnology
C.TechBio Unleashed: AI, Automation & the Biology Revolution
D.Digital Health Revolution
Q 140 :
Which city hosted the 23rd BioAsia International Summit 2026?
A.Mumbai
B.Chennai
C.Bengaluru
D.Hyderabad
Q 141 :
Which country holds the BRICS Chairmanship in 2026?
A.Brazil
B.Russia
C.China
D.India
Q 142 :
Which city hosted the Regional AI Impact Conference 2026?
A.Chennai
B.Jaipur
C.Pune
D.Kochi
Q 143 :
Which country is expected to host COP31 Climate Summit 2026?
A.France
B.UAE
C.Germany
D.Turkey
Q 144 :
Which country is scheduled to host the BRICS Summit 2026?
A.China
B.India
C.South Africa
D.Brazil
Q 145 :
Which city is expected to host the G20 Summit 2026?
A.New York
B.Washington D.C.
C.Miami
D.Los Angeles
Q 146 :
Which ministry organized the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
A.Ministry of Science and Technology
B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C.Ministry of Commerce
D.Ministry of Education
Q 147 :
Where was the India AI Impact Summit 2026 organized?
A.Pragati Maidan, Delhi
B.Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
C.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
D.Hyderabad International Convention Centre
Q 148 :
Which summit on Artificial Intelligence was hosted by India in February 2026?
A.World AI Congress
B.AI Action Summit
C.India AI Impact Summit 2026
D.Global AI Forum
Q 149 :
Where was the BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in May 2026?
A.Mumbai
B.Hyderabad
C.Bengaluru
D.New Delhi
Q 150 :
What is the theme of India’s BRICS Chairmanship 2026?
A.Inclusive Growth for All
B.Sustainable Global Economy
C.One Earth One Future
D.Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
5.015 =?