A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 4Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 5Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 6Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 7Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 8Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 9Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 10Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 11Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 12Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 13Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 14Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 15Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 16Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 17Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 18Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle
Question 23Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Question 24Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q
Question 25Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 26Single Answer
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance
Question 27Single Answer
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Question 29Single Answer
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces
Question 30Single Answer
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Question 31Single Answer
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re
Question 32Single Answer
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency
Question 33Single Answer
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above
Question 34Single Answer
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available
Question 35Single Answer
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Question 36Single Answer
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m
Question 37Single Answer
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Question 38Single Answer
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Question 39Single Answer
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above
Question 40Single Answer
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A
0.10 N/m2
B
0.5 N/m2
C
1.0 N/m2
D
0.15 N/m2
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the above statements is correct?
A
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C
For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D
For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
Question 42Single Answer
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K
Question 43Single Answer
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
A
Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B
Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C
Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D
Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
A
Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B
The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C
Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D
All of the above
Question 45Single Answer
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 46Single Answer
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is
A
100m/s
B
200m/s
C
300m/s
D
350m/s
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 48Single Answer
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
A
33.33%
B
40%
C
66.66%
D
90%
Question 49Single Answer
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
A
1
2
B
1
C
2
D
4
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
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Mechanical
Question 51Single Answer
In a differential manometer a head of 0.6m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
2
B
0.5
C
0.3
D
0.18
Question 52Single Answer
At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be
A
minimum
B
maximum
C
point of inflection
D
neither minimum nor maximum
Question 53Single Answer
The center of pressure of a plane submerged surface
A
Is a point on the submerged area at which the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed to act
B
Should always coincide within the center of submerged area
C
Should be at the center of gravity of the plane surface
D
Is always below the centroid of area
Question 54Single Answer
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A
30 J/m2/s
B
60 J/m2/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s
Question 55Single Answer
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of its volume is under mercury?
A
0.5
B
0.4
C
0.515
D
Fully immersed
Question 56Single Answer
A right circular cylinder, open at the top, is filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1.2, and rotated about its vertical axis at such a speed that half of the liquid spills out. The pressure at the center of the bottom is
A
Zero
B
One-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
C
One-third its value when the cylinder was full
D
three-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
Question 57Single Answer
Consider the following statements about velocity potential:
1.Velocity potential is a vector function similar to stream function
2.It is a fully three dimensional function and not limited to two
coordinates
3.Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4.Velocity potential exists only if the flow is irrotational
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 58Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 59Single Answer
Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?
A
Chemical corrosion
B
Ionic dissolution
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Non of the above
Question 60Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 61Single Answer
In flow through a pipe, the transition from laminar to turbulent flow does not depend on
A
Density of fluid
B
Length of pipe
C
Diameter of pipe
D
Velocity of the fluid
Question 62Single Answer
A 0.20m diameter pipe 20m long transports oil at a flow rate of0.01m3/s. Calculate power required to maintain flow if dynamic viscosity and density of oil is 0.08 Pas and 900 kg/m3 respectively
A
4.064 kW
B
3.074 kW
C
5.064 kW
D
4.074 kW
Question 63Single Answer
Pressure loss for laminar flow through pipeline is dependent
A
Inversely on flow of velocity
B
Directly on square of pipe radius
C
Directly on length of pipe
D
Inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
Question 64Single Answer
Fanno line is a flow in a constant area duct
A
With friction and heat transfer but in the absence of work
B
With friction and heat transfer accompanied by work
C
With friction but in the absence of heat transfer or work
D
Without friction but accompanied by heat transfer and work
Question 65Single Answer
In an adiabatic flow with friction through a constant area duct, the following phenomenon are predicted:
1.The flow downstream tends to be sonic irrespective of the Mach-number upstream
2.In the case of initially supersonic flow, any increase in duct length beyond choked flow would make the exit flow subsonic
3.In the case of initially subsonic flow, any increase in duct length will not change sonic flow at the exit
4.The optimum pipe length for sonic outlet in supersonic flow is considerably longer than that of subsonic flow for the same flow rate
Which of these are correct?
