Question for TSSPDCL AE - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

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Latest TSSPDCL AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical, Numerical Ability, Language Proficiency, Computer Awareness, General Knowledge & History of Telangana

Question Bank TSSPDCL Assistant Engineer Exam - English

Electrical

Q 1 :

Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

                 

1. A.0.8 Ω
2. B.1.4 Ω
3. C.2 Ω
4. D.2.8 Ω

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Q 2 :

For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10^-6 (ohm-m)^-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m²/V-s and 0.04 m²/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

1. A.7.0 × 10¹² m^-3
2. B.7.0 × 10^-12 m^-3
3. C.7.0 × 10^-12 m³
4. D.7.0 × 10¹² m³

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Q 3 :

The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m²/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m²/V-s?

1. A.9.2 × 10⁵/m³
2. B.2.77 × 10³/m³
3. C.2.43 × 10¹⁹/m³
4. D.8.9 × 10¹²/m³

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Q 4 :

Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place

1. A.By the mobility of the carriers
2. B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
3. C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
4. D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

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Q 5 :

Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

1. A.Parallel polarized
2. B.Perpendicularly polarized
3. C.Normally polarized
4. D.None of the above

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Q 6 :

An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if

1. A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
2. B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
3. C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
4. D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

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Q 7 :

The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is

1. A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
2. B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
3. C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
4. D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

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Q 8 :

Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?

1. A.High stiffness and strengths
2. B.Low densities
3. C.Unusual electrical property
4. D.Non-ductile

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Q 9 :

The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from

1. A.Meissner effect
2. B.Josephson effect
3. C.Isotope effect
4. D.x quantization experiments

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Q 10 :

Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?

1. A.Phenol formaldehyde
2. B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
3. C.Polyvinyl chloride
4. D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

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Q 11 :

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is

1. A.Ferrite
2. B.Piezoelectric
3. C.Pyroelectric
4. D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C

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Q 12 :

The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

1. A.Peak temperature
2. B.Neel temperatur
3. C.Critical temperature
4. D.Weiss temperature

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Q 13 :

Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?

1. A.Seeback effect
2. B.Thomson effect
3. C.Hall effect
4. D.Joule effect

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Q 14 :

Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are

1. A.Soft magnetic materials
2. B.Hard magnetic materials
3. C.High eddy current loss materials
4. D.High hysteresis loss materials

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Q 15 :

Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. A.Both 1 and 2
2. B.Neither 1 nor 2
3. C.1 only
4. D.2 only

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Q 16 :

The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of

1. A.Radiative recombination
2. B.Auger recombination
3. C.Surface recombination
4. D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination

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Q 17 :

Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of

1. A.GeO₂
2. B.B₂O₃
3. C.P₂O_5x
4. D.Al₂O₃

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Q 18 :

If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will

1. A.Become twice
2. B.Become half
3. C.ecome four times
4. D.Remain unchanged

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Q 19 :

In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux. 
Which of the above are correct?

1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q 20 :

If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of  luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?

1. A.MCHTX
2. B.MXHTC
3. C.XMHCT
4. D.XMHTC

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Q 21 :

When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will 

1. A.increase
2. B. decrease
3. C.remain the same 
4. D.increase or decrease depending on the impurity

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Q 22 :

An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is

1. A.a conductor
2. B.an insulator
3. C.a semiconductor 
4. D.a superconductor

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Q 23 :

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is

1. A.always positive
2. B.always negative
3. C.zero 
4. D.positive or negative depending upon the level of doping 

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Q 24 :

In the slice processing of an integrated circuit

1. A.components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
2. B.components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
3. C.the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide 
4. D.only on diffusion process is used 

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Q 25 :

Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?

1. A.1  and 2 only 
2. B.1 and 3 only
3. C.1, 2 and 3         
4. D.2 and 3

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Q 26 :

A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140  and 10k  The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be

1. A.3.3
2. B.6.6
3. C.36.6
4. D.93.3

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Q 27 :

A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?

