Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 13Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 15Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 16Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 18Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 20Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 23Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 26Single Answer
What are the steps necessary for sustainable management of renewable resources?
A
Avoiding over-exploitation and pollution of biotic systems.
B
Strengthening the resource base and augmentingregenerability of biotic systems .
C
Use of alternative resources .
D
All of these
Question 27Single Answer
Fluxes of heat ,water vapour and momentum are constant in
A
upper atmosphere
B
middle atmosphere
C
Ekman layer
D
surface boundary layer
Question 28Single Answer
Inversions occur when atmosphere is
A
unstable
B
neutral
C
Slightly stable
D
most stable
Question 29Single Answer
When one species limits access of another species to a resource regardless of whether the resource is abundant or scarce ,it is called
A
interspecific competition
B
interspecific competition
C
intraspecific competition
D
exploitative competition
Question 30Single Answer
Nanda Devi Sunderbans are examples of Indian
A
National parks
B
Sanctuaries
C
International heritage areas
D
Biosphere reserves
Question 31Single Answer
Match the List –I and List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below the lists: List –I List-II (Analytical techniques) (Measured items )
a. XRF 1. Functional groups
b. Nephelometry 2. Elements
c. IR spectroscopy 3. Turbidity
d. UV- visible spectroscopy 4. Aromatics
codes
A
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4 2 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
3 2 4 1
D
2 3 1 4
Question 32Single Answer
The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCI is
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
1
Question 33Single Answer
The primitive atmosphere of earth consisted of
A
CO2’ NO2’ NH3’ SO2
B
H2’ NH3’ CH4’ H2O
C
CO’ N2O3’ SO3’ H3N
D
He, Ne,Ar, Kr
Question 34Single Answer
Which of the following is the major source of mercury pollution in India ?
A
Coal based thermal power plants
B
Pesticides
C
Dental amalgam fillings
D
Electrical and electronic gadgets
Question 35Single Answer
Nitrite causes methaemoglobinemia by
A
oxidizing membrane proteins by
B
reacting with calcium of bones
C
oxidizing haemoglobin
D
oxidizing membrane lipids
Question 36Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 38Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 39Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 40Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 41Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 42Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 43Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 44Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 45Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 46Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 47Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 48Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 49Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 50Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
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General Studies and General Abilities
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 73Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 74Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 75Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 76Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 78Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 79Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 81Single Answer
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A
a Co-operative Bank
B
a Government Scheduled Bank
C
a Housing Bank
D
an Investment Bank
Question 82Single Answer
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A
Urban development
B
Rural development
C
Health improvement
D
Literacy improvement
Question 83Single Answer
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A
Adolescent girls
B
Physically challenged girls
C
Members of self help groups
D
Girls belonging to weaker sections
Question 84Single Answer
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A
Ana
B
Nizamia Ana
C
Osmania Sikka
D
Nizamia Sikka
Question 85Single Answer
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A
Kowdipally, Medak District
B
Erravalli, Medak District
C
Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D
Chevella, Rangareddy District
Question 86Single Answer
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A
Nizam State Bank
B
Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C
Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D
Hyderabad State Bank
Question 87Single Answer
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A
Hayat Bakshi Begum
B
Khanan Bakshi Begum
C
Ameena Bibi
D
Meherunnisa
Question 88Single Answer
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A
Arige Ramaswamy
B
Yathiraj
C
Bhagya Reddy Varma
D
B.S. Venkat Rao
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A
Ali Imam Committee
B
Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C
Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D
Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Question 90Single Answer
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A
Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B
Katkuri Krishna Rao
C
Pingali Venkat Rao
D
Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Question 91Single Answer
Who was the incharge of 'Port-Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A
Ain-ul-Mulk
B
Shah-Bandhar
C
Dabir
D
Kotwal
Question 92Single Answer
For the maintenance of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A
Aurangabad
B
Warangal
C
Mahaboobnagar
D
Berar
Question 93Single Answer
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad ?
A
Salarjung-I
B
Salarjung-III
C
Salarjung-II
D
Osman Ali Khan
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) in Telangana State ?
A
Nalgonda
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam
Question 95Single Answer
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A
Kumaram Bheem
B
Khammam
C
Adilabad
D
Warangal
Question 96Single Answer
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A
227 persons per sq. km.
B
306 persons per sq. km.
C
325 persons per sq. km.
D
350 persons per sq. km.