A
1,2,3 and 4
B
1,2 and 3 only
C
1,3 and 4 only
D
2,3 and 4 only
Question 66Single Answer
In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to
A
Smoothen the flow
B
Reduce suction head
C
Increase delivery head
D
Reduce acceleration head
Question 67Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to centrifugal pumps:
1.The inlet to the impeller of a centrifugal pump is always axial, while the outlet may be radial or inclined.
2.The impeller may be shrouded on both sides with an eye at the centre and vanes curved backwards.
3.Impeller of double entry type has a balanced radial thrust.
4.Un-shrouded and part shrouded impeller are used only where high efficiency is unimportant.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1,2,3 and 4
B
1,2 and 3 only
C
1,2 and 4 only
D
2,3 and 4 only
Question 68Single Answer
A centrifugal pump is fully primed, but on starting it fails to deliver fluid. Thr probable reasons are listed below:
1.Leaky foot valve or suction line
2.Suction head is very slow
3.Insufficient motor speed
4.Damaged or closed delivery valve
Which of these reasons are correct?
A
1,2,3 and 4
B
1,2 and 3 only
C
2,3 and 4 only
D
1,3 and 4 only
Question 69Single Answer
A centrifugal pump is to discharge 0.118 m3/s at speed of 1450 rpm against a head of 25m. The impeller diameter is 25cm, its width at outlet is 5cm and manometric efficiency is 75%. The vane angle at outer periphery of impeller is
A
56.77°C
B
59.77°C
C
61.77°C
D
48.77°C
Question 70Single Answer
A turbine is working under a head of 200m. The power developed by the turbine is 100kW and discharge through the turbine is 0.125 m3/s. In such case, the ratio of unit power to unit discharge for the turbine will be
A
4000
B
16000
C
160 × 103
D
None of the above
Question 71Single Answer
Two geometrical similar pumps are running at 1000 rpm speed (both). If one pump has impeller diameter of 0.3m and discharges 20Ips against 20m head, and the other pump gives half of this discharge rate; calculate head and diameter of second pump
A
12.5m and 0.12m
B
10.5m and 0.12m
C
10.5m and 0.23m
D
12.5m and 0.23m
Question 72Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 73Single Answer
Frictional losses in the nozzle
A
Reduces the enthalpy of the fluid
B
increases the enthalpy of the fluid
C
no effect on the enthalpy of the fluid
D
None of the above
Question 74Single Answer
In a nozzle designed for maximum discharge conditions, the flow velocity in the convergent section of the nozzle is
A
Subsonic
B
Sonic
C
Supersonic
D
Depends on initial pressure and condition of the steam
Question 75Single Answer
In the centrifugal compressor, the work input is equal to the sum of
A
Pressure head, relative head and dynamic head
B
dynamic head, centrifugal head and relative head
C
Pressure head, centrifugal head and dynamic head
D
Pressure head, centrifugal head and relative head
Question 76Single Answer
For a centrifugal compressor with radial vanes, slip factor is the ratio of
A
Isentropic work to Euler work
B
Whirl velocity to the blade velocity at the impeller exit
C
Stagnation pressure to static pressure
D
Isentropic temperature rise to actual temperature rise
Question 77Single Answer
The specific speed of a centrifugal compressor is generally
A
Less than that of reciprocating compressor
B
Independent of compressor type, but depends only on size of compressor
C
Higher than that of axial compressor
D
More than specific speed of reciprocating compressor but less than axial compressor
Question 78Single Answer
In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid flow occurs at
A
Diffuser inlet radius
B
Diffuser outlet radius
C
impeller inlet radius
D
impeller outlet radius
Question 79Single Answer
The rating of the fuse wire is always expressed in
A
Ampere-hours
B
Ampere-volts
C
KWH
D
Ampere
Question 80Single Answer
In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure rise in the rotor blades to the pressure rise in the compressor in one stage is known as
A
Pressure coefficient
B
Work factor
C
Degree of reaction
D
Slip factor
Question 81Single Answer
CNC machine interpolator controls
A
spindle speed
B
feed to tool
C
motion of tools
D
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
If a row interchanged in the matrix, then the determinant of matrix is
A
magnitude remains same, sign changes
B
magnitude changes, sign remains same
C
both magnitude and sign changes
D
both magnitude and sign remains same
Question 83Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 84Single Answer
A body of mass 20kg falls freely in vacuum. It has fallen through a vertical distance of 50m. The gravitational acceleration may be assumed as 10m/s2. What is the thermodynamic work done by the body?