1. A.2  and 3 
2. B.2 and 4
3. C.1 and 4 
4. D.1 and 3 

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Q 28 :

An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm² and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is

1. A.0.425 mH          
2. B.0.628 mH
3. C.0.751 mH 
4. D.0.904 mH

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Q 29 :

The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is

1. A.0.5 H 
2. B.1 H
3. C.2 H       
4. D.4 H 

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Q 30 :

In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s.  A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is

1. A.100 H 
2. B.10 H
3. C.0.1 H 
4. D.0.01 H 

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Q 31 :

A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + 45°) is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed on the screen will be 

1. A.1.25 cycles           
2. B.2.5 cycles 
3. C.5 cycles 
4. D.10 cycles 

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Q 32 :

Which one of the following conditions will be correct when three identical bulbs forming a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?
 

1. A.The bulb in R phase will be the brightest 
2. B.The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest 
3. C.The bulb in B phase will be the brightest 
4. D.All the bulbs will be equally bright 

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Q 33 :

Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter. Which of the following devices gives most accurate result?

1. A.PMMC
2. B.Hot-wire
3. C.CRO 
4. D.Electrodynamic

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Q 34 :

A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a DC ammeter by connecting

1. A.a high resistance in series with the meter
2. B.a high resistance across the meter
3. C.a low resistance across the meter
4. D.a low resistance in series with the meter

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Q 35 :

Consider the following types of damping:
1. Air-friction damping
2.Fluid-friction damping
3.Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the above?

1. A.1 only   
2. B.2 only
3. C.3 only 
4. D.1,2 and 3

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Q 36 :

In data acquisition system, analog data acquisition system is used

1. A.for narrow frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when wide frequency width is to be monitored
2. B.for wide frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when narrow frequency width is to be monitored
3. C.when quantity to be monitored varies slowly, while its counterpart is preferred if the quantity to be monitored varies very fast
4. D.when quantity to be monitored is time-variant, while digital data acquisition system is preferred when quantity is time invariant

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Q 37 :

During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced due to
1.contact resistance
2. Connecting leads
3.thermoelectric e.m.f.
which of the above are correct?

1. A.1 and 2 only 
2. B.1 and 3 only
3. C.2 and 3 only 
4. D.1,2 and 3

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Q 38 :

Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or current variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?

1. A.It has the form at k₁ e^-at
2. B.It has the form k 
3. C.It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b) 
4. D.It has the form e^+at

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Q 39 :

A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 × 10^–3 J?

1. A.25.38 mJ 
2. B.22.19 mJ 
3. C.4.80 mJ 
4. D.2.26 mJ 

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Q 40 :

A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the potential coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply. The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases with the current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly

1. A.10 kW 
2. B.13 kW
3. C.16 kW 
4. D.19 kW 

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Q 41 :

A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has

1. A.Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
2. B.Only one path for holes in the conduction band
3. C.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively 
4. D.Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively 

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Q 42 :

Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?

1. A.Monostablemultivibrator
2. B.Bistablemultivibrator
3. C.Schmitt trigger circuit 
4. D.Darlington complementary pair

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Q 43 :

Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?

1. A.Capacitors
2. B.​Inductors
3. C.Transistors
4. D.Resistance

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Q 44 :

Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. A.1  and 2 only 
2. B.1 and 3 only
3. C.2 and 3 only 
4. D.1, 2 and 3 

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Q 45 :

Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is

1. A.71 dB 
2. B.82 dB 
3. C.91 dB 
4. D.102 dB 

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Q 46 :

A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct? 

1. A.1 only 
2. B.2 only 
3. C.Both 1 and 2 
4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 

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Q 47 :

If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly

1. A.50% 
2. B.67%
3. C.100% 
4. D.125%

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Q 48 :

When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is

1. A.AM 
2. B.PM
3. C.FM       
4. D.Delta Modulation

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Q 49 :

The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and

1. A.Up converter
2. B.Down converter
3. C.Phase detector
4. D.Frequency multiplier

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Q 50 :

In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?

1. A.0.6 kHz 
2. B.3.6 kHz
3. C.12.4 kHz 
4. D.14.4 kHz

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