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A
Nalgonda
B
Nizamabad
C
Karimnagar
D
Warangal
Question 98Single Answer
Second largest district in Telangana State, area-wise is
A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Nalgonda
C
Karimnagar
D
Khammam
Question 99Single Answer
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Census is
A
Mahaboobnagar
B
Nalgonda
C
Adilabad
D
Medak
Question 100Single Answer
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A
Khammam
B
Karimnagar
C
Nizamabad
D
Warangal
Question 101Single Answer
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Warangal
D
Adilabad
Question 102Single Answer
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A
Ellanna
B
Mallanna
C
Rajanna
D
Beeranna
Question 103Single Answer
Name the village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A
Bellampalli
B
Bhupalpalli
C
Yellandu
D
Ramagundam
Question 104Single Answer
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A
Sharad Pawar
B
Mir Osman Ali Khan
C
Azam Khan
D
N.T. Rama Rao
Question 105Single Answer
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 106Single Answer
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Hanmakonda
C
Medak
D
Karimnagar
Question 107Single Answer
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A
Warangal
B
Khammam
C
Nalgonda
D
Nizamabad
Question 108Single Answer
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A
Karimnagar
B
Adilabad
C
Khammam
D
Medak
Question 109Single Answer
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A
Karimnagar
B
Mahaboobnagar
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam
Question 110Single Answer
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A
The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed struggle
B
The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement
C
The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt
D
The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement
Question 111Single Answer
Match the following in regard to model villages in Telangana :
(a) Gangadevipalli 1. Co-op. Bank
(b) Ankapur 2. Prohibition and Sanitation
(c) Mulkanoor 3. Internet Village
(d) Siddapur 4. Scientific Agriculture and Seed Production
Options :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 1 3
B
2 4 3 1
C
4 2 3 4
D
4 2 1 3
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT associated with the Krishna river ?
A
Nagarjuna Sagar Project
B
Srisailam Project
C
Pulichintala Project
D
Ellampally Project
Question 113Single Answer
Arrange the following from North to South of Telangana :
1. Bhongir Fort
2. Kakatiya kala Toranam
3. Rachakonda Fort
4. Ramagiri Fort
Options :
A
3, 2, 1, 4
B
4, 2, 1, 3
C
1, 2, 3, 4
D
4, 3, 2, 1
Question 114Single Answer
Match the following :
(a) Telangana Martyrs Statue 1. Byroju Venkata Ramanachary
(b) School Prayer Pledge 2. Paravastu Lokeshwar
(c) Telangana Talli 3. Paidimarri Venkata Subba Rao
(d) Salam Hyderabad 4. Dr. Ekka Yadagiri Rao
Options :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 2 1
B
4 3 1 2
C
3 4 1 2
D
3 4 2 1
Question 115Single Answer
Match the following :
(a) Perini 1. Leg Bone Soup of Hyderabad
(b) Paaya 2. A Tribal Festival
(c) Ikat 3. Dance Style
(d) Teez 4. A Dyeing Technique
Options :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 1 4 2
B
3 1 2 4
C
1 3 4 2
D
1 3 2 4
Question 116Single Answer
The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre is located at
A
Chennai
B
Hyderabad
C
Kolkatax
D
Mumbai
Question 117Single Answer
The first Geographical Indication in Telangana area was registered in respect of the following goods :
A
Pochampally Dress Designs
B
Hyderabadi Haleem
C
Hyderabadi Biryanix
D
Pembarti Metal craft
Question 118Single Answer
Who is the famous Oggukatha Artist ?
A
Alekya Punjala
B
Sindu Yellamma
C
Chukka Sattaiah
D
Chukka Ramayya
Question 119Single Answer
In Telangana which district is known for Silver Filigree ?
A
Nizamabad
B
Khammam
C
Warangal
D
Karimnagar
Question 120Single Answer
In Telangana the Nallamala Forests are spread in
A
Adilabad and Nizamabad
B
Mahaboobnagar and Nalgonda
C
Adilabad and Warangal
D
Mahaboobnagar and Rangareddy
Question 121Single Answer
Nataraja Ramakrishna is an expert of which dance form ?
A
Perini Shiva Tandavam
B
Oggu-Katha
C
Kuchipudi
D
Kathakali
Question 122Single Answer
Pillala Marri is situated in the district of
A
Medak
B
Nalgonda
C
Mahaboobnagar
D
Nizamabad
Question 123Single Answer
The first Open University of India was established in
A
Ahmedabad
B
Hyderabad
C
Allahabad
D
New Delhi
Question 124Single Answer
As per 2011 Census density of population in Telangana State is :
A
306
B
350
C
382
D
390
Question 125Single Answer
Hyderabad Tenancy and Agricultural Land Act was enacted in the year
A
1948
B
1950
C
1956
D
1975
Question 126Single Answer
Which district has the highest ST population share in its total population ?
