A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 4Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 5Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 6Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 7Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 8Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 9Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 10Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 11Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 12Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 13Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 14Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 15Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 16Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 17Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 18Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle
Question 23Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Question 24Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q
Question 25Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 26Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 27Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 29Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 30Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 31Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 33Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 34Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 36Single Answer
Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle:
1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow.
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 37Single Answer
A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is:
A
100 kJ
B
200 kJ
C
300 kJ
D
400 kJ
Question 38Single Answer
1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer is:
A
450 kJ/s
B
400 kJ/s
C
350 kJ/s
D
300 kJ/s
Question 39Single Answer
The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body are:
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct?
1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 41Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 42Single Answer
The property of a thermodynamic system is:
A
A path function
B
A point function
C
A quantity which does not change in reversible process
D
A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle
Question 43Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line.
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve on a T-s diagram.
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 44Single Answer
The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its:
A
Isentropic efficiency
B
Isothermal efficiency
C
Adiabatic efficiency
D
Volumetric efficiency
Question 45Single Answer
In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be:
A
10 bar
B
6 bar
C
4 bar
D
3 bar
Question 46Single Answer
An ideal heat engine, operating on a reversible cycle, produces 9 kW. The engine operates between 27°C and 927°C. What is the fuel consumption given that the calorific value of the fuel is 40000 kJ/kg?
A
0.8 kg/hr
B
1.02 kg/hr
C
1.08 kg/hr
D
1.28 kg/hr
Question 47Single Answer
If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute, then
A
Cohesion is equal to adhesion
B
Cohesion is more than adhesion
C
Adhesion is more than cohesion
D
Both adhesion and cohesion have no connection with angle of contact
Question 48Single Answer
The Carnot cycle is impracticable because:
A
Isothermal process is very fast; and isentropic process is very slow
B
Isothermal process is very slow; and isentropic process is very fast
C
Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very slow
D
Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very fast
Question 49Single Answer
An ideal Otto-cycle works between minimum and maximum temperature of 300 K and 1800 K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle for maximum work output when 1.5 for this ideal gas?
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 50Single Answer
Consider the following statements: 1. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is a function of the properties of the working substance (gas)
2. For the same compression ratio and same input, the thermal efficiency of an Otto cycle is more than that of a Diesel cycle
3. The thermal efficiency of a Diesel cycle increases with decrease of cut-off ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
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Mechanical Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 52Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 53Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 54Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 55Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 56Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 57Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 58Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 59Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 60Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 61Single Answer
A riveting machine is driven by a constant-torque 3 kW motor. The moving parts including the flywheel are equivalent to 150 kg at 0.6 m radius. One riveting operation takes 1 second and absorbs 10000 N-m of energy. The speed of the flywheel is 300 r.p.m. before riveting. What is the speed (to nearest 10 r.p.m.) after riveting and what is the number of rivets that can be closed per minute?
A
260 r.p.m. and 18
B
290 r.p.m. and 15
C
360 r.p.m. and 18
D
390 r.p.m. and 15
Question 62Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to unity.
B
The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of teeth.
C
In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the base circle.
D
For commercially cut gears, the limiting pitch line velocity is 60 m/min.
Question 63Single Answer
The thickness of the continuous weld used for connecting a horizontal square bar of 150 mm size and of cantilevered length 500 mm to a vertical plate, with the bar carrying a 25 kN vertical load at its outer tip, given that the permissible direct shear stress of the weld is 20 N/mm2, is
A
3 mm
B
4 mm
C
5 mm
D
6 mm
Question 64Single Answer
A shaft of 50 mm diameter transmits a torque of 800 N-m. The width of the rectangular key used is 10 mm. The allowable shear stress of the material of the key being 40 MPa, the required length of the key would be
A
60 mm
B
70 mm
C
80 mm
D
90 mm
Question 65Single Answer
A governor is said to be hunting if the speed of the engine
A
remains constant at the mean speed
B
is above the mean speed
C
is below the mean speed
D
fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed
Question 66Single Answer
The diameter of the pin in a bushed pin type flexible coupling is to be increased for the purpose of
A
higher stress due to shear
B
keeping the magnitude of bending moment small by reducing the unsupported length of the pin
C
fitting the pin in the bush
D
reducing the thickness of the flange
Question 67Single Answer
The problem of interference in involute profile gears can be overcome by which one of the following means?
