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Question Bank

Question for TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer exams.

Latest TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General English, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Studies

Question Bank TTADC Sub Zonal Development Officer Exam - English

General English

Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
  1. A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
  2. B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
  3. C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
  4. D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
  1. A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
  2. B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
  3. C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
  4. D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
  1. A.Suresh would be invited by us
  2. B.Suresh would have been invited by us
  3. C.Suresh will be invited by us
  4. D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
  1. A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
  2. B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
  3. C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
  4. D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow. 
  1. A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
  2. B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
  3. C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
  4. D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
  1. A.Alveolate
  2. B.Cleft
  3. C. Cavernous
  4. D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset 
  1. A.Ignoreb
  2. B.Close
  3. C.Caress
  4. D.Fondle
Q 16 :
Ogle
  1. A.Leer
  2. B.Gaze
  3. C.Ignore
  4. D.Gawk
Q 17 :
Intrinsic
  1. A.Elemental
  2. B.Innate
  3. C.Connate
  4. D.Acquired
Q 18 :
Coalesce
  1. A.Separate
  2. B.Adhere
  3. C.Cleave
  4. D.Amalgamate
Q 19 :
Loiter
  1. A.lag 
  2. B.Hasten
  3. C.Amble
  4. D.Loii
Q 20 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
  1. A.held, generating
  2. B.aimed, creating
  3. C.targeted, awakening
  4. D.focused, building
  5. E.concentrated, producing

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Q 21 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 22 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 23 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 24 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 25 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 26 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 27 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 28 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 29 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 30 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 31 :
The theme for International Workers' Day (May 1st) is chosen by which organization ?
  1. A.World Health Organization (WHO)
  2. B.International Labour Organization (ILO)
  3. C.United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
  4. D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Q 32 :
A recent scientific study suggests the Great Barrier Reef might show signs of _______ .
  1. A.Complete collapse
  2. B.Significant recovery
  3. C.Stagnant growthc
  4. D.Accelerated bleaching
Q 33 :
Negotiations for a potential peace deal between Russia and Ukraine are currently being mediated by ______ .
  1. A.The United Nations (UN)
  2. B.The European Union (EU)
  3. C.Turkey
  4. D.China
Q 34 :
SpaceX recently launched its latest batch of Starlink internet satellites, aiming to improve internet access in ______ .
  1. A.Developed nations
  2. B.Remote and underserved areas
  3. C.Conflict zones
  4. D.All of the above
Q 35 :
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) recently revised its global economic growth forecast for 2024 downwards due to ______ .
  1. A.Rising interest rates
  2. B.Increased geopolitical tensions
  3. C.Technological advancements
  4. D.A decline in oil prices
Q 36 :
The focus of the upcoming G7 summit (May 18-19) is expected to be on _______ .
  1. A.Climate change mitigation
  2. B.Global food security crisis
  3. C.Space exploration initiatives
  4. D.Strengthening international trade
Q 37 :
The recent surge in monkeypox cases has been linked to travel from which region in Africa ?
  1. A.West Africa
  2. B.East Africa
  3. C.North Africa
  4. D.South Africa
Q 38 :
The recent cyberattack targeting a major oil pipeline in the United States is believed to be carried out by a hacker group from which country ?
  1. A.China
  2. B.Russia
  3. C.Iran
  4. D.North Korea
Q 39 :
The annual World Press Freedom Day is observed on which date in May ?
  1. A.May 1st
  2. B.May 3rd
  3. C.May 9th
  4. D.May 15th
Q 40 :
The first-ever mission to explore the surface of Venus is planned for launch by which space agency in 2024 ?
  1. A.NASA (USA)
  2. B.European Space Agency (ESA)
  3. C.JAXA (Japan)
  4. D.Roscosmos (Russia)

General Studies

Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B

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