A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A
40.5m3
B
50m3
C
75m3
D
94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A
5 m2
B
25 m2
C
10 m2
D
20 m2
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 12Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to
A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 13Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5
Question 14Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 15Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 17Single Answer
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
A
0.5m
B
1.25m
C
2.75m
D
4.25m
Question 18Single Answer
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
A
7.5%
B
9.5%
C
13.5%
D
16.5%
Question 19Single Answer
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
A
10 h 32 m 40 s AM
B
11h 32 m 39s PM
C
0 h 32 m 39s PM
D
11 h 32 m 39s AM
Question 20Single Answer
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
A
10 m
B
15 m
C
20 m
D
25 m
Question 21Single Answer
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
A
0.25, 0.3 and 0.45
B
0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
C
0.25, 0.45 and 0.3
D
0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Question 22Single Answer
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
A
0.572 and 700 kgf
B
0.603 and 700 kfg
C
0.572 and 570 kgf
D
0.603 and 570 kgf
Question 23Single Answer
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
A
535 seconds
B
516 seconds
C
485 seconds
D
467 seconds
Question 24Single Answer
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
A
Viscosity test
B
Penetration test
C
Ductility test
D
Softening point test
Question 25Single Answer
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
A
104 lps
B
134 lps
C
165 lps
D
196 lps
Question 26Single Answer
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
A
Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
B
Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
C
Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
D
Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity Index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
A
Poor
B
Fair
C
Good
D
Excellent
Question 28Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
3 only
B
2 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 29Single Answer
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
A
19.6 cm
B
21.6 cm
C
23.6 cm
D
25.6 cm
Question 30Single Answer
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
A
5.8 m2/s
B
6.4 m2/s
C
7.3 m2/s
D
8.3 m2/s
Question 31Single Answer
Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected section of a Highway are conducted by
A
Fast moving car method
B
Enoscope
C
Radar
D
Traffic contours
Question 32Single Answer
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 × 10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within and outside an open-ended capillary tube of 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface, would nearly, be
A
7 mm
B
11 mm
C
15 mm
D
19 mm
Question 33Single Answer
Survey of India was publishing toposheets using a scale of
A
1 : 1000
B
1 : 5000
C
1 : 10000
D
1 : 50000
Question 34Single Answer
The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for conditions obtaining in India, is
A
87.6 km/h
B
99.6 km/h
C
76.6 km/h
D
65.6 km/h
Question 35Single Answer
The gradient for a B.G railway line such that the grade resistance together with curve resistance due a 4° curve which will be equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in 150 is
A
1 : 180
B
1 : 200
C
1 : 300
D
1 : 400
Question 36Single Answer
A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m. Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is 0.98. What is the velocity of the jet?
Take g = 10 m/s2.
A
83 m/s
B
71 m/s
C
65 m/s
D
56 m/s
Question 37Single Answer
The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be
A
30%
B
40%
C
50%
D
60%
Question 38Single Answer
A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of H to D if S = 0.6?
A
0.86
B
0.72
C
0.52
D
0.46
Question 39Single Answer
In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream function = 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is
A
12.0 units
B
10.0 units
C
8.0 units
D
6.0 units
Question 40Single Answer
An open rectangular tank of dimensions 4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m. It is then accelerated along the longer side. What is the maximum acceleration possible without spilling the water? If this acceleration is then increased by 10%, what amount of water will be spilt off?
A
1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
B
1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
C
1.472 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
D
1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
Question 41Single Answer
While conducting the flow measurement using a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head over the notch is observed. The percentage error in the computed discharge would be
A
+7%
B
–3%
C
+5%
D
–4%
Question 42Single Answer
An orifice is located in the side of a tank with its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank. The constant water level is 1.0 m above the centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 cm below vena-contracta is
A
1.62m
B
1.00m
C
0.62m
D
0.32m
Question 43Single Answer
The velocity of water at the outer edge of a 60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 cm, is
A
1 m/s
B
5 m/s
C
8 m/s
D
10 m/s
Question 44Single Answer
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m, and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of flow and the flow velocity?
Take g as 10m/s2.