A
Decreasing the centre distance
B
Using composite profile with cycloidal curve at the root of the tooth
C
Using stub teeth of height more than the full depth teeth
D
Proper lubrication
Question 68Single Answer
The bearing modulus for a bearing is 1628. What is the bearing characteristic number considered for bearing design?
A
1628
B
3256
C
4884
D
6512
Question 69Single Answer
Two shafts of diameter 30 mm each are connected by a flange coupling. Six bolts, each of diameter 8 mm, are used on a pitch circle of diameter 90 mm. If the allowable shear stress of the bolt material is 80 MPa, what is the torque transmitting capacity of the bolts to the nearest 10 units?
A
780 N-m
B
950 N-m
C
1090 N-m
D
1250 N-m
Question 70Single Answer
While selecting the elements of power transmission with speed reduction, the order of preference based on a minimum cost is
A
spur gear, belt pulley, worm and worm wheel
B
belt pulley, spur gear, worm and worm wheel
C
worm and worm wheel, spur gear, belt pulley
D
worm and worm wheel, belt pulley, spur gear
Question 71Single Answer
A solid shaft is designed to transmit 100 kW while rotating at N r.p.m. If the diameter of the shaft is doubled and allowed to operate at 2 N r.p.m., the power that can be transmitted by the latter shaft is
A
200 kW
B
400 kW
C
800 kW
D
1600 kW
Question 72Single Answer
What shall be the centre distance between the axes of pinion and gear when a 20° full-depth involute profile pinion with 20 teeth meshes with a gear that has 50 teeth for a module of 6 mm?
A
70 mm
B
140 mm
C
210 mm
D
280 mm
Question 73Single Answer
The diameter of a shaft to transmit 25 kW at 1500 r.p.m. given that the ultimate strength is 150 MPa and the factor of safety is 3, will nearly be
A
12 mm
B
16 mm
C
20 mm
D
26 mm
Question 74Single Answer
A thick lubrication is
A
a stable lubrication and there is no metal to metal contact
B
a stable lubrication because there is some amount of metal to metal contact
C
an unstable lubrication because there is some amount of metal to metal contact
D
an unstable lubrication because there is no metal to metal contact
Question 75Single Answer
If the dynamic load capacity of a ball bearing is increased to 1.5 times its earlier value without changing its equivalent load, the life of the bearing increases to
A
6.4 times its earlier life
B
5.2 times its earlier life
C
4.2 times its earlier life
D
3.4 times its earlier life
Question 76Single Answer
The speed of the crankshaft is found to vary between 120 r.p.m. and 150 r.p.m. during one cycle of operation. What is the coefficient of fluctuation of speed?
A
0.40
B
0.31
C
0.22
D
0.13
Question 77Single Answer
The state of stress at a point when completely specified enables one to determine the
1. maximum shearing stress at the point
2. stress components on any arbitrary plane containing that point
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 78Single Answer
A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum normal stress on the plane will be
A
100 MPa
B
200 MPa
C
300 MPa
D
400 MPa
Question 79Single Answer
A metal piece under the stress state of three principal stresses 30, 10 and 5 kg/mm2 is undergoing plastic deformation. The principal strain rates will be in the proportions of
A
15, –5 and –10
B
–15, 5 and 10
C
15, 5 and 10
D
–15, –5 and 10
Question 80Single Answer
An isotropic elastic material is characterized by
A
two independent moduli of elasticity along two mutually perpendicular directions
B
two independent moduli of elasticity along two mutually perpendicular directions and Poisson’s ratio
C
a modulus of elasticity, a modulus of rigidity and Poisson’s ratio
D
any two out of a modulus of elasticity, a modulus of rigidity and Poisson’s ratio
Question 81Single Answer
The Miller indices of a material in a plane are proportional to
A
the reciprocal of numerical parameters of the intercepts
B
the square of unit cell dimensions
C
the intercepts of the planes on the coordinate axes
D
theinterplanar spacing
Question 82Single Answer
The modulus of elasticity of E-glass is 72 GPa and that of epoxy resin is 3 GPa. The modulus of elasticity (to the nearest unit magnitude) for a composite material consisting of 60% by volume of continuous E-glass fibre and 40% epoxy resin for the matrix, when stressed under isostress conditions, is
A
4 GPa
B
5 GPa
C
6 GPa
D
7 GPa
Question 83Single Answer
In developing abrasive ceramics which are used to wear, grind or cut away other materials which are (necessarily) softer, they should have, besides wear resistance,
1. a high degree of toughness
2. a low degree of toughness
3. refractoriness
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 84Single Answer
Consider the following in case of high-energy forming processes :
