Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 18Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 21Single Answer
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement
Question 22Single Answer
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A
Adolescent girls
B
physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections
Question 23Single Answer
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka
Question 24Single Answer
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the Village of
A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District
Question 25Single Answer
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank
Question 26Single Answer
Who construted the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnis
Question 27Single Answer
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad?
A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Question 29Single Answer
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Question 30Single Answer
Who was the incharge of 'port - Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A
Ain-Ul-Mulk
B
Shah-Bandhar
C
Dabir
D
Kotwal
Question 31Single Answer
For the maintenace of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A
Aurangabad
B
Warangal
C
Mahaboobnagar
D
Berar
Question 32Single Answer
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad?
A
Salarjung - I
B
Salarjung - II
C
Salarjung - III
D
Osman Ali Khan
Question 33Single Answer
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) In Telangana State?
A
Nalgonda
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam
Question 34Single Answer
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Adilabad
D
Warangal
Question 35Single Answer
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A
227 persons per sq. Km.
B
307 persons per sq. Km.
C
325 persons per sq. Km.
D
350 persons per sq. Km.
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A
Nalgonda
B
Nizamabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Warangal
Question 37Single Answer
Second largest district in Telangana State, area - wise is
A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Khammam
Question 38Single Answer
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Cesus is
A
Adilabad
B
Nalgonda
C
Mahaboobnagar.
D
Medak
Question 39Single Answer
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A
Khammam
B
Karimnagar
C
Nizamabad
D
Warangal
Question 40Single Answer
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Warangal
D
Adilabad
Question 41Single Answer
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A
Ellanna
B
Mallanna
C
Rajanna
D
Beeranna
Question 42Single Answer
Name the Village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A
Bellampalli .
B
Bhupalpalli
C
Yellandu
D
Ramagundam
Question 43Single Answer
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A
Sharad Pawar
B
Mir Osman Ali Khan
C
Azam Khan
D
N.T. Rama Rao
Question 44Single Answer
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A
6.
B
7
C
8
D
9.
Question 45Single Answer
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Hanmakonda
C
Medak
D
Karimnagar
Question 46Single Answer
The Dandora Movement was launched for the purpose of
A
Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes
B
Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes
C
Sub-classification of the most Backward classes
D
Abolition of Caste based reservation
Question 47Single Answer
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A
Warangal
B
Khammam
C
Nalgonda
D
Nizamabad.
Question 48Single Answer
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A
Karimnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Khammam
D
Medak
Question 49Single Answer
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A
Karimnagar
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam
Question 50Single Answer
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A
The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed stuggle.
B
The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement.
C
The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt.
D
The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement.
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General Studies and General Abilities
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 53Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 55Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 60Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 61Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 64Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 65Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 66Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 69Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 71Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 74Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 76Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 77Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 78Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 79Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 80Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 81Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 82Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 84Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 85Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 86Single Answer
What are the steps necessary for sustainable management of renewable resources?
A
Avoiding over-exploitation and pollution of biotic systems.
B
Strengthening the resource base and augmentingregenerability of biotic systems .
C
Use of alternative resources .
D
All of these
Question 87Single Answer
Fluxes of heat ,water vapour and momentum are constant in
A
upper atmosphere
B
middle atmosphere
C
Ekman layer
D
surface boundary layer
Question 88Single Answer
Inversions occur when atmosphere is
A
unstable
B
neutral
C
Slightly stable
D
most stable
Question 89Single Answer
When one species limits access of another species to a resource regardless of whether the resource is abundant or scarce ,it is called
A
interspecific competition
B
interspecific competition
C
intraspecific competition
D
exploitative competition
Question 90Single Answer
Nanda Devi Sunderbans are examples of Indian
A
National parks
B
Sanctuaries
C
International heritage areas
D
Biosphere reserves
Question 91Single Answer
Match the List –I and List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below the lists: List –I List-II (Analytical techniques) (Measured items )
a. XRF 1. Functional groups
b. Nephelometry 2. Elements
c. IR spectroscopy 3. Turbidity
d. UV- visible spectroscopy 4. Aromatics
codes
A
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4 2 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
3 2 4 1
D
2 3 1 4
Question 92Single Answer
The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCI is
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
1
Question 93Single Answer
The primitive atmosphere of earth consisted of
A
CO2’ NO2’ NH3’ SO2
B
H2’ NH3’ CH4’ H2O
C
CO’ N2O3’ SO3’ H3N
D
He, Ne,Ar, Kr
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is the major source of mercury pollution in India ?