A
7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
B
6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
C
7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
D
6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
Question 45Single Answer
A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The specific energy head of the flow is
A
1.18m
B
1.78m
C
2.18m
D
2.78m
Question 46Single Answer
The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow is
A
12.2
B
10.4
C
7.42
D
4.21
Question 47Single Answer
A partially open sluice gate discharges water at 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
A
1.51 m
B
1.70 m
C
1.85 m
D
1.95 m
Question 48Single Answer
What is the maximum power available at the downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
A
770 mhp
B
740 mhp
C
700 mhp
D
660 mhp
Question 49Single Answer
In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to assume that due to aging of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
3 only
C
2 only
D
1 only
Question 50Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
2 and 4
D
1 and 4
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Civil
Question 51Single Answer
Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a system. The pump curve of each of the pumps is represented by H = 20 – 60Q2 where H is manometric head of the pump and Q is the discharge of the pump. The head loss equation when two such fully-similar pumps jointly deliver the same discharge Q will be
A
H = 40 – 15Q2
B
H = 20 – 60Q2
C
H = 40 – 60Q2
D
H = 20 – 15Q2
Question 52Single Answer
At the point of operation with maximum efficiency, a turbine indicated unit power of 12 units and unit speed of 98 units and operates with 3300 kgf/s of flow. What are the speed in rpm and the specific speed of the machine respectively when its design head is 8.5m?
A
285 rpm and 339
B
270 rpm and 360
C
285 rpm and 360
D
270 rpm and 339
Question 53Single Answer
A hydraulic turbine develops 8000 kW when running at 300 rpm under a head of 45 m. the speed of the same turbine under a head of 60m is
A
224.4 rpm
B
346.4 rpm
C
424.8 rpm
D
485.8 rpm
Question 54Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on the buckets with ‘pressure energy’.
3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 55Single Answer
A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at 600 rmp. The velocity of the jet from the nozzle is 100 m/s. If the ratio of the bucket velocity of jet velocity is 0.44 and the speed ratio is 0.43, what is the coefficient of velocity of the nozzle?
A
0·817
B
0·882
C
0·913
D
0.977
Question 56Single Answer
In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the acceleration head at the beginning of the suction stroke is 3.5m. If the pump is 1.5m below the water level in the supply reservoir, the pressure head at the cylinder reservoir, the pressure head at the cylinder at that instant, considering the atmospheric pressure as 10.0m is
A
2 m (abs)
B
4 m (abs)
C
8 m (abs)
D
16 m (abs)
Question 57Single Answer
A tank is 1.8m deep and square length of 4.5m at the top and square length of 3m at the bottom. The four sides are plane and each has the same trapezoidal shape. The tank is completely full of oil weighing 936kg/m3. What is the resultant pressure on each side?
A
5750 kgf
B
5500 kgf
C
5250 kgf
D
5140 kgf
Question 58Single Answer
Over a basin of area 333 km2, there was a storm for 6 h with a uniform intensity of 2 cm/ h. The observed runoff was 20×106 m3. the average rate of infiltration for the basin was
A
5 mm/h
B
10 mm/h
C
20 mm/h
D
40 mm/h
Question 59Single Answer
International Traffic Intelligent Survey Data are related with
A
Origin and destination studies
B
Speed and delay studies
C
Classified traffic volume studies
D
Accident profiling studies
Question 60Single Answer
A peak flow of a flood hydrograph due to a six-hour storm is 470m3/s. The corresponding average depth of rainfall is 8 cm. Assume an infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant base flow of 15m3/s. What is the peak discharge of 6 hour unit hydrograph for this catchment?
A
60 m3/s
B
70 m3/s
C
80 m3/s
D
90 m3/s
Question 61Single Answer
A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm3 and its catchment area is 400 km2. The annual sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha. m/ km2 and the trap efficiency can be assumed constant at 90%. The number of years it takes for the reservoir to lose 50% of its initial capacity is, nearly
A
177 years
B
77 years
C
17 years
D
7 years
Question 62Single Answer
Cavitation is likely to occur if
1. Pressure becomes very high
2. Temperature becomes low
3. Pressure at the specific points falls below vapour pressure
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high intensity wave due to noise and vibration of the machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct as regards aquifer characteristics?
1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water released from storage from the entire aquifer due to unit depression of peizometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the specific yield for water table aquifer.
3. Both the aquifer constants, viz. storage coefficient S and Transmissivity T are dimensionless numbers.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 64Single Answer
The conditions to be satisfied for a channel in ‘Regime’ as per Lacey are
1. Constant discharge
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant 3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent alluvium of the same alluvial character as that transported.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 65Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to uplift pressure in gravity dams:
1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the gallery.