1. The evacuation between die and blank in explosive forming is done by a vacuum pump.
2. The pressure waves produced in water in explosive forming deform the blank to the die shape.
3. The electrohydraulic forming makes use of discharge of large amount of electrical energy used in a capacitor blank.
4. In Petroforge, the piston is moved by combustion of fuel moving at the rate of 150-200 m/s.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 85Single Answer
In abrasive jet machining process, the main mechanism of material removal takes place due to
A
electrochemical action
B
mechanical impact
C
fatigue failure of the material
D
sparking on impact
Question 86Single Answer
Consider that the following materials are usable for manufacturing dies, moulds in investment casting process for the purpose of large-scale production :
1. Aluminum alloy
2. Magnesium alloy
3. Brass
4. Low-carbon steel
Which of the above are correctly usable?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 87Single Answer
The occurrence of casting defect ‘rat tail’ is possible because of
1. soft ramming of sand
2. continuous large flat surface on the mould
3. excessive hardness of the mould
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 88Single Answer
Components produced by die casting have finer grain, higher strength and greater hardness at the skin than at the centre due to
A
decreased wall thickness of die cavity
B
rapid chilling of molten metal at the die walls
C
high temperature involved in the process
D
high tonnage of die casting machines
Question 89Single Answer
A 125 mm long, 10 mm diameter stainless steel rod is being turned to 9 mm diameter, 0.5 mm depth of cut. The spindle rotates at 360 r.p.m. With the tool traversing at an axial speed of 175 mm/min, the metal removal rate is nearly
A
2200 mm3/min
B
2400 mm3/min
C
2600 mm3/min
D
2800 mm3/min
Question 90Single Answer
The feed in face milling for a width of 70 mm with a cutter of 160 mm diameter, having 10 inserts and rotating at 360 r.p.m., with a feed rate of 0.5 m/min, is nearly
A
0.21 mm/tooth
B
0.18 mm/tooth
C
0.14 mm/tooth
D
0.11 mm/tooth
Question 91Single Answer
A lathe consumes 500 W when running idle and 2500 W when cutting a steel specimen at 30 m/min. If the depth of cut is 4 mm and feed rate is 0.25 mm/rev, the cutting force and the approximate value of torque at a spindle run of 120 r.p.m. will respectively be
A
4000 N and 160 N-m
B
3000 N and 160 N-m
C
4000 N and 100 N-m
D
3000 N and 100 N-m
Question 92Single Answer
For a shaper, the length of stroke is 210 mm, the number of double strokes per minute is 32 and the ratio of return time to cutting time is 2 : 3. The cutting speed will be
A
8.1 m/min
B
11.2 m/min
C
14.3 m/min
D
17.4 m/min
Question 93Single Answer
The headstock of a lathe has 9 speeds with minimum speed of 100 r.p.m. and maximum speed of 1600 r.p.m. If the speeds are in geometric progression, then the ratio is
A
1.06
B
1.22
C
1.41
D
1.64
Question 94Single Answer
Surface cracking occurring at low temperatures in hydrostatic extrusion is known as
A
fluid defect
B
bamboo defect
C
fishtailing
D
arrowhead fracture
Question 95Single Answer
Flank wear occurs mainly on the
1. nose part of the cutting tool
2. front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
3. face of the cutting tool at the shortest distance from the cutting edge
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 only
D
1 only
Question 96Single Answer
A part programme for any arbitrary object is given as follows :
N001 G91 G71 M03 S600 EBOB
N002 G00 X 10.00 Y10.00 EOB
N003 G00 Z–10.00 EOB
N004 G83 Z–60.00 F100 EOB
N005 G80 EOB
N006 M02 EOB
The above programming format will be used as Canned cycle for
A
drilling
B
tapping
C
boring
D
grooving
Question 97Single Answer
In case of TIG welding of aluminum alloys, the amount of shielding gas used can be determined from the band of white deposit (aluminum oxide) alongside of the weld bead. A hairline width white band indicates that the quantum of shielding gas used has been
1. more than required
2. lesser than required
3. adequate as required
Which of the above is correct?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
Cannot be determined due to insufficient information
Question 98Single Answer
A cylindrical Robot can reach any point in a cylinder of height L and radius 2L, except for the points in an inner cylinder of height L and radius L. The volume for the cylindrical Robot work envelope will be
A
9.42 L3
B
6.24 L3
C
9.12 L3
D
9.86 L3
Question 99Single Answer
Consider the following statements about forging:
1. Forgings have high strength and ductility.
2. Forgings offer great resistance to impact and fatigue loads.
3. Forging assures uniformity in density as well as dimensions of the forged parts.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 100Single Answer
Endurance limit is of primary concern in the design of a/an
1. rotating shaft
2. industrial structure
3. column
4. machine base
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 101Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 103Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 104Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 105Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 106Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 107Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 108Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 109Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 110Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 111Single Answer
A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is
A
20.3 kW
B
15.4 kW
C
12.4 kW
D
10.8 kW
Question 112Single Answer
An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of this pressure drop due to friction, given that Rgas= 0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?
A
42.62 kW
B
40.26 kW
C
38.14 kW
D
35.13 kW
Question 113Single Answer
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A
30 J/m2/s
B
60 J/m2/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s
Question 114Single Answer
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K
Question 115Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 116Single Answer
Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be reduced by
1. retarding the spark
2. supercharging
3. increasing the engine speed
4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A
1 and 4
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 117Single Answer
A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the indicated thermal efficiency was nearly
A
29%
B
26%
C
31%
D
23%
Question 118Single Answer
In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A
90%
B
80%
C
52.5%
D
45.5%
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements for refrigeration and air-conditioning:
1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to the surroundings, the larger the power consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 120Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements: The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor can be improved by
1. decreasing the clearance volume
2. cooling the intake air
3. heating the intake air
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
2 only
B
3 only
C
1 and 2
D
1 and 3
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
The presence of air inside condensers
1. remains as a non-condensable gas
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
3. tends to cling to the surface
4. introduces large thermal resistance
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
The refrigeration system of an ice plant working between temperatures of –5°C and 25°C produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at 20°C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant is
A
9040 kJ/min
B
8750 kJ/min
C
8380 kJ/min
D
8010 kJ/min
Question 124Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of a vapour-absorption refrigeration cycle :
1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally used when waste heat is available from an existing source or when free energy like solar energy is to be used.
2. There are no moving parts in the absorption refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.
3. The value of the coefficient of performance is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption and vapour- compression refrigeration plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the saturation pressure of water vapour at 30°C as 4.246 kPa, the relative humidity of the air will be
A
66.1%
B
60.2%
C
58.8%
D
56.8%
Question 126Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of an evaporative cooling process :
1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.
2. The dew-point temperature remains constant.
3. The enthalpy remains constant.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp under unit heat at its maximum efficiency.
2. The specific speed is a dimensionless parameter used for the selection of turbines.
3.The function of guide vanes in reaction turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the fluid onto the runner blades.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 128Single Answer
A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125m3/sof water from a well with a static lift of 30 m. If the brake power of the driving electric motor is 5 kW, what is the overall efficiency of the pump-set?
A
57.6%
B
63.9%
C
65.3%
D
73.6%
Question 129Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of ideal and practical gas turbine cycles:
1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency depends on the pressure ratio only.
2. In the practical cycle case (with irreversibilities in the compression and expansion processes), The cycle efficiency depends on the maximum temperature as well as on the pressure ratio.
3. In the practical cycle case, at a given maximum temperature, the maximum efficiency and the maximum work done occur at a same pressure ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 130Single Answer
A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0.51 m. At a certain point of the issuing jet, the horizontal and vertical coordinates measured from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085 m, respectively. What is the value of the coefficient of velocity?
