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Latest TSPSC JTO Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies and General Abili, General Studies and General Abilities, General Studies and General Abilir-I) - English
Question Bank TSPSC JTO (Civil) Exam (Paper-I) - English
General Studies and General Abilir-I) - English
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
General Studies and General Abilities
Q 21 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 22 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 23 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 24 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 25 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 26 :
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnis
Q 27 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 28 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 29 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 30 :
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-Ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 31 :
For the maintenace of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A.Aurangabad
B.Warangal
C.Mahaboobnagar
D.Berar
Q 32 :
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad?
A.Salarjung - I
B.Salarjung - II
C.Salarjung - III
D. Osman Ali Khan
Q 33 :
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) In Telangana State?
A.Nalgonda
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 34 :
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Adilabad
D.Warangal
Q 35 :
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A.227 persons per sq. Km.
B.307 persons per sq. Km.
C.325 persons per sq. Km.
D.350 persons per sq. Km.
Q 36 :
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Nizamabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Warangal
Q 37 :
Second largest district in Telangana State, area - wise is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Khammam
Q 38 :
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Cesus is
A.Adilabad
B.Nalgonda
C.Mahaboobnagar.
D.Medak
Q 39 :
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A.Khammam
B.Karimnagar
C.Nizamabad
D.Warangal
Q 40 :
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Warangal
D.Adilabad
Q 41 :
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A.Ellanna
B.Mallanna
C.Rajanna
D.Beeranna
Q 42 :
Name the Village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A.Bellampalli .
B.Bhupalpalli
C.Yellandu
D.Ramagundam
Q 43 :
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A.Sharad Pawar
B.Mir Osman Ali Khan
C.Azam Khan
D.N.T. Rama Rao
Q 44 :
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A.6.
B.7
C.8
D.9.
Q 45 :
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Hanmakonda
C.Medak
D.Karimnagar
Q 46 :
The Dandora Movement was launched for the purpose of
A.Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes
B.Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes
C.Sub-classification of the most Backward classes
D.Abolition of Caste based reservation
Q 47 :
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A.Warangal
B.Khammam
C.Nalgonda
D.Nizamabad.
Q 48 :
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Khammam
D.Medak
Q 49 :
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 50 :
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A.The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed stuggle.
B.The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement.
C.The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt.
D.The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement.
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TSPSC JTO (Civil) Exam Question Bank Book (Paper-I) - English
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 52 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 53 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 54 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 55 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 56 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 57 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 58 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 59 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 60 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 61 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 62 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 64 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 65 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 66 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 67 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 68 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 69 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 70 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 71 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 72 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 73 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 74 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 75 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 76 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 77 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 78 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 79 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 80 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 81 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 82 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 83 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 84 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 85 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 86 :
What are the steps necessary for sustainable management of renewable resources?
A.Avoiding over-exploitation and pollution of biotic systems.
B.Strengthening the resource base and augmentingregenerability of biotic systems .
C.Use of alternative resources .
D.All of these
Q 87 :
Fluxes of heat ,water vapour and momentum are constant in
A.upper atmosphere
B.middle atmosphere
C.Ekman layer
D.surface boundary layer
Q 88 :
Inversions occur when atmosphere is
A.unstable
B.neutral
C.Slightly stable
D.most stable
Q 89 :
When one species limits access of another species to a resource regardless of whether the resource is abundant or scarce ,it is called
A.interspecific competition
B.interspecific competition
C.intraspecific competition
D.exploitative competition
Q 90 :
Nanda Devi Sunderbans are examples of Indian
A.National parks
B.Sanctuaries
C.International heritage areas
D.Biosphere reserves
Q 91 :
Match the List –I and List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below the lists: List –I List-II (Analytical techniques) (Measured items )
a. XRF 1. Functional groups
b. Nephelometry 2. Elements
c. IR spectroscopy 3. Turbidity
d. UV- visible spectroscopy 4. Aromatics
codes
A.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4 2 3 1
B.
1 3 4 2
C.
3 2 4 1
D.
2 3 1 4
Q 92 :
The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCI is
A.2
B.4
C.3
D.1
Q 93 :
The primitive atmosphere of earth consisted of
A.
CO2’ NO2’ NH3’ SO2
B.
H2’ NH3’ CH4’ H2O
C.
CO’ N2O3’ SO3’ H3N
D.
He, Ne,Ar, Kr
Q 94 :
Which of the following is the major source of mercury pollution in India ?
A.
Coal based thermal power plants
B.
Pesticides
C.
Dental amalgam fillings
D.
Electrical and electronic gadgets
Q 95 :
Nitrite causes methaemoglobinemia by
A.
oxidizing membrane proteins by
B.
reacting with calcium of bones
C.
oxidizing haemoglobin
D.
oxidizing membrane lipids
Q 96 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 97 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 98 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 99 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 100 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 101 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 102 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 103 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 104 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 105 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 106 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 107 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 108 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 109 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 110 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 111 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 112 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 113 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 114 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 115 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 116 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 117 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 118 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 119 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 120 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 121 :
Who is the current Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission ?
A.Arvind Saxena
B.Manoj Soni
C.Bhim Sain Bassi
D.Vinay Mittal
Q 122 :
In which year was NITI Aayog formed ?
A.2014
B.2015
C.2016
D.2017
Q 123 :
When is International Jaguar Day observed ?
