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Latest TSPSC Polytechnic Lecturer Electronics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, General Studies and General Abilities
Question Bank TSPSC Polytechnic Lecturer (Electronics) Exam (Paper-I) - English
General Studies and General Abilities
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 12 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 13 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 14 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 15 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 16 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 17 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 18 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 19 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 20 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 21 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 23 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 24 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 25 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 26 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 27 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 28 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 29 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 30 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 31 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 32 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 33 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 34 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 35 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
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General Studies and General Abilities
Q 51 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 52 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 53 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 54 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 55 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 56 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 57 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 58 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 59 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 60 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 61 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 62 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 63 :
Dimensions of impulse are
A.[MLT –1]
B.[MLT²]
C.[MT–2]
D.[ML–1T–3]
Q 64 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 65 :
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A.Ca3Al2O6
B.Ca3SiO5
C.Ca2SiO4
D.Ca3(PO4)2
Q 66 :
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A.It does not contain carbon
B.It does not contain silicon
C.It does not contain iron
D.It does not contain calcium
Q 67 :
The grain size (USDA) of silt in soil ranges between :
A.0.2 mm to 0.5 mm
B.0.5 mm to 0.1 mm
C.0.1 mm to 0.05 mm
D.0.05 mm to 0.002 mm
Q 68 :
What will be BOD, for a wastewater sample when 21 ml of sample is diluted to 300 ml in BOD bottle to determine dissolved oxygen .
[Given: Initial DO, = 10 mg/l; Five days later DO5 = 5 mg/l]
A.~ 5 mg/l
B.~ 25 mg/l
C.~ 71.4 mg/l
D.~75 mg/l
Q 69 :
What will be the concentration of 40 ppb SOâ‚‚ in µg/m³ unit at 25°C ?
A.~ 0.04 µg/m³
B.~ 1047 µg/m³
C.~ 104.7 µg/m³
D.~ 10.47 µg/m³
Q 70 :
National Ambient air quality standards typically include following components :
A.Maximum and Minimum pollutant levels, adjustment for co - pollutants
B.Abetment strategies, non - attainment penalties
C.Ambient temperature, size distribution and relative humidity
D.Indicator (Chemical/Chemical class), Averaging time, Pollutant form and level
Q 71 :
Primary air pollutants differ from secondary air pollutants as they :
A.are present in levels that can be weighed on filter paper
B.are directly emitted from identified sources
C.have undergone chemical transformation in air after release from identified sources
D.are designated as hazardous air pollutants
Q 72 :
Continuity equation expresses the law of conservation of :
A.Momentum
B.Mass
C.Entropy
D.Energy
Q 73 :
Which of the following statements correctly represent the environmental wisdom worldwide ?
A.Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems mostly for our benefits
B.Our success depends on how well we manage the earth's life support systems for our benefit and for the rest of nature
C.Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself and integrating such lessons from nature into the ways we think
D.Our success depends on using environmentally beneficial forms of economic growth and discourage environmentally harmful forms
Q 74 :
Exposure concentration is _______ .
A.the amount of the chemical that is received by the target
B.the amount of chemical present in the medium with which an Organism has contact
C.the amount of the chemical that is excreted by the target
D.the amount of the chemical that is metabolized by the target
Q 75 :
In ecotoxicology studies, ED - 50 is _______ .
A.the dose that affects 50% of the population or observed subjects
B.the dose that affects 95% of the population or observed subjects
C.the dose that affects 25% of the population or observed subjects
D.the dose that do not affect 50% of the total population
Q 76 :
A hypothesis, that predicts a linear relationship in which rate of ecosystem processes is maximum with greatest number of species, is known as :
A.Rivet - popper hypothesis
B.Redundancy hypothesis
C.Diversity - stability hypothesis
D.Idiosyncratic hypothesis
Q 77 :
Telangana Grameena Bank is
A.a Co-operative Bank
B.a Government Scheduled Bank
C.a Housing Bank
D.an Investment Bank
Q 78 :
The Scheme 'HRIDAY' is related to
A.Urban development
B.Rural development
C.Health improvement
D.Literacy improvement
Q 79 :
'Sabla' scheme is meant for empowerment of
A.Adolescent girls
B.Physically challenged girls
C.Members of self help groups
D.Girls belonging to weaker sections
Q 80 :
What was the currency of Hyderabad State during the period of last Nizam ?
