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Question Bank

Question for TSWDCW Extension Officer - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 90 · Max Marks: 90

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To boost your performance in TSWDCW Extension Officer exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in TSWDCW Extension Officer exams.

Latest TSWDCW Extension Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Subject Related Topics

Question Bank TSWDCW Extension Officer Exam - English

Subject Related Topics

Q 1 :
Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines
  1. A.Bailable offence
  2. B.Non-Bailable offence
  3. C.Cognizable offence
  4. D.Non-cognizable offence
Q 2 :
Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the following places
  1. A.Where cheque is issued
  2. B.In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank
  3. C.Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank
  4. D.From where the notice to pay the amount is issued
Q 3 :
What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’ ?
  1. A.There must be an allegation in the complaint
  2. B.The allegation must be about the commission of an offence
  3. C.The complaint must be made to the magistrate
  4. D.All of the above
Q 4 :
Which is not a negotiable instrument ?
  1. A.Bond
  2. B.Promissory note
  3. C.Bill of Exchange
  4. D.Cheque
Q 5 :
Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines
  1. A.Metropolitan Area
  2. B.Assistant Public Procsecutors
  3. C.Special Judicial Magistrate
  4. D.None of these
Q 6 :
Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.
  1. A.140
  2. B.150
  3. C.147
  4. D.211
Q 7 :
What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the court ?
  1. A.Summons
  2. B.Warrant of Arrest
  3. C.Attachment of property
  4. D.Above all
Q 8 :
Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines
  1. A.Non-Bailable offence
  2. B.Cognizable offence
  3. C.Non-cognizable offence
  4. D.Both B and C
Q 9 :
What are the kinds of warrant ?
  1. A.Bailable warrants
  2. B.Non-Bailable warrants
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of these
Q 10 :
What is the difference between summon and warrant ?
  1. A.Issuing of summon is a primary stage.  Generally warrants are issued if the attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons
  2. B.A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a warrant case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of these
Q 11 :
Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?
  1. A.A summon should have been legally issued against a person.
  2. B.A warrant should have been legally issued against a person
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of these
Q 12 :
What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings under section 107?
  1. A.Formation of opinion by magistrate
  2. B.Existence of sufficient ground for proceeding
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of these
Q 13 :
Public nuisance may be defined as
  1. A.An obstruction, risk or injury to the life
  2. B.A risk or injury to health
  3. C.An obstruction to the comfort or convenience of public at large
  4. D.All of the above
Q 14 :
Section ………… of the code of the criminal procedure deals with the circumstances when a conditional order for removal of nuisance can be passed.
  1. A.131
  2. B.133
  3. C.139
  4. D.143
Q 15 :
Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information Report (F.I.R.)?
  1. A.What is convency must be information
  2. B.That information should be related to the commission of an offence on the face of it.
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of these
Q 16 :
A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of criminal  procedure, 1973.
  1. A.Wife unable to maintain herself
  2. B.Divorced wife (not remarried)
  3. C.Minor daughter
  4. D.Divorced wife remarried
Q 17 :
Inherent powers under section 482 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973 can be exercised by
  1. A.Judicial Magistrate first class
  2. B.Sessions Judge
  3. C.High Court
  4. D.Chief Judicial Magistrate
Q 18 :
Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?
  1. A.Section 149
  2. B.Section 154
  3. C.Section 155
  4. D.Section 200
Q 19 :
How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
  1. A.16
  2. B.18
  3. C.20
  4. D.22
Q 20 :
The Supreme Court’s Judge retries at the age of
  1. A.58 years
  2. B.70 years
  3. C.62 years
  4. D.65 years
Q 21 :
Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by
  1. A.President of India
  2. B.Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  3. C.Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. D.None of the above
Q 22 :
In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’?
  1. A.Planning Commission
  2. B.National Development Council
  3. C.Central Cabinet
  4. D.Parliament
Q 23 :
Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
  1. A.Finance Minister
  2. B.Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. C.Prime Minister
  4. D.None of the above
Q 24 :
In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India?
  1. A.1962
  2. B.1965
  3. C.1975
  4. D.Never
Q 25 :
The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on
  1. A.June 26, 1945
  2. B.August 15, 1943
  3. C.January 26, 1946
  4. D.December 30, 1941
Q 26 :
How Many members are there in the Security Council?
  1. A.5
  2. B.9
  3. C.10
  4. D.15
Q 27 :
The Procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in
  1. A.Article 124(4)
  2. B.Article 124 (5)
  3. C.Article 125
  4. D.Airtcle 126
Q 28 :
In International Court of Justice, there are
  1. A.President and 15 other members
  2. B.President, Vice-President and 15 other members
  3. C.President, Vice-President and 14 other members
  4. D.President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Q 29 :
Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between
  1. A.The Prime Minister and the President
  2. B.Legislature and Exceutive
  3. C.Exceutive and Judiciary