A.27 November
B.28 November
C.29 November
D.30 November
Q 124 :
Who will inaugurate a bust of Mahatma Gandhi at the United Nations during India’s Presidency of the UN Security Council on 14 December 2022 ?
A.Narendra Modi
B.Piyush Goyal
C.S Jaishankar
D.S Vijay Kumar
Q 125 :
iNCOVACC, the world’s first Intranasal Vaccine has received approval for Covid booster doses from Drugs Controller General of India. The vaccine was developed by Bharat Biotech in partnership with which of the following ?
A.Washington University
B.Stanford University
C.University of Cambridge
D.University of Oxford
Q 126 :
Who took the Oath of Office and Secrecy as Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Member in New Delhi, in November 2022 ?
A.Kishor Kumar Basa
B.Sanjeev Chopra
C.Partha Satpathy
D.Preeti Sudan
Q 127 :
RBI has announced the launch of the first pilot for the retail digital Rupee on 1st December 2022. How many banks have been identified for phase-wise participation in this pilot ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 128 :
Which of the following airlines will be merged with Tata-owned Air India by March 2024 ?
A.Go First
B.IndiGo
C.SpiceJet
D.Vistara
Q 129 :
India has provided budgetary support of how many US dollars to the Maldives ?
A.50 million
B.100 million
C.150 million
D.200 million
Q 130 :
Which of the following launched the carbon capture utilisation and storage (CCUS) policy framework and its Deployment Mechanism in India on 29 November 2022 ?
A.NITI Aayog
B.RBI
C.FICCI
D.NASSCOM
Q 131 :
What is the theme of World AIDS Day 2022 ?
A.End inequalities. End AIDS
B.Equalize
C.Global solidarity, resilient services
D.Know Your Status
Q 132 :
NASA’s Artemis 1 Orion Capsule has set a new space flight record for spacecraft designed to carry humans by travelling how many kilometres from Earth ?
A.2,98,761
B.3,45,109
C.3,98,432
D.4,01,798
Q 133 :
Jiang Zemin passed away at the age of 96 on 30 November 2022. He was the former President of which country ?
A.Japan
B.Mongolia
C.China
D.Brunel
Q 134 :
Kumble Sundar Rao passed away on 30 November 2022. He was related to which of the following traditional theatres ?
A.Yakshagana
B.Terukkuttu
C.Jatra
D.Wari-leeba
Q 135 :
Which of the following released a report in November 2022, recommending Australia’s Great Barrier Reef (GBR) on a list of world heritage sites in danger ?
A.UNICEF
B.UNDP
C.UNESCO
D.UNEP
Q 136 :
As per the recent NSO data, what is India’s gross domestic product (GDP) growth for the July-September quarter of 2022-23 ?
A.6.1 %
B.6.3 %
C.6.5 %
D.7.2 %
Q 137 :
India-US joint military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas-2022’ is held in which Indian state ?
A.Goa
B.Andhra Pradesh
C.Uttarakhand
D.Sikkim
Q 138 :
As per recent data, what is the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) in India during 2018-20 ?
A.130 per lakh live births
B.101 per lakh live births
C.97 per lakh live births
D.85 per lakh live births
Q 139 :
As per the World Bank’s Migration and Development Brief, what is the expected Remittance flows to India in 2022-23 ?
A.USD 200 billion
B.USD 150 billion
C.USD 50 billion
D.USD 100 billion
Q 140 :
Economic cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) between India and which country is set to enter into force from December 2022 ?
A.UAE
B.Sri Lanka
C.France
D.Australia
Q 141 :
Which state has hired management consultancy McKinsey to achieve the target of doubling its GSDP ?
A.Karnataka
B.Uttarakhand
C.Odisha
D.Telangana
Q 142 :
Which country has successfully used steam to propel Moon spacecraft ?
A.USA
B.UAE
C.Japan
D.China
Q 143 :
'Hornbill Festival’ is the flagship cultural event of which Indian state ?
A.Assam
B.Nagaland
C.Sikkim
D.Arunachal Pradesh
Q 144 :
Agni warrior is a bilateral defence exercise held between India and which country ?
A.USA
B.France
C.Singapore
D.Sri Lanka
Q 145 :
India supported the proposal of which country to include digitization in International Maritime Organization’s (IMO) Strategic Plan ?
A.USA
B.Russia
C.UAE
D.South Africa
Q 146 :
Indian Army’s Sudarshan Chakra Corps carried out Exercise Sudarshan Prahar in which state on 1 December 2022 ?
A.Punjab
B.Gujarat
C.Odisha
D.Rajasthan
Q 147 :
The 12th Edition of Exercise Agni Warrior concluded at Field Firing Ranges in which state on 1 December 2022 ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Punjab
C.Odisha
D.Gujarat
Q 148 :
Which country will assume chairmanship of the plenary of the Wassenaar Arrangement for a year on January 1, 2023 ?
A.USA
B.Japan
C.UK
D.India
Q 149 :
In November 2022, which of the following signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Power Finance Corporation as per the DPE Performance Evaluation System for FY 2022-23 ?
A.Coal India
B.REC Limited
C.NTPC Limited
D.Indian Oil Corporation
Q 150 :
Who took charge as Secretary of the Department of School Education & Literacy on 01 December 2022 ?