A.Ana
B.Nizamia Ana
C.Osmania Sikka
D.Nizamia Sikka
Q 81 :
"Telangana Palle Pragathi" project was launched in the village of
A.Kowdipally, Medak District
B.Erravalli, Medak District
C.Mulkanoor, Karimnagar District
D.Chevella, Rangareddy District
Q 82 :
Name of the Bank founded by the last Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan is
A.Nizam State Bank
B.Hyderabad Provincial Bank
C.Hyderabad Commerical Bank
D.Hyderabad State Bank
Q 83 :
Who constructed the 'Masaheba' tank in Hyderabad ?
A.Hayat Bakshi Begum
B.Khanan Bakshi Begum
C.Ameena Bibi
D.Meherunnisa
Q 84 :
Who established the State Depressed Classes Association in Hyderabad ?
A.Arige Ramaswamy
B.Yathiraj
C.Bhagya Reddy Varma
D.B.S. Venkat Rao
Q 85 :
Which of the following committee was appointed by the VII Nizam to suggest Constitutional Reforms ?
A.Ali Imam Committee
B.Aravamudu Iyengar Committee
C.Pingali Venkataram Reddy Committee
D.Mirza Yar Jung Committee
Q 86 :
Which Landlord donated his lands during the Bhoodan Movement in Telangana ?
A.Visnuri Ramchandra Reddy
B.Katkuri Krishna Rao
C.Pingali Venkat Rao
D.Vedire Ramachandra Reddy
Q 87 :
Who was the incharge of 'Port-Cities' during Qutubshahi period ?
A.Ain-ul-Mulk
B.Shah-Bandhar
C.Dabir
D.Kotwal
Q 88 :
For the maintenance of the Hyderabad Contingent Forces, which area was surrendered to the British by the Nizam's Government ?
A.Aurangabad
B.Warangal
C.Mahaboobnagar
D.Berar
Q 89 :
Who was the founder of the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad ?
A.Salarjung-I
B.Salarjung-III
C.Salarjung-II
D.Osman Ali Khan
Q 90 :
Which of the following district has the lowest HDI (Human Development Index) in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 91 :
Which district has the lowest population in Telangana State as per 2011 Census ?
A.Kumaram Bheem
B.Khammam
C.Adilabad
D.Warangal
Q 92 :
Density of population in Telangana as per 2011 Census
A.227 persons per sq. km.
B.306 persons per sq. km.
C.325 persons per sq. km.
D.350 persons per sq. km.
Q 93 :
Which of the following is the leading Rice crop producing district in Telangana State ?
A.Nalgonda
B.Nizamabad
C.Karimnagar
D.Warangal
Q 94 :
Second largest district in Telangana State, area-wise is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Nalgonda
C.Karimnagar
D.Khammam
Q 95 :
Least Urbanized district in Telangana as per 2011 Census is
A.Mahaboobnagar
B.Nalgonda
C.Adilabad
D.Medak
Q 96 :
Tank irrigation area predominantly found in the district of
A.Khammam
B.Karimnagar
C.Nizamabad
D.Warangal
Q 97 :
'Gusadi' Dance is popular in which district of Telangana ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Warangal
D.Adilabad
Q 98 :
The other popular name of Komaravelli Veerabhadra Swamy is
A.Ellanna
B.Mallanna
C.Rajanna
D.Beeranna
Q 99 :
Name the village of Telangana, in which coal was found for the first time .
A.Bellampalli
B.Bhupalpalli
C.Yellandu
D.Ramagundam
Q 100 :
Who established the Asian Largest Sugar Factory in Shakkar Nagar ?
A.Sharad Pawar
B.Mir Osman Ali Khan
C.Azam Khan
D.N.T. Rama Rao
Q 101 :
How many Mandals of Khammam District are merged in Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation of the State ?
A.6
B.7
C.8
D.9
Q 102 :
Where is the 100 pillar temple located ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Hanmakonda
C.Medak
D.Karimnagar
Q 103 :
Which district in Telangana has the highest number of cement factories ?