  4. D.Centre and States
Q 30 :
A decree may be executed by
  1. A.Tehsildar
  2. B.Collector
  3. C.District Judge
  4. D.Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Q 31 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control     1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861                          2.Non official members in executive council 
C. Indian Council                                         3.Separate representation of Muslim community                       Act1909
D. Government of                                         4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces    
  1. A.A       B      C        D
    2       3       1        4
  2. B.4       1       2        3
  3. C.3       4       1        2
  4. D.1        2       3        4
Q 32 :
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
Q 33 :
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
  1. A.1 and 2 are correct
  2. B.2 and 3 are correct
  3. C.1 and 3 are correct
  4. D.None of the above
Q 34 :
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
Q 35 :
Which one is not correctly matched?
  1. A.Freedom of speech  -  include freedom of  and expression press
  2. B.Freedom of    -   include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
  3. C.conscience
    Right to personal -  include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
  4. D.(d) Right to equality  -   includes principles of natural justice
Q 36 :
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the 
  1. A.Prime Minister
  2. B.Vice- President
  3. C.Chief Minister
  4. D.Chief Justice
Q 37 :
 An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
 Arrange the protections in the order in which  they appear in the Indian constitution.
  1. A.Codes:
    1, 3, 2
  2. B.1, 2, 3
  3. C.3, 1, 2
  4. D.2, 1,3
Q 38 :
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
  1. A.75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  2. B.76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  3. C.77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  4. D.78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Q 39 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's  case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
  1. A.Codes:
     A      B      C     D
     2       4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
Q 40 :
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
  1. A.Three months
  2. B.Six months
  3. C.Nine months
  4. D.Twelve months
Q 41 :
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. A.Habeas corpus     - available against private individual as well.
  2. B.Quo warranto       - available against subordinate courts only
  3. C.Certiorari              - available against autonomous bodies only
  4. D.Prohibition           - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Q 42 :
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad                 1. Bhim Singh's  case.
B. Prisoner's right                       2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty                         3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability           4. Sunil Batra's case.
  1. A.A      B      C     D
    2      4       1     3
  2. B.4      2       3     1
  3. C.2      4       3      1
  4. D.4      2       1      3
Q 43 :
Match the following:
  1. A.Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
    from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
  2. B.Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
  3. C.In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
  4. D.In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Q 44 :
List-I                                                   List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore          1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights               
Maneka Gandhi                        2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus                          3. Right to life and  personal liberty
vs. State of MP           
Bashesher Nath                         4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr.                             5. Doctrine of severeability
  1. A.A      B      C      D
    4       2      3       1
  2. B.5       4      3       2
  3. C.4        3      2       1
  4. D.5        3     2        1
Q 45 :
List-I                                  List-II
Independence of judiciary            1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation                     2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial  functions               3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility                4. Ordinance
  1. A.A     B     C    D
    2      1     4     3
  2. B.3      4     1     2
  3. C.2      4     1     3
  4. D.3      I     4      2
Q 46 :
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
  1. A.3
  2. B.4
  3. C.2
  4. D.1
Q 47 :
 List-I                       List-II
​A Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural  justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power  without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of  public duty.
  1. A.A       B     C    D
    2      4       3    1
  2. B.1      3       4    2
  3. C.2       3      4   1
  4. D.1       4    3    2
Q 48 :
The fundamental duties provided in the  constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our  composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these  fundamental duties include:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 3
Q 49 :
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
  1. A.First
  2. B.Second
  3. C.Third
  4. D.Fourth
Q 50 :
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
  1. A.It lists the distribution of powers between  the union and the states.
  2. B.It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
  3. C.It contains the provision regarding the  administration of tribal areas.
  4. D.It allocates seats in the council of states.

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