A
0.975
B
0.925
C
0.875
D
0.825
Question 131Single Answer
Consider the following statements for single stage reciprocating compressors :
1. Isothermal process is the most desirable process for compression.
2. The size of clearance volume provided in the compressor has no effect on work done per kg of air delivered.
3. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor decreases with increasing pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 132Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of regenerative Rankine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the cycle.
2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given output.
3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 133Single Answer
Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was at a temperature of 200°C and a pressure of 5 bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas is
A
250kN/m2
B
300kN/m2
C
350kN/m2
D
400kN/m2
Question 134Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the overall heat transfer coefficient.
2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the velocity of flow of water in the tube.
3. The difference between the temperature of steam entering the condenser and the inlet water temperature should be maximum for maximum efficiency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 135Single Answer
The total power developed by a three stage velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is 900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in the first and the second stages are, respectively
A
500 kW and 300 kW
B
100 kW and 300 kW
C
500 kW and 100 kW
D
100 kW and 100 kW
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of natural-draft cooling towers :
1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced air flow.
2. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or more in height.
3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about the vertical axis-affording improved strength rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above the ground is taken as the rated velocity for design of windmills.
2. The total power of a wind stream is directly proportional to the cube of average velocity.
3. Wind turbine operates with variable load over a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out velocities.
4. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind directions, but it needs yaw adjustment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 4
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 3
Question 138Single Answer
Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft applications?
A
Direct methanol fuel cell
B
Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
C
Alkaline fuel cell
D
Phosphoric acid fuel cell
Question 139Single Answer
A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to 1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. The number of revolutions made thereby is nearly :
A
200
B
100
C
50
D
20
Question 140Single Answer
Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass, respectively are pressed on the two ends of a spring, all pre-placed on a smooth surface. When released, the smaller ball moves with an acceleration of 2m/s2.The simultaneous acceleration of the bigger ball will be :
A
0.5 m/s2
B
1m/s2
C
2 m/s2
D
4 m/s2
Question 141Single Answer
A bullet of mass 0.03 kg moving with a speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block of wood. The average force exerted by the wood on the bullet will be:
A
30 kN
B
20 kN
C
15 kN
D
10 kN
Question 142Single Answer
In the design of beams for a given strength, consider that the conditions of economy of use of the material would avail as follows:
1.Rectangular cross-section is more economical than square section area of the beam.
2. Circular section is more economical than square section.
3. I-section is more economical than a rectangular section of the same depth.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 143Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
The strain produced per unit volume is called resilience.
B
The maximum strain produced per unit volume is called proof resilience.
C
The least strain energy stored in a unit volume is called proof resilience.
D
The greatest strain energy stores in a unit volume of a material without permanent deformation is called proof resilience.
Question 144Single Answer
A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide × 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span of 12 m. It is acted upon by a concentrated load of 80 kN at the midspan. The maximum bending stress induced is:
A
400 MPa
B
300 MPa
C
200 MPa
D
100 MPa
Question 145Single Answer
A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends, carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If the same load be, alternatively, uniformly distributed over the full length of the bar, the maximum deflection of the bar will decrease by
A
25.5%
B
31.5%
C
37.5%
D
50.0%
Question 146Single Answer
A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin spherical pressure vessel have the same mean radius, same wall thickness and are subjected to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to sphere) will be in the ratio
A
1 : 2
B
1: 1
C
2 : 1
D
4 : 1
Question 147Single Answer
A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90 seconds. When the same escalator moves, he is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time would it take him to walk up the moving escalator?
A
48 seconds
B
36 seconds
C
30 seconds
D
24 seconds
Question 148Single Answer
On completion of heat treatment, the austenite structure would be retained if:
A
the rate of cooling is greater than the critical cooling rate
B
the rate of cooling is less than the critical cooling rate
C
the initiating temperature of martensite formation is above the room temperature
D
the finishing temperature of martensite formation is below the room temperature
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both equilibrium diagrams.
B
Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non-equilibrium diagrams.
C
Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram
D
Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium diagram.
Question 150Single Answer
The correct order of increasing resistivity among the following materials is :
A
nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure silica
B
doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate
C
Nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped silicon
D
Sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped silicon