A.Warangal
B.Khammam
C.Nalgonda
D.Nizamabad
Q 104 :
Munneru River flows through which district of Telangana ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Adilabad
C.Khammam
D.Medak
Q 105 :
In which district of Telangana the Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located ?
A.Karimnagar
B.Mahaboobnagar
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 106 :
The Gun Park in Hyderabad is built to commemorate
A.The peasants who lost their lives in the Telangana Armed struggle
B.The students who lost their lives during the 1969 Telangana Movement
C.The soldiers who lost their lives during the 1857 revolt
D.The nationalists who died during the Quit India Movement
Q 107 :
Match the following in regard to model villages in Telangana :
(a) Gangadevipalli 1. Co-op. Bank
(b) Ankapur 2. Prohibition and Sanitation
(c) Mulkanoor 3. Internet Village
(d) Siddapur 4. Scientific Agriculture and Seed Production
Options :
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 1 3
B.2 4 3 1
C.4 2 3 4
D.4 2 1 3
Q 108 :
Which of the following is NOT associated with the Krishna river ?
A.Nagarjuna Sagar Project
B.Srisailam Project
C.Pulichintala Project
D.Ellampally Project
Q 109 :
Arrange the following from North to South of Telangana :
1. Bhongir Fort
2. Kakatiya kala Toranam
3. Rachakonda Fort
4. Ramagiri Fort
Options :
A.3, 2, 1, 4
B.4, 2, 1, 3
C.1, 2, 3, 4
D.4, 3, 2, 1
Q 110 :
Match the following :
(a) Telangana Martyrs Statue 1. Byroju Venkata Ramanachary
(b) School Prayer Pledge 2. Paravastu Lokeshwar
(c) Telangana Talli 3. Paidimarri Venkata Subba Rao
(d) Salam Hyderabad 4. Dr. Ekka Yadagiri Rao
Options :
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 2 1
B.4 3 1 2
C.3 4 1 2
D.3 4 2 1
Q 111 :
Match the following :
(a) Perini 1. Leg Bone Soup of Hyderabad
(b) Paaya 2. A Tribal Festival
(c) Ikat 3. Dance Style
(d) Teez 4. A Dyeing Technique
Options :
A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 1 4 2
B.3 1 2 4
C.1 3 4 2
D.1 3 2 4
Q 112 :
The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre is located at
A.Chennai
B.Hyderabad
C.Kolkatax
D.Mumbai
Q 113 :
The first Geographical Indication in Telangana area was registered in respect of the following goods :
A.Pochampally Dress Designs
B.Hyderabadi Haleem
C.Hyderabadi Biryanix
D.Pembarti Metal craft
Q 114 :
Who is the famous Oggukatha Artist ?
A.Alekya Punjala
B.Sindu Yellamma
C.Chukka Sattaiah
D.Chukka Ramayya
Q 115 :
In Telangana which district is known for Silver Filigree ?
A.Nizamabad
B.Khammam
C.Warangal
D.Karimnagar
Q 116 :
In Telangana the Nallamala Forests are spread in
A.Adilabad and Nizamabad
B.Mahaboobnagar and Nalgonda
C.Adilabad and Warangal
D.Mahaboobnagar and Rangareddy
Q 117 :
Nataraja Ramakrishna is an expert of which dance form ?
A.Perini Shiva Tandavam
B.Oggu-Katha
C.Kuchipudi
D.Kathakali
Q 118 :
Pillala Marri is situated in the district of
A.Medak
B.Nalgonda
C.Mahaboobnagar
D.Nizamabad
Q 119 :
The first Open University of India was established in
A.Ahmedabad
B.Hyderabad
C.Allahabad
D.New Delhi
Q 120 :
As per 2011 Census density of population in Telangana State is :
A.306
B.350
C.382
D.390
Q 121 :
Hyderabad Tenancy and Agricultural Land Act was enacted in the year
A.1948
B.1950
C.1956
D.1975
Q 122 :
Which district has the highest ST population share in its total population ?