2. A drainage gallery below upstream water level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level.
3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on the gravity dam whatever the upstream water level. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 66Single Answer
A 20 m long horizontal concrete floor under a barrage on a permeable foundation retains a 5m head of water and has a 5 m deep downstream end pile. The exit gradient is
A
1 in 4
B
1 in 5
C
1 in 6
D
1 in 8
Question 67Single Answer
Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as:
The value of EC will
A
Decrease with increase in TDS
B
Increase with increase in TDS
C
Decrease initially and then increase with increase in TDS
D
Increase initially and then decrease with increase in TDS
Question 68Single Answer
Consider the following properties of fluorine:
1. It is a member of the halogen family
2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas
3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and Helium are members of the halogen family.
4. Even fireproof of asbestos burns in the ambience of fluorine.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 69Single Answer
The following are certain operating problems of a rapid sand filter:
1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more than 10 cm.
2. Air binding results due to development of negative head and formation of air bubbles in the filter sand.
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to incrustation of sand.
4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to negative head.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 70Single Answer
Consider the following characteristics of E.Coli bacteria:
1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming
3. Facultative anaerobic
4. Bacillus
Which of the above are correct?:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 71Single Answer
How much bleaching powder is needed to chlorinate 5000l of water whose chlorine demand is 2 mg/l, assuming that the bleaching powder has 25% available chlorine?
A
4 g
B
40 g
C
140 g
D
400 g
Question 72Single Answer
Which technique of stabilization for the sub-base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
A
cement stabilization
B
mechanical stabilization
C
lime stabilization
D
bitumen stabilization
Question 73Single Answer
A fill having volume of 150000 m3 is to be constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow pit solid has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of soil required to be excavated from the borrow pit will be
A
150000 m3
B
200000 m3
C
250000 m3
D
300000 m3
Question 74Single Answer
Consider the following assumptions as regards field permeability test:
1. The flow is laminar and Darcy’s law is valid.
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all the points in the vertical section.
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the ‘tangent magnitude’ of the hydraulic gradient.
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 75Single Answer
In a three-layered soil system, the thicknesses of the top and bottom layers each are half the thickness of the middle layer. The coefficients of permeability of the top and bottom layers each are double the coefficient of permeability k of the middle layer. When horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability of the system will be
A
1.5 k
B
3.0 k
C
4.5 k
D
6.0 k
Question 76Single Answer
A uniform collapsible sand stratum, 2.5 m thick, has specific gravity of its sand as 2.65, with a natural void ratio of 0.65. The hydraulic head required to cause quick collapsible sand condition is
A
2.50 m
B
2.75 m
C
3.25 m
D
3.50 m
Question 77Single Answer
The ratio of dry unit weight to unit weight of water represents
A
Specific gravity of soil solids
B
Specific gravity of soil mass
C
Specific gravity of dry soil
D
Shrinkage ratio
Question 78Single Answer
Proctor’s compaction test for the maximum dry density of a certain soil gave the results as: 1.77 gm/cc and OMC 14.44%. The specific gravity of the clay soil grain was 2.66. What was the saturation degree for this soil?
A
44%
B
55%
C
66%
D
77%
Question 79Single Answer
What is Highway Engineering ?
A
Highway Engineering is a specialized field of Civil Engineering
B
Highway Engineering is a specialized field of Concrete Technology
C
Highway Engineering is a specialized field of Transportation Engineering
D
None of the mentioned
Question 80Single Answer
In a certain sea shore, the height of a retaining wall with smooth vertical back is 4.4 m. The foundation is over an expansive collapsible soil and has horizontal surface at the level of the top of the wall and carries a udl of 197 kPa. The unit weight and angle of internal friction are 19 kN/m3 and 30°, respectively. What is the nearest magnitude of the total active pressure per metre length of this sea shore wall?
A
270 kN/m
B
360 kN/m
C
450 kN/m
D
640 kN/m
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following statements are rightly associated with the laws of weights in the theory of errors?
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight, then the weight of the resulting equation is equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the original equation.
2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or more quantities is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the individual weights.
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied with a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by dividing the original weight by the square root of that factor.
4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by multiplying the original weight by the square of that factor.
A
2 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 4
D
1 and 3
Question 82Single Answer
The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle mensuration basis) is 55° 30’ East. The true magnetic bearing of the line will be.
A
61° 00’
B
55° 30’
C
40° 00’
D
50° 00’
Question 83Single Answer
In any closed traverse, if the survey work is error free, then
1. The algebraic sum of all the latitudes should be equal to zero.
2. The algebraic sum of all the departures should be equal to zero.
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to the sum of the southings.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 84Single Answer
The rise and fall method for obtaining the reduced levels of points provides a check on
1. Foresight
2. Backsight
3. Intermediate sight
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 85Single Answer
Turning of the theodolite telescope in vertical plane by 180° about the horizontal axis is known as
A
Setting
B
Centering
C
Transiting
D
Swinging
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following are among the fundamental lines of a theodolite?