A
Mahabubabad
B
Adilabad
C
Nalgonda
D
Warangal
Question 127Single Answer
Major source of irrigation for agriculture in the Telangana State :
A
Canals
B
Tanks
C
Wells
D
Water-Harvesting Pits
Question 128Single Answer
As per 2011 Census lowest literacy rate district in Telangana State :
A
Medak
B
Jogulamba
C
Adilabad
D
Khammam
Question 129Single Answer
In Telangana 'Budubunga' is
A
a tree
B
a birdx
C
a type of pot
D
a fruit
Question 130Single Answer
The Hali Sicca was introduced by
A
Quli Qutub Shah
B
Salar Jung I
C
Mir Alam
D
Bahadur Yar Jung
Question 131Single Answer
Secunderabad was named after whom ?
A
Secunder Pasha
B
Secunder Bakht
C
Secunder Jha
D
Secunder Lodhi
Question 132Single Answer
Identify the commander-in-chief who led the Nizam's Army during the Operation Polo :
A
Laiq Ali
B
Kasim Razvi
C
S.A. Eldruss
D
Mehdi yar Jung
Question 133Single Answer
During the 1857 revolt in Hyderabad Turrebaz Khan was shot dead at
A
Medak
B
Shamirpet
C
Toopran
D
Bhongir
Question 134Single Answer
Khilashapuram in Warangal district was associated with
A
Padmanayakas
B
Sarvai Papanna
C
Akkanna-Madanna
D
Gona Budda Reddy
Question 135Single Answer
Prataparudra-Yashobushanam was written by
A
Vidyanatha
B
Ketana
C
Potana
D
Thikkana
Question 136Single Answer
Chakali Ailamma fought against the Landlord of
A
Palakurthi
B
Kadivendi
C
Visnur
D
Jangaon
Question 137Single Answer
For which novel Ampa Shayya Naveen got 'Kendra Sahitya Academy' award ?
A
Kala Megham
B
Telangana
C
Ampa Shayya
D
Kala Rekhalu
Question 138Single Answer
'Maneru' river is a tributary of
A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Penganga
D
Manjeera
Question 139Single Answer
The Devadasi/Jogini system prevalent in Telangana would be violative of which of the fundamental rights ?
A
Right to Equality
B
Right against Exploitation
C
Right to Freedom of Religion
D
Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Question 140Single Answer
Which town was the district head-quarter prior to formation of mahaboobnagar district ?
A
Gadwal
B
Wanaparthy
C
Nagarkurnool
D
Narayanpet
Question 141Single Answer
Which Indian city launched the first driverless metro train service in 2025?
A
Mumbai
B
Delhi
C
Bengaluru
D
Kolkata
Question 142Single Answer
Which organization released the Global Hunger Index 2025, ranking India significantly higher than in previous years?
A
World Health Organization
B
United Nations Development Programme
C
Concern Worldwide
D
Food and Agriculture Organization
Question 143Single Answer
Which Indian state launched the ‘Zero Waste Village’ initiative in 2025?
A
Himachal Pradesh
B
Assam
C
Uttarakhand
D
Kerala
Question 144Single Answer
Which international agreement was signed in 2025 to address plastic pollution globally?
A
Paris Agreement
B
Global Plastics Treaty
C
Kyoto Protocol
D
Montreal Protocol
Question 145Single Answer
Which Indian scientist was awarded the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics in 2025?
A
Ashoke Sen
B
C.N.R. Rao
C
Jayant Narlikar
D
Abhas Mitra
Question 146Single Answer
Which Indian state introduced a policy for free public transport for women in 2025?
A
Delhi
B
Karnataka
C
West Bengal
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 147Single Answer
Which country launched the world’s first fully reusable rocket in 2025?
A
India
B
China
C
United States
D
Russia
Question 148Single Answer
Which Indian state hosted the National Games in 2025?
A
Goa
B
Gujarat
C
Assam
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 149Single Answer
Which global organization released a report on climate adaptation funding in 2025?
A
World Bank
B
International Monetary Fund
C
United Nations Environment Programme
D
World Economic Forum
Question 150Single Answer
Which Indian startup became the first to achieve unicorn status in 2025?