A
1000Nm
B
10kJ
C
zero
D
1kNm
Question 85Single Answer
A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible constant pressure process at 2bar in which 100 kJ of heat is rejected and the volume changes from 0.2m3 to 0.1m3. The change in the internal energy of the system is
A
- 100kJ
B
-80kJ
C
-60kJ
D
-40kJ
Question 86Single Answer
A Carnot engines receives 100kJ of heat at 600K. Heat is rejected at 300K. The displacement volume is 0.2 m3. The mean effective pressure is
A
2 bar
B
2.5 bar
C
3 bar
D
3.5 bar
Question 87Single Answer
The ratio of static enthalpy rise in the rotor to the static enthalpy rise in the stage of an axial flow compressor is defined as:
A
Power input factor
B
Flow coefficient
C
Temperature coefficient
D
Degree of reaction
Question 88Single Answer
The eigen values of a symmetric matrix are all
A
complex with non-zero position imaginary part
B
complex with non-zero negative imaginary part
C
real
D
pure imaginary
Question 89Single Answer
During a thermodynamic process, 100kJ of heat is transferred from a reservoir at 800K to a sink at 400K. The ambient temperature is 300K. the loss of available energy is
A
27.5 kJ
B
32.5 kJ
C
37.5 kJ
D
62.5 kJ
Question 90Single Answer
The vapor pressure of a liquid at any arbitrary temperature can be estimated approximately with the help of
A
Gibbs equation
B
Joule-Kelvin equation
C
Clausius-Clapeyron equation
D
Gibbs-Duhem equation
Question 91Single Answer
In order to determine the quality of wet steam by a separating and throttling calorimeter, the steam should be first separated and then throttled such that the final state is
A
Saturated vapor only
B
Superheated vapor only
C
At a pressure higher than the original pressure
D
A mixture of saturated liquid and vapor
Question 92Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which *leaves the shaft balanced statically. The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and –300 N
D
300 N and –300 N
Question 93Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 94Single Answer
The tendency of detonation is high in engines of larger cylinder diameter because of
A
Higher intake pressure in larger cylinder
B
Higher fuel/air ration in larger cylinder
C
Flame having to travel longer distance in larger cylinder
D
Sparks are advanced more in larger cylinder
Question 95Single Answer
An open cycle pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 40,000 kJ/kg with airfuel ratio of 80 : 1 and develops a net output of 80kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
A
12%
B
16%
C
20%
D
18%
E
25 %
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding cycles:
1.Stirling cycle consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes.
2.In vapor compression cycle, the refrigerant is in form of dry saturated vapor before entering compressor.
3.Diesel cycle consists of one constant pressure; one constant volume and two isentropic processes
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 97Single Answer
The efficiency of vapor power Rankine cycle can be increased by
1 .Increasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is added
2.Increasing the pressure of the working fluid at which heat is added
3.Decreasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is rejected
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 98Single Answer
The velocity of a gas flowing through a duct is 300 m/s; its temperature is 127°C; Gas constant R = 0.25 kJ/kg K, the ratio of specific heat is Cp/CV = 𝛾 = 1.6. What is the value of Mach number?