A.Mahabubabad
B.Adilabad
C.Nalgonda
D.Warangal
Q 123 :
Major source of irrigation for agriculture in the Telangana State :
A.Canals
B.Tanks
C.Wells
D.Water-Harvesting Pits
Q 124 :
As per 2011 Census lowest literacy rate district in Telangana State :
A.Medak
B.Jogulamba
C.Adilabad
D.Khammam
Q 125 :
In Telangana 'Budubunga' is
A.a tree
B.a birdx
C.a type of pot
D.​a fruit
Q 126 :
The Hali Sicca was introduced by
A.Quli Qutub Shah
B.Salar Jung I
C.Mir Alam
D.Bahadur Yar Jung
Q 127 :
Joha rice, which was seen in the news, is from which state/UT ?
A.West Bengal
B.Assam
C.Odisha
D.Bihar
Q 128 :
Which Union Ministry announced changes in UAV Export Policy to make it simpler and liberalized ?
A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B.Ministry of MSME
C.Ministry of External Affairs
D.Ministry of Home Affairs
Q 129 :
Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in which country ?
A.Netherlands
B.Greece
C.Japan
D.China
Q 130 :
Heliopolis Memorial, which was seen in the news, is located in which country ?
A.Japan
B.USA
C.Egypt
D.Germany
Q 131 :
Which country leads the ‘Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)’ ?
A.USA
B.India
C.Germany
D.Italy
Q 132 :
‘Arkadag’, a US$5 billion ‘smart’ city, was unveiled in which of the following countries to honor its former leader Gurbanguly Berdymukhamedov ?
A.Iran
B.Russia
C.Oman
D.Turkmenistan
Q 133 :
Who among the following has been appointed as a special Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) ?
A.Manoj Sashidhar
B.Ajay Bhatnagar
C.Sharad Agarwal
D.Anurag Joshi
Q 134 :
In June 2023, which country will be collaborating with India in the defence sector, with a particular focus on the maritime domain ?
A.Thailand
B.Indonesia
C.The Philippines
D.Nepal
Q 135 :
Who among the following would take over Markus Duesmann as the CEO & Chairman of Audi ?
A.Gernot Dollner
B.Oliver Hoffmann
C.Xavier Ros
D.Renate Vachenauer
Q 136 :
How much amount has been approved by the World Bank to accelerate the development of India’s low-carbon energy sector ?
A.$2.4 billion
B.$3.1 billion
C.2 billion
D.1.5 billion
Q 137 :
Kyriakos Mitsotaki has been elected as the Prime Minister of which country ?
A.France
B.Greece
C.Japan
D.South Korea
Q 138 :
What is the rank of India in “WCC’s Global Competitiveness Index’ ?
A.12
B.25
C.40
D.56
Q 139 :
Which bloc has conducted a joint military drill named ‘Solidarity Exercise’ ?
A.EU
B.G-20
C.ASEAN
D.BIMSTEC
Q 140 :
Which organization approved USD 255.5 million loan for Multidisciplinary Education and Research in India ?
A.ADB
B.AIIB
C.IMF
D.World Bank
Q 141 :
Utah Mountains, which were seen in the news, for Watermelon Snow, is situated in which country ?
A.Russia
B.Ukraine
C.USA
D.Indonesia
Q 142 :
In June 2023, who among the following has been honoured with the Points of Light Award ?
A.Andy Smith
B.Rajindar Singh Dhatt
C.Darren Edwards
D.CJ Lloyd Webley
Q 143 :
How many critical minerals were identified in India’s first-ever report on Critical Minerals for India ?
A.40
B.30
C.20
D.35
Q 144 :
Which edition of the Indian Cooperative Congress (ICC) will be inaugurated by PM Modi on 1st July 2023 ?
A.18th
B.17th
C.15th
D.19th
Q 145 :
According to Bloomberg, which of the following Indian bank would be ranked among the world’s most valuable banks ?
A.State Bank of India
B.ICICI Bank
C.Yes Bank
D.HDFC Bank
Q 146 :
International Asteroid Day is observed annually on ____ .
A.27th June
B.28th June
C.29th June
D.30th June
General Knowledge
Q 147 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 148 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A.Cell membrane
B.Plasma membrane
C.Cell wall
D.Nucleus
Q 149 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A.Manganese
B.Potassium
C.Phosphorus
D.Calcium
Q 150 :
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