1. The vertical and horizontal axes
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate levels.
3. The bubble line of the altitude level
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 87Single Answer
The velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given by where u is the velocity at adistance of y from the boundary and = U at y = 𝛿, being boundary layer thickness. Then the value of momentum thickness will be
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 88Single Answer
The standard plasticity chart by Casagrande to classify fine-grained soils is shown in the figure.
The area marked P represents.
A
Inorganic clays of high plasticity
B
Organic clays and highly plastic organic silts
C
Organic and inorganic silts and silt-clays
D
Clays
Question 89Single Answer
A collapsible soil sub-grade sample was tested using Standard California Bearing Ratio apparatus; and the observations are given below
Sl.No.
Load
Penetration
1.
2.
60.55 kg
80.55 kg
2.5 mm
5.0 mm
Taking the standard assumption regarding the load penetration curve, CBR value of the sample will be taken as
A
3.9%
B
4.0%
C
4.4%
D
5.5%
Question 90Single Answer
A fluid flow is described by a velocity field . What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at the point (2,2,1)?
A
B
C
D
Question 91Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 92Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 93Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia
Question 94Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 95Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 98Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 100Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00
Question 101Single Answer
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 104Single Answer
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A
Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B
Pith and Heart Wood
C
Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D
Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Question 108Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A
Vertical displacements in a structure
B
Rotational displacements in a structure
C
System of forces in equilibrium
D
Stress-strain behavior of a material
Question 110Single Answer
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
A
2.5 and 2.5
B
2.5 and 5
C
5 and 1.67
D
6 and 2.50
Question 111Single Answer
The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is
A
70 N/mm2
B
105 N/mm2
C
140 N/mm2
D
210 N/mm2
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 113Single Answer
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
A
16.7 MPa
B
66.7 MPa
C
136.7 MPa
D
150.0 MPa
Question 114Single Answer
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A
120 mm
B
100 mm
C
80 mm
D
60 mm
Question 115Single Answer
In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 116Single Answer
A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of 200 m/minute, which can increase by 25% when the load is removed/deposited. Generally, it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?
A
157 seconds
B
161 seconds
C
173 seconds
D
182 seconds
Question 117Single Answer
The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column is to
A
Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
B
Facilitate compaction of concrete
C
Increase the load carrying capacity of the column
D
Facilitate construction
Question 118Single Answer
When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal thrust at the support will
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Remain same
D
Increase or decrease depending on the span
Question 119Single Answer
In the slope-deflection equations, deformations are considered to be caused by
A
Shear forces and bending moments only
B
Axial forces, shear forces and bending moments
C
Axial forces and bending moments only
D
Bending moments only
Question 120Single Answer
The maximum bending moment caused by a set of concentrated moving loads is
A
Always at the midpoint of span
B
Between the midpoint and concentrated load next to the midpoint of the span
C
Not definable
D
Always under a load close to the centroid of the set of loads
Question 121Single Answer
Force method of analysis of a structure is particularly preferred when
1. The degrees of freedom of the structure become large
2. The structure has less number of static, and more number of kinematic, indeterminacies
3. The structure has more numbers of static, and less numbers of kinematic, indeterminacies
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 122Single Answer
Stiffness matrix method is the category of
1. Compatibility method
2. Displacement method
3. Force method
4. Equilibrium method
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence lines is applicable to
1. Statically determinate beams and frame
2. Statically indeterminate structures, the material of which is elastic, and follows Hooke’s law.
3. Any statically indeterminate structure
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 124Single Answer
The plastic neutral axis
1. Divides the given section into two equal halves
2. Divides the given section into two unequal parts
3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
The plastic moment capacity MP is
A
Less than the yield moment
B
Equal to the yield moment
C
Greater than the yield moment
D
Dependent on section dimensions
Question 126Single Answer
Web crippling is caused by
A
Excessive bending moment
B
Failure of web under point loads
C
Width of flanges
D
Column action of web
Question 127Single Answer
The block shear failure of a bolted joint in tension occurs because of
1. Use of higher shear strength bolts
2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neithter 1 nor 2
Question 128Single Answer
As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in bolted joints of tension members is nominally
A
12 times the thickness of the plate
B
12 times the diameter of the bolt
C
16 times the thickness of the plate
D
16 times the diameter of the bolt
Question 129Single Answer
ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been used as a column in a industrial shed. Along the minor axis, the the column has restraints in the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective length factor along major and minor axes are 1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column height will be
A
1.0 m
B
2.4 m
C
4.0 m
D
4.8 m
Question 130Single Answer
As per IS 800 – 2007, the permitted slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case of hangers shall be
A
140
B
145
C
150
D
160
Question 131Single Answer
A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending. Load has been gradually increased when the top fibre has obtained five times the strain at the first yield. What depth of the beam will still respond by elastic conditions?
A
0.16 d
B
0.20 d
C
0.25 d
D
0.40
Question 132Single Answer
The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel section is usually
A
Equal to the plastic moment capacity
B
More than the yield moment capacity
C
Let than the yield moment capacity
D
More than the plastic moment capacity
Question 133Single Answer
The portal bracing in a truss-bridge is used to
A
Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
B
Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
C
Stiffen the structure laterally
D
Prevent the buckling of top chord under side sway
Question 134Single Answer
Consider the following cases in the design of reinforced concrete members in flexure:
1. Over-reinforced section
2. Tension failure
3. Compression failure
4. Under-reinforced section
Which of the above cases are considered for safe design of R.C members in flexure?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 135Single Answer
The bond between steel and concrete is mainly due to
1. Mechanical resistance
2. Pure adhesive resistance
3. Frictional resistance
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 136Single Answer
The carbonation process is demonstrated more by
A
Atmospheric corrosion
B
Chloride corrosion
C
Stress corrosion
D
Hydrogen embrittlement
Question 137Single Answer
When a sprially reinforced short column is loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is subjected to
A
Bending and compression
B
Biaxial compression
C
Triaxial compression
D
Uniaxial compression
Question 138Single Answer
In a reinforced concrete section, shear stress distribution is diagrammatically
A
Wholly Parabolic
B
Wholly Rectangular
C
Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below NA
D
Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below NA
Question 139Single Answer
As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible shear stress, TCmax' is based on
A
Diagonal tension failure
B
Diagonal compression failure
C
Flexural tension failure
D
Flexural compression failure
Question 140Single Answer
Footings shall be designed to sustain the
1. Applied loads
2. Moments and forces under relatable loading conditions
3. Induced reactions
A
1and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 141Single Answer
Reinforced concrete slabs are designed for
1. Shear
2. Flexure
3. Positive bending moment
4. Negative bending moment
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 142Single Answer
As compared to the working stress method of design, the limit state method of design premises that the concrete can admit
A
A lower stress level
B
A higher stress level
C
Occasionally higher, but usually lower, stress level
D
Only the same stress level
Question 143Single Answer
The bending stress in a T-beam section is maximum
1. At top fibre
2. At centroidal fibre
3. At bottom fibre
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
At a level which is dependent on the loading condition.
Question 144Single Answer
If the loading on a simply supported prestressed concrete beam is uniformly distributed, the centriod fo the pre-stressing tendon should be as
A
A straight profile along the lower edge of the kern
B
A parabolic profile with convexity downward
C
A straight profile along the centroidal axis
D
A circular profile with convexity upward
Question 145Single Answer
In a post-tension pre-stressed concrete beam, the end block zone is in between the end of the beam and the section where
A
The shear stresses are maximum
B
Only shear stresses exist
C
No lateral stresses exist
D
Only longitudinal stresses exist
Question 146Single Answer
In the pre-tensioning method
1. Tension in concrete is induced directly by external force
2. Tension is induced in the tendons before concreting
3. Concrete continues to be in tension after pre-stressing
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 147Single Answer
Flexural collapse in over-reinforced beams is due to
A
Primary compression failure
B
Secondary compression failure
C
Primary tension failure
D
Bond failure
Question 148Single Answer
If a beam is likely to fail due to high bonding stresses, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by
A
Providing vertical stirrups
B
Increasing the depth of the beam
C
Using smaller diameter bars in correspondingly more numbers
D
Using higher diameter bars by reducing their numbers
Question 149Single Answer
A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 25 cm, speed of 135 rpm, and a piston of 30 cm diameter. If its slip has been estimated as 4% at a particular operating condition, what isthe corresponding realized discharge through a height of 14 m?
A
33.2 lps
B
35.6 lps
C
37.0 lps
D
38.2 lps
Question 150Single Answer
In the design of pre-stressed concrete structures, which of the following limit states will qualilfy as the limit states of serviceability?
1. Flexural 2. Shear
3. Deflection 4. Cracking