A
0.70
B
0.72
C
0.75
D
0.77
Question 99Single Answer
When a system is taken from state ‘x’ to state ‘y’, 30kJ of heat flows into the system and the system does 10kJ of work. When the system is returned from ‘y’ to ‘x’ along another path, work done on the system is 8kJ. What is the amount of heat liberated or absorbed?
A
12 kJ of heat liberated
B
28 kJ of heat liberated
C
12 kJ of heat absorbed
D
28 kJ of heat absorbed
Question 100Single Answer
The values of heat transfer and work transfer for the processes of a thermodynamic cycle are given below:
Process Heat transfer Worktransfer
(kJ) (kJ)
1 300 300
2 0 250
3 -100 -100
4 0 -250
The thermal efficiency of the cycle and the work ratio will be respectively
A
33% and 0.66
B
66% and 0.36
C
36% and 0.66
D
33% and 0.36
Question 101Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 103Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 104Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 105Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 106Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 107Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 108Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 109Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 110Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 111Single Answer
A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is
A
20.3 kW
B
15.4 kW
C
12.4 kW
D
10.8 kW
Question 112Single Answer
An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of this pressure drop due to friction, given that Rgas= 0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?
A
42.62 kW
B
40.26 kW
C
38.14 kW
D
35.13 kW
Question 113Single Answer
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A
30 J/m2/s
B
60 J/m2/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s
Question 114Single Answer
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K
Question 115Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 116Single Answer
Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be reduced by
1. retarding the spark
2. supercharging
3. increasing the engine speed
4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A
1 and 4
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 117Single Answer
A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the indicated thermal efficiency was nearly
A
29%
B
26%
C
31%
D
23%
Question 118Single Answer
In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A
90%
B
80%
C
52.5%
D
45.5%
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements for refrigeration and air-conditioning:
1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to the surroundings, the larger the power consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 120Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements: The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor can be improved by
1. decreasing the clearance volume
2. cooling the intake air
3. heating the intake air
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 2
D
1 and 3
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
The presence of air inside condensers
1. remains as a non-condensable gas
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
3. tends to cling to the surface
4. introduces large thermal resistance
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
The refrigeration system of an ice plant working between temperatures of –5°C and 25°C produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at 20°C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant is
A
9040 kJ/min
B
8750 kJ/min
C
8380 kJ/min
D
8010 kJ/min
Question 124Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of a vapour-absorption refrigeration cycle :
1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally used when waste heat is available from an existing source or when free energy like solar energy is to be used.
2. There are no moving parts in the absorption refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.
3. The value of the coefficient of performance is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption and vapour- compression refrigeration plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the saturation pressure of water vapour at 30°C as 4.246 kPa, the relative humidity of the air will be
A
66.1%
B
60.2%
C
58.8%
D
56.8%
Question 126Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of an evaporative cooling process :
1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.
2. The dew-point temperature remains constant.
3. The enthalpy remains constant.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp under unit heat at its maximum efficiency.
2. The specific speed is a dimensionless parameter used for the selection of turbines.
3.The function of guide vanes in reaction turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the fluid onto the runner blades.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 128Single Answer
A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125m3/sof water from a well with a static lift of 30 m. If the brake power of the driving electric motor is 5 kW, what is the overall efficiency of the pump-set?
A
57.6%
B
63.9%
C
65.3%
D
73.6%
Question 129Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of ideal and practical gas turbine cycles:
1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency depends on the pressure ratio only.
2. In the practical cycle case (with irreversibilities in the compression and expansion processes), The cycle efficiency depends on the maximum temperature as well as on the pressure ratio.
3. In the practical cycle case, at a given maximum temperature, the maximum efficiency and the maximum work done occur at a same pressure ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 130Single Answer
A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0.51 m. At a certain point of the issuing jet, the horizontal and vertical coordinates measured from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085 m, respectively. What is the value of the coefficient of velocity?
A
0.975
B
0.925
C
0.875
D
0.825
Question 131Single Answer
Consider the following statements for single stage reciprocating compressors :
1. Isothermal process is the most desirable process for compression.
2. The size of clearance volume provided in the compressor has no effect on work done per kg of air delivered.
3. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor decreases with increasing pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 132Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of regenerative Rankine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the cycle.