A
Coal based thermal power plants
B
Pesticides
C
Dental amalgam fillings
D
Electrical and electronic gadgets
Question 95Single Answer
Nitrite causes methaemoglobinemia by
A
oxidizing membrane proteins by
B
reacting with calcium of bones
C
oxidizing haemoglobin
D
oxidizing membrane lipids
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 101Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 102Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 103Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 104Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 105Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 106Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 107Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 108Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 109Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 110Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 111Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 112Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 113Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 114Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 115Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 116Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 117Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 118Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 119Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 120Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 121Single Answer
Which Indian state saw clashes between Aboriginal community and police in Alice Springs (international news context)?
A
Canada
B
New Zealand
C
Australia
D
South Africa
Question 122Single Answer
Which country is leading in renewable energy expansion in 2026?
A
USA
B
India
C
China
D
Germany
Question 123Single Answer
Which organization issues heatwave warnings in India?
A
IMD
B
DRDO
C
ISRO
D
BARC
Question 124Single Answer
Which Indian state recently focused on heatwave preparedness in May 2026?
A
Kerala
B
Assam
C
Punjab
D
Rajasthan
Question 125Single Answer
Which organization promotes workers’ rights globally?
A
ILO
B
IMF
C
WHO
D
WTO
Question 126Single Answer
Which day is observed globally on 1 May?
A
World Health Day
B
Earth Day
C
International Workers’ Day
D
Labour Safety Day
Question 127Single Answer
RBI's April 2026 policy projected CPI inflation for FY27 at:
A
4.0%
B
3.8%
C
5.5%
D
4.6%
Question 128Single Answer
What global event involving Iran was a dominant theme in economic and geopolitical news in April-May 2026?
A
Peace treaty with Israel
B
Ongoing war impacting oil prices and Strait of Hormuz
C
Joining NATO
D
Nuclear disarmament
Question 129Single Answer
On 1 May 2026, school assembly news headlines prominently featured:
A
Only sports news
B
Election results
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact, Prerna 2.0, GSAT-32, and Sensex volatility
D
Budget announcements
Question 130Single Answer
The government announced focus on connecting Poonch-Rajouri with:
A
National Highway
B
Inland waterway
C
Airport
D
Rail network
Question 131Single Answer
On 1 May 2026, rain and thunderstorms were reported to have cooled which region of India?
A
Southern India
B
North India (while heatwave persisted elsewhere)
C
Eastern India
D
Western Ghats
Question 132Single Answer
Ethanol blending-related amendments to Central Motor Vehicles Rules in 2026 include:
A
Only E20
B
E85, E100, and B100 biodiesel
C
Electric vehicles only
D
CNG mandates
Question 133Single Answer
What is the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 related to?
A
Defence procurement
B
Urban development
C
Performance assessment of over 2.5 lakh panchayats
D
Export promotion
Question 134Single Answer
Rajya Sabha passed the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill in early April 2026 to:
A
Merge forces
B
Increase salaries
C
Reduce recruitment age
D
Create a unified legal framework for CAPF personnel
Question 135Single Answer
US President Donald Trump commented on considering exiting NATO, calling it a:
A
Paper tiger
B
Strong alliance
C
Economic burden
D
Peacekeeper
Question 136Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A
Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B
Purchase of Rafale jets
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D
Signing of a nuclear agreement
Question 137Single Answer
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
A
Oil prices hitting four-year high
B
Record low oil prices
C
Increased Indian exports
D
Rupee appreciation
Question 138Single Answer
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
A
Only Mumbai office
B
SEBI
C
7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
D
Ministry of Finance
Question 139Single Answer
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
A
Complete deregulation
B
Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
C
Merger with banks
D
Ban on new NBFCs
Question 140Single Answer
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
A
Delhi and Mumbai
B
Jammu and Srinagar
C
Chennai and Bengaluru
D
Kolkata and Guwahati
Question 141Single Answer
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
A
Winter Olympics
B
FIFA World Cup 2026
C
Asian Games
D
Commonwealth Games
Question 142Single Answer
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A
Germany
B
South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C
USA
D
Australia
Question 143Single Answer
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A
Swachh Bharat
B
Namami Gange
C
Digital India
D
Gyan Bharatam Mission
Question 144Single Answer
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A
6.5%
B
6.0%
C
4.75%
D
5.25%
Question 145Single Answer
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A
Pilot shortage
B
High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C
New DGCA regulations
D
Airport congestion
Question 146Single Answer
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A
Bengaluru, Karnataka
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Chennai
Question 147Single Answer
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A
At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B
8
C
25
D
12
Question 148Single Answer
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A
1 May 2026
B
1 January 2026
C
1 July 2026
D
31 December 2026
Question 149Single Answer
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A
A new defence missile system
B
Green hydrogen mission
C
AI Tutoring initiative
D
Digital payment platform
Question 150Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