2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given output.
3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 133Single Answer
Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was at a temperature of 200°C and a pressure of 5 bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas is
A
250kN/m2
B
300kN/m2
C
350kN/m2
D
400kN/m2
Question 134Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the overall heat transfer coefficient.
2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the velocity of flow of water in the tube.
3. The difference between the temperature of steam entering the condenser and the inlet water temperature should be maximum for maximum efficiency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 135Single Answer
The total power developed by a three stage velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is 900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in the first and the second stages are, respectively
A
500 kW and 300 kW
B
100 kW and 300 kW
C
500 kW and 100 kW
D
100 kW and 100 kW
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of natural-draft cooling towers :
1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced air flow.
2. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or more in height.
3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about the vertical axis-affording improved strength rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above the ground is taken as the rated velocity for design of windmills.
2. The total power of a wind stream is directly proportional to the cube of average velocity.
3. Wind turbine operates with variable load over a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out velocities.
4. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind directions, but it needs yaw adjustment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 4
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 3
Question 138Single Answer
Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft applications?
A
Direct methanol fuel cell
B
Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
C
Alkaline fuel cell
D
Phosphoric acid fuel cell
Question 139Single Answer
A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to 1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. The number of revolutions made thereby is nearly :
A
200
B
100
C
50
D
20
Question 140Single Answer
Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass, respectively are pressed on the two ends of a spring, all pre-placed on a smooth surface. When released, the smaller ball moves with an acceleration of 2m/s2.The simultaneous acceleration of the bigger ball will be :
A
0.5 m/s2
B
1m/s2
C
2 m/s2
D
4 m/s2
Question 141Single Answer
A bullet of mass 0.03 kg moving with a speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block of wood. The average force exerted by the wood on the bullet will be:
A
30 kN
B
20 kN
C
15 kN
D
10 kN
Question 142Single Answer
In the design of beams for a given strength, consider that the conditions of economy of use of the material would avail as follows:
1.Rectangular cross-section is more economical than square section area of the beam.
2. Circular section is more economical than square section.
3. I-section is more economical than a rectangular section of the same depth.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 143Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
The strain produced per unit volume is called resilience.
B
The maximum strain produced per unit volume is called proof resilience.
C
The least strain energy stored in a unit volume is called proof resilience.
D
The greatest strain energy stores in a unit volume of a material without permanent deformation is called proof resilience.
Question 144Single Answer
A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide × 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span of 12 m. It is acted upon by a concentrated load of 80 kN at the midspan. The maximum bending stress induced is:
A
400 MPa
B
300 MPa
C
200 MPa
D
100 MPa
Question 145Single Answer
A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends, carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If the same load be, alternatively, uniformly distributed over the full length of the bar, the maximum deflection of the bar will decrease by
A
25.5%
B
31.5%
C
37.5%
D
50.0%
Question 146Single Answer
A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin spherical pressure vessel have the same mean radius, same wall thickness and are subjected to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to sphere) will be in the ratio
A
1 : 2
B
1: 1
C
2 : 1
D
4 : 1
Question 147Single Answer
A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90 seconds. When the same escalator moves, he is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time would it take him to walk up the moving escalator?
A
48 seconds
B
36 seconds
C
30 seconds
D
24 seconds
Question 148Single Answer
On completion of heat treatment, the austenite structure would be retained if:
A
the rate of cooling is greater than the critical cooling rate
B
the rate of cooling is less than the critical cooling rate
C
the initiating temperature of martensite formation is above the room temperature
D
the finishing temperature of martensite formation is below the room temperature
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both equilibrium diagrams.
B
Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non-equilibrium diagrams.
C
Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram
D
Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium diagram.
Question 150Single Answer
The correct order of increasing resistivity among the following materials is :
A
nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure silica
B
doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate
C
Nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped silicon
D
Sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